USCG MK1

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sweatindiesel
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209606
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USCG MK1
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2013-04-05 15:52:36
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MK1 USCG EOCT
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Machinery Technician
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  1. HOW MANY POINTS WILL BE DEDUCTED FROM THE OVERALL DRILL SCORE FOR A MAJOR SAFETY VIOLATION?
    • 50
    • 45
    • 40
    • 35
  2. EXERCISE  EVALUATIONS WILL BE MAINTAINED BY THE TRAINING OFFICER FOR A MINUMUM OF HOW MANY YEARS AFTER THE EXERCISE HAS BEEN COMPLETED?
    2 YEARS
  3. The temperature at which water boils is called the boiling point or ________________.
    Saturation temperature
  4. What are the two types of auxiliary boilers? _____________________________________________________
    -WATERTUBE

    -FIRETUBE
  5. List the four PRIMARY areas that hazards stem from when working with a boiler system?
    • a. High pressures
    • b. High temperatures
    • c. Moving equipment
    • d. Hazards associated with fuel
  6. How often should the feedwater supply system be tested?
    A. Monthly
    B. Bimonthly
    C. Weekly
    D. Daily
    DAILY
  7. What is the liquid called that results when saturated steam gives up its heat?
    CONDENSATE
  8. Primarily used as an alternative method for checking boiler water level.
    TRI-COCK
  9.  
    What controls the start-up and shutdown sequence of the boiler?
    FLAME SAFEGUARD CONTROL (FSC)
  10. What four things should be included in feedwater testing?
    • a. Alkalinity testing (pH)
    • b. Total dissolved solids (TDS) of the boiler
    • c. Hot well
    • d. Makeup water
  11. The Riley-Beaird Flash Type Evaporator has _____ stages.
    A. two
    B. four
    C. six
    D. eight
    SIX
  12. The temperature pilot to the feed temperature regulator should maintain a temperature of _____ degrees Fahrenheit.
    • A. 155 to 160
    • B. 170 to 175
    • C. 170 to 180
    • D. 175 to 180
  13. Describe Pascal’s law?
    Pressure that is applied to a confined liquid is transmitted undiminished in all directions and acts with equal force on equal areas.
  14. Which of the following are the two types of filters commonly used in hydraulic systems? A. Partial flow and full flow
    B. Full flow and proportional flow
    C. Proportional flow and restricted flow
    D. Bypass flow and full flow
    • A. Partial flow and full flow
    • B. Full flow and proportional flow
    • C. Proportional flow and restricted flow
    • D. Bypass flow and full flow
  15. Two types of strainers used in hydraulic systems are:
    • • Wire mesh – consists of several layers of wire mesh.
    • • Edge disk – consists of a stack of metallic disks, separated by metallic spacers.
  16. Virtually all electrical motors use _____ field rotation to spin their rotor.
    MAGNETIC
  17. What type of switch is an electromechanical device that requires physical contact between the target object and switch activator?
    • A. Pressure
    • B. Limit
    • C. Toggle
    • D. Knife
  18. Which type of damage will usually result from current flow between dissimilar metals?
    • A. Mechanical Damage
    • B. Erosion
    • C. Corrosion
    • D. Stress corrosion
  19. What percentage of tubes becoming plugged in a tube type heat exchanger will cause the exchanger to function improperly?
    • A. 5%
    • B. 10%
    • C. 15%
    • D. 20%
  20. What NEMA code is the MOST commonly found on the nameplate for AC induction motors?
    A. "A"
    B. "B"
    C. "D"
    D. "C"
    B. "B"
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Which directive contains a list of the electrical safety precautions pertaining to working on AC motors?
    A. NEM, Chapter 302
    B. COMDTINST M9000.1 (series)
    C. NEM, Chapter 300
    D. NSTM, Chapter 300
    D. NSTM, Chapter 300
  22. Which of the following is NOT normally identified on a motor’s name plate?
    A. Amps
    B. Volts
    C. Torque
    D. Hertz
    C. Torque
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. What are the two types of AC motors?
    A. Single-phase and poly-phase
    B. Single-phase and wound-rotor
    C. Induction and synchronous
    D. Wound-rotor and squirrel cage
    C. Induction and synchronous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. When the steam feedwater heater shell pressure decreases from approximately 11 inches Hg (vacuum) to 0 psig, you should _____.
    A. open the sea chest valve fully
    B. check the brine discharge for signs of overheating
    C. perform a cleaning procedure
    D. increase the pressure throughout the system
    C. perform a cleaning procedure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Which of the following is NOT a coalescing media that would improve the efficiency of oil removal?
    A. Emulsified polycarbonate
    B. Brush assemblies
    C. Metal plates
    D. Replaceable filters
    A. Emulsified polycarbonate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. What component of an OWS employs an optical system based on the principles of light scattering?
    A. Solenoid valve
    B. Oil content detector
    C. HELI-SEP separator
    D. Defective oil sensing probe
    B. Oil content detector
  27. Which type of AC motor is MOST widely used today?
    A. Poly-phase wound-rotor
    B. Poly-phase induction
    C. Single-phase induction
    D. Single-phase squirrel cage
    C. Single-phase induction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. What is the reporting interval for the Boat inspection report ?
    Every year, not to exceed 1 year between intervals
  29. A cutter engineering report uses what form?
    CG 4874
  30. Guidelines for reports are taken from what publication?
    COMDTINST M9000.6 (series)
  31. Where is the Boat Inspection Report copies sent to?
    MLC
  32. What length vessels use a Boat Inspection Report?
    all vessels less than 65 feet
  33. Which types of vessels are required to maintain CSMP files?
    Cutters 65 feet and longer
  34. Pertinent identifying information about the CASREP epuipment item being reported on is found in the _____ information set
    PartsID
  35. Which of the following directives prescribes polices and procedures for administering the Coast Guard paperwork management program?
    COMDTINST M5212.12 (series)
  36. A Casualty Report (CASREP) should be submitted for any equipment malfunction or deficiency that cannot be corrected within 48 hours and affects the unit's____________?
    Primary and secondary missions
  37. Units shall submit a CASREP as soon as possible, but not later than 24 hours, after the occurrence of a significant casualty which cannot be corrected within_________?
    48 Hours
  38. What is the reporting interval for the Cutter Engineering Report?
    • A. After each drydock
    • B. Every fiscal year ending 30 Sep
    • C. Every calendar year ending 31 Dec
    • D. Yearly, not to exceed 1 year between inspections
  39. What priority code should you use on an SSMR for a shore station maintenance project that is to be accomplished as part of a normal backlog?
    • A. 4
    • B. 3
    • C. 2
    • D. 1
  40. The Statement of Work is used to measure _____ performance.
    • A. contractor
    • B. shipyard
    • C. unit
    • D. MLC
  41. A deficiency exists in mission essential equipment that causes a minor degradation of any primary mission, or a major degradation or total loss of a secondary mission
    Category 2 Casualty
  42. A deficiency exists in mission essential equipment that causes a major degradation but not the loss of a primary mission.
    Casualty Category 3
  43. Which report is submitted by the unit to identify all maintenance work beyond the capability of the unit's assigned personnel?
    • A. Cutter Engineering Report
    • B. Engineering Change Request
    • C. Boat Record
    • D. Current Ship's Maintenance Project
  44. A deficiency exists in mission essential equipment that is worse than casualty category 3, and causes a loss of at least one primary mission.
    Casualty Category 4
  45. What is the form number for a Shore Station Maintenance Record (SSMR)?
    CG-4094
  46. What priority code should be used on an SSMR for a shore station maintenance project that has to be completed within a 6-month period?
    Priority 2
  47. Which manual publishes the complete list of Coast Guard directives and their required distribution?
    Directives, Publications and Reports Index (DPRI)
  48. What Chapter/Section of the DPRI listing identifies the order form to use to request updates, replacements, or new directives?
    Chapter 1, Section C
  49. Where should you log the official changes issued to a directive
    Record of Changes Page
  50. What priority code should you use on an SSMR for a shore station maintenance project that is to be accomplished as part of a normal backlog?
    priorty 3
  51. What are the two basic types of OWS?
    Vacuum gravity and pressure
  52. What is always completed before training begins?
    Safety walk through
  53. Upon completion of an overhaul, the supervisor will ensure the completion is documented (entered) in to what two reporting systems?
    Cutter ENG report and CMPLUS
  54. What supports shafting on the inside of the ship skin?
    line shaft bearing
  55. A directive is defined as?
    A military communication in which policy is established or a specific action is ordered, a plan issued with a view to putting it into effect when so directed, or in the event that a stated contingency arises, and broadly speaking, any communication which initiates or governs action, conduct, or procedure.
  56. Which manual publishes the complete list of Coast Guard units and their distribution symbols?
    SDL/ Standard Distribution List
  57. What is the form # for the Boat Inspection Report?
    CG 3302
  58. Clean the tube sheet and the inside of the shell using fresh water and either a ___________or a plastic scraper.
    Stiff non-metallic brush
  59. Back flushing is only required for _____________ plate type heat exchangers
    Sea Water cooled
  60. Remove the plates, tilt them toward the rear of the unit until the top slot is free of the________ _________, and lift them out
    guide bars
  61. The disadvantages of a watertube boiler are___________?
    • >Requires more maintenance
    • >Expensive to build
  62. Boiler fuel nozzles will have a set of numbers stamped on the body. The first number indicates the amount of fuel _____________.
    that passes through in GPH
  63. If an electric motor will not start, check the __________________.
    Capacitor
  64. What are the two basic types of OWS?
    Pressurized; Vacuum/gravity
  65. On what principle does an OWS operate?
    Coalescing
  66. Name three types of coalescing media that improve the efficiency of oil removal.
    Metal plates, Replaceable filters, and brush assemblies
  67. What component employs an optical system based on the principles of light scattering
    oil content detector
  68. A satisfactory contact percentage of gear tooth bearing contacting across the axial length of the working surface is _____ percent.
    80 %
  69. ________________IS CAUSED BY EXCESSIVE OIL CONSUMPTION, OR EXCESSIVE CYLINDER CLEARANCE.
    Piston Slap
  70. A BRIGHT SPOT ON EACH END OF A PISTON RING IS CAUSED BY_______________?
    INSUFFICIENT RING GAP
  71. ON TUBE HEAT EXCHANGERS, THE FIN IS DESIGNED TO_______________?
    INCREASE SURFACE CONTACT
  72. What establishes policies, procedures, and standards for the administration of the Coast Guard Directives System for both Headquarters and the field?
    COMDTINST M5215.6 (series)
  73. Technical publications are maintained as reference materials and fall under the general category of a _________________.
    directive
  74. The three most common types of heat exchangers used in the Coast Guard are:
    ____________________
    • -Shell and tube
    • -fin and tube
    • -plate
  75. Disadvantages of firetube boilers are___________?
    long warm-up time weight of unit compared to the amount of steam producted
  76. _______________ is installed on the tank to prevent the pump motor and solenoid valve from becoming energized in the event the condensate tank water level is low
    float switch
  77. There are three general warning/indicator lights on the control panel of the way-wolf boiler:
    Red flame out, blue low water light, and white power-on light
  78. Cutter Engineering Reports Section III to V include what?
    -SECTION III MACHINERY/ELECTRICAL -SECTION IV ADMINISTRATIVE -SECTION V CUTTER ENGINEERING SUMMARY
  79. Section VI of the cutter ENG report:
    Provide the hours of operation since the last major overhaul for all diesel engines and gas turbines
  80. What is the best method for cleaning tubes in a shell and tube heat exchanger?
    High Pressure water jet
  81. What heat cuauses temp change?
    Sensible
  82. _______ dose not cause a temp change
    latent heat
  83. On auxiliary boilers, permanent magnets project a strong magnetic field. The field acts as a stator, and the feed pump provides the energy to move the liquid _________________.
    ARMATURE
  84. The driving force moving the feedwater is the difference in _________between the stages with each stage being at a lower __________ than the one before it.
    pressure
  85. On a flash type evaporator, the distillate water passes through a _____________________.
    THREE WAY SOLENOID
  86. Before operating a flash type evaporator, personnel should be thoroughly familiar with the _______________.
    DISTILLING CYCLE
  87. The three main types of hydraulic accumulators are spring and weight loaded and ______________.
    gas charged
  88. Internal leakage occurring around the seals or the unit if the walls are scored causes _______________.
    CYLINDER CREEP
  89. Prior to disassembly, check the _________________ alignment between the engine and the flexible coupling.
    face and bore
  90. Overheating can cause ________________of the lube oil which will leave carbon deposits on the rings and in the grooves.
    oxidizing
  91. _____________________ are mounted on the crankshafts of some engines to reduce the torsional vibrations.
    VIBRATION DAMPENERS
  92. The amount of deflection of a crankshaft may be determined by the use of a _______________.
    strain guage
  93. An appropriate method to account for shaft droop utilizes a load ring, _____________, and sling.
    turn buckle
  94. ______________ or face misalignment occurs when the centerlines of the marine transmission and companion flanges are not parallel.
    angular
  95. _______________ refers to the distance the driving bore of a hub is out of parallel with the shaft centerline.
    bore runout
  96. _______________ refers to the distance the face of the hub is out of perpendicular to the shaft centerline.
    face runout
  97. Use a __________________ to check angular alignment.
    feeler guage
  98. Potential causes of propulsion gear failure?
    -Poor teeth contact-Inadequate lubrication-Foreign objects
  99. Always check the gear tooth alignment after a major overhaul, or if the ship has been aground or if the _________________ has been disturbed.
    shaft alignment
  100. When should a final alignment of propulsion engines to shafting be attempted?
    when the vessel is in the water
  101. Which of the following failures DOES NOT cause low oil pressure in a propulsion transmission?
    STUCK REGULATING PISTON IN THE SELECTOR VALVE ASSEMBLY
  102. In planning and preparing even minor simulated casualties, consideration must be given to the possibility that the simulation could create an ______________________.
    ACTUAL HAZARDOUS CONDITION
  103. When should you NOT attempt to make a final alignment of propulsion engine/shafting?
    WHEN fuel, water, and temporary ballast tanks are empty
  104. During the wearing-in period for new gears or bearings, metal flakes and dirt NOT removed may result in a/an _____.
    clogged oil spray nozzle
  105. Which component of a propulsion transmission maintains the oil in the reduction gear sump at the proper temperature?
    Selector valve assembly
  106. To reduce the propeller revolutions per minute (rpm) and to permit the high engine rpm for operation of engine accessories, what type of assembly should be installed?
    Trolling valve assembly
  107. What design feature in the plate face of the driven clutch plates permits the flow of cooing and lubricating oil to pass with equal distribution?
    Grid pattern
  108. What function does the piston and spring serve on the oil return pipe assembly?
    Regulate the low pressure oil supply
  109. What alignment function is used to eliminate shafted-excited vibration and noise?
    Align bearings that support the shaft
  110. How long may a sea trial period be required to last in order to demonstrate proper operation of an overhauled main diesel engine?
    4 to 6 hours
  111. What component(s) should you check PRIOR to engine disassembly for an overhaul?
    Face and bore alignment between engine flywheel and flexible coupling
  112. How often will the supervisor of an engine overhaul conduct and complete a progress report?
    Weekly
  113. Filters are classified as_______ or______flow
    full flow or proportional flow
  114. The two common types of strainers used in hydraulic systems are...
    - Wire mesh= Consists of several layers of wire mesh.

    - Edge disk= Consists of a stack of metallic disks, separated by metallic spacers.
  115. PART ONE OF THE BOAT RECORD CONTAINS_____________?
    THE CG-2580
  116. PART TWO OF THE BOAT RECORD CONTAINS_____________?
    BOAT INSPECTION REPORTS
  117. PART THREE OF THE BOAT RECORD CONTAINS_____________?
    CASREPS AND CASCORS
  118. PART FOUR OF THE BOAT RECORD CONTAINS_____________?
    ENGINEERING CHANGES PENDING
  119. PART ONE OF THE BOAT RECORD CONTAINS_____________?
    ENGINEERING CHANGES COMPLETED
  120. PART SIX OF THE BOAT RECORD CONTAINS_____________?
    PENDING CSMP's

    *COMPLETED CSMP's ARE REMPVED AND KEPT IN A SEPERATE FILE FOR 3 YEARS AND THEN DISCARDED.
  121. WHAT ARE THE TREE TYPES OF INSPECTIONS REQUIRED BY THE BOAT INSPECTION REPORT?
    • -RECORDS INSPECTION
    • -WATERBORNE INSPECTION
    • -INSPECTION WHILE HAULED OUT
  122. WHAT IS THE DEADLINE FOR THE BOAT INSPECTION REPORT?
    YEARLY, NOT TO EXCEED 1 YEAR BETWEEN INSPECTIONS
  123. WHAT IS THE DEADLINE FOR THE CUTTER ENGINEERING REPORT?
    1 YEAR ENDING DECEMBER 31st
  124. WHAT IS THE DEADLINE FOR THE DRYDOCKING and UNDERWATER BODY INSPECTION work sheet?
    AFTER EACH ROUTINE OR EMERGENCY DRYDOCK
  125. WHAT IS THE DEADLINE FOR THE UNDERWATER BODY PAINT REPORT?
    AFTER EACH ROUTINE OR EMERGENCY DRYDOCK AND AFTER EACH BOOTTOP PAINT TOUCH-UP.
  126. "SBU"
    SENSITIVE BUT UNCLASSIFIED
  127. "SSI"
    SENSITIVE SECURITY INFORMATION
  128. What is the purpose of a distribution symbol?
    It is a code used to group units by type for the purpose of distributing directives and publications.
  129. A detailed Boat Inspection Report,
    (CG-____), shall be submitted on all boats less than 65 feet in length, except for those boats powered by outboard motors and nonpowered boats.
    • (CG-3022)
    • BOAT INSPECTION REPORT
  130. CUTTER ENGINEERING REPORT
    SECTION 1:_________
    SAFETY ITEMS
  131. CUTTER ENGINEERING REPORT
    SECTION 2:____________
    HULL
  132. CUTTER ENGINEERING REPORT
    SECTION 3:___________
    MACHINERY AND ELECTRICAL
  133. CUTTER ENGINEERING REPORTSECTION 4:____________
    ADMINISTRATIVE PROGRAM
  134. CUTTER ENGINEERING REPORT
    SECTION 5:__________
    CUTTER ENGINEERING SUMMARY
  135. CUTTER ENGINEERING REPORT
    SECTION 6:_____________
    REMARKS: This section is for general remarks not covered elsewhere in the report.
  136. CUTTER ENGINEERING REPORT
    SECTION 7:______________
    REMARKS: The final section is for human performance remarks.
  137. Drydocking and Underwater Body Inspection Work Sheet (CG-______)
    CG-2926
  138. Underwater Body Paint Report
    (CG Form _____)
    CG-4815
  139. Equipment Tag-Out Procedure:
    COMDTINST __________?
    COMDTINST 9077.1 (series)
  140. Danger/Caution Tag-Out Index and Record of Audit Sheet (CG- ________)?
    CG-5603
  141. Examples of ENGINEERING CHANGE REQUESTS that would likely be approved:
    • • Changes necessary to meet operational commitments.
    • • Correction of crucial safety problems.
    • • Changes resulting in significant cost savings.
  142. Engineering Change Request form (CG-______) is the official request for a change and serves as the unit’s entry into the ECR program.
    •                   CG-5682
    • ENGINEERING CHANGE REQUEST
  143. CLASS "A" ENGINEERING CHANGE:
    Requests that are of the utmost importance for correcting conditions that impair the service characteristics of a cutter, its safety or the health of it's personnel.
  144. CLASS "B" ENGINEERING CHANGE REQUEST:
    Less urgent than Class A'S but are still of importance by reason of the resultant improvement in the service characteristics of the cutter, the health & comfort of its personnel, or notable improvements in efficiency and economy of operations and upkeep.
  145. CLASS "C' ENGINEERING CHANGE REQUEST:
    • Least important type.
    • Either impossible or undesirable to accomplish quickly on all vessels of a class.
  146. Produce five copies of the SSMR to be routed as follows:
    • • One Copy – Retained by unit.
    • • One Copy – Forwarded by group/activity/sector/ISC to CEU.
    • • One Copy – Retained by CEU unit or project file or retained by base.
    • • One Copy – Forwarded to district or area, as required.
    • • One Copy – Returned to unit by CEU with endorsement letter.
  147. The Shore Station Maintenance Record (SSMR) is the standard way to enter the Shore Station Maintenance Program (SSMP). It is a request for maintenance assistance that is comparable to the CSMP. Use form (CG-_____)
    CG-4094
  148. CASREP/CASCOR procedures are outlined in: 
    U.S. Coast Guard Commandant Instruction, Casualty Reporting (CASREP) Procedures (Materiel), COMDTINST ________ (series).
    COMDTINST 3501.3 (series).
  149. The four main parts of a CASREP are:
    • 1-STANDARD NAVY MESSAGE HEADER
    • 2-THE TYPE OF MESSAGE AND LOCATION
    • 3-THE TYPE OF EQUIPMENT
    • 4-AMPLIFYING INFORMATION
  150. Depending on the type of CASREP, data sets can be:
    • MANDATORY
    • CONDITIONAL
  151. The Position (______) set reports present location of the reporting unit. It reports the geographical position (latitude/longitude) or port name where the unit is presently located. If the unit is exempt from position reporting requirements, enter EXEMPT in this field.
    (POSIT)

    FOR "POSITION"
  152. FOUR TYPES OF CASUALTY REPORT:
    • INITIAL
    • UPDATE
    • CORRECT
    • CANCEL
  153. Projects NOT Entered Into the SSMP :
    • -SERVICE, SUPPLIES AND MATERIALS USED FOR ROUTINE RECURRING REPAIRS AND MAINTENANCE OF SHORE STUCTURES AND FACILITIES
    • -EQUIPMENT LESS THAN $5,000
    • -PROJECTS ON BOATS OR CUTTERS
  154. EIC NOMENCLATURE 1000:
    ADMINISTRATION HABITABILITY, OUTFITTING & FURNISHINGS
  155. EIC NOMENCLATURE 3000:
    ELECTRIC POWER GENERATION SYSTEMS
  156. EIC NOMENCLATURE 4000:
    4000 ELECTRIC POWER DISTRIBUTION SYSTEMS
  157. EIC NOMENCLATURE 5000:
    5110 GUN OR MISSILE FIRE CONTROL SYSTEMS
  158. EIC NOMENCLATURE 7000:
    7000 AVIATION SHIP INSTALLATION
  159. EIC NOMENCLATURE 8000:
    8000 SPECIALIZED ORDINANCE EQUIPMENT
  160. At a MINIMUM, what 3 items should be included in the Machinery History File?
    • 1-Whenever a piece of equipment is altered from what is shown in the MIB.
    • 2-Important part numbers.
    • 3-Ball bearing and packing size information.
  161. Where are flange shields required?
    Flange spray shields are required for flanged connections in any location that fuel spray has a potential to ignite.
  162. Shipboard aviation filter elements shall be changed every years?
    • A. two
    • B. three
    • C. four
    • D. five
  163. Purifiers separate contaminated fuel into three major components:
    • -Water (heavy phase)
    • -Purified fuel (light phase)
    • -Solids and/or sludge
  164. Whose concurrence must be obtained prior to bypassing any JP-5 fuel filter during helicopter refueling operations?
    • Commanding Officer,
    • Engineer Officer,
    • pilot-in-command (PIC).
  165. Fuel tanks must be tested for free water:____________
    • - Prior to receiving fuel (if the receiving tank had been water ballasted) 
    • - 24-hours after receiving fuel 
    • - On a monthly basis
  166. What is the minimum amount FAC or TBR halogen to be maintained in a potable water system?
    0.2 ppm (after 30 min in tanks)
  167. What is the amount of halogen to be maintained where amebiasis or hepatitis is endemic or the water is from an unapproved source?
    2.0 ppm (after 30 min in tanks)
  168. An electronic device known as a _____ is used to test potable water.
    colorimeter
  169. The method of using over the counter bleach products as a source for sodium hypochlorite is known as _____ chlorination.
    "batch"
  170. On ships without medical departments, the engineering department shall maintain what type of potable water record?
    a two year chronological record of potable water monitoring
  171. For compressed air service ABOVE 125 psig, _____ separator bowls are required.
    Metal
  172. Gasoline is classified as what category of FLAMMABLE material?

    I
    II
    III
    IV
    class I
  173. Which component of fuel oil purifier produces high centrifugal forces making separation possible?

    Brake
    Hood
    Pump
    Bowl
    Bowl
  174. Daily potable water tests shall be logged on the _____ CG-5648.

    Potable Water Monitoring Log
    Health Services Log
    Potable Water Quality Log
    Human Consumption Log
    Potable Water Quality Log
  175. Which one of the following is a probable cause of high lubricating oil content in outlet air from the compressor?

    -Final filter element, coalesce contaminated -Auto drain valve is malfunctioning
    -Downstream system blockage
    -Air suction filter dirty
    Final filter element, coalesce contaminated
  176. _______bearings, have a solid surface on which a moving part slides or rolls.
    PLAIN
  177. ______bearings will prevent endwise (axial) motion of a shaft.
    "Thrust"
  178. _______bearings support rotating shafts and limit radial motion.
    "Radial"
  179. ________bearings support rotating shafts and limit axial and radial motion.
    Radial-Thrust
  180. What can cause false brinelling of bearing races?
    False brinelling of the races are caused by the wearing a way of material due to vibratory motion during storage or transport and corrosion due to lack of preservative compound on bearing surfaces.
  181. Secure the propeller and _____ against uncontrolled rotation when checking or working on open marine gears.
    A. Bearing Stave
    B. Stern Tube
    C. Strut
    D. Shaft Line
    D. Shaft Line
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  182. Line Shaft bearings may also be known as _____ bearings?
    A. Shaft Line
    B. Spring
    C. Cutlass
    D. Running
    Spring
  183. The primary seal on a MX9 Stern Tube Seal is what type of seal?
    A. Reciprocating
    B. Independent
    C. Parallel
    D. Mechanical Face
    Reciprocating
  184. How does the governor control speed?
    By regulating the amount of fuel supplied to the engine.
  185. How does the governor adjust the amount of fuel delivered to the engine?
    By adjusting the position of the fuel rack, a mechanical linkage between the governor and the fuel pumps that sets the amount of fuel to be injected by each fuel injector.
  186. How does the overspeed trip usually cut off fuel to the engine?
    By isolating the governor from its oil supply, causing it to travel to the no-fuel position, or it can override the governor and directly trip the fuel rack to the no-fuel position.
  187. Recognition, _____, and corrective action are the basic principles of troubleshooting.
    A. Intensification
    B. Identification
    C. Location
    D. Recurrence
    Intensification
  188. The DEMPS performance-monitoring program provides an estimate of the effectiveness and/or condition of the engine(s). List the five aids used in monitoring engine performance.
    • a. Full power trials
    • b. Observation of engine operating characteristics
    • c. Periodic spectra chemical analysis and trending of the lubricating oil
    • d. DEMP Performance Monitoring – Observation and analysis of the trends of certain engine operating parameters.
    • e. Physical inspection of engine components
  189. Three main areas of concern when troubleshooting a hard-starting engine:
    • Ignition (power)
    • Fuel
    • Compression
  190. What are the three effects of excessively worn rudder shaft bearings?
    • a. Imprecise and poor steering response
    • b. Excessive vibration
    • c. Leakage through the rudder post housing
  191. Which of the following conditions will move the governor’s power piston down, thereby decreasing fuel?
    -Forces are Equal
    -Pilot valve plunger is centered
    -Pilot valve plunger is lowered
    -Pilot valve plunger is raised above its centered position
    Pilot valve plunger is raised above its centered position
  192. Blue hazy smoke is most likely an indication of _____.

    Cold engine conditions
    Insufficient air supply
    Lube oil presence in combustion spaces
    Insufficient fuel supply
    Lube oil presence in combustion spaces
  193. When conducting performance tests, the engine should be operated at what percentage of the Coast Guard rated load?

    65 - 75 percent
    75 - 85 percent
    80 - 90 percent
    85 - 95 percent
    80 - 90 percent
  194. When maintaining the Machinery History File, what information should you include pertaining to each entry?
    • a. Date
    • b. Summary of important data
    • c. Operating hours.
  195. Sensible heat. Heat is applied to room temperature water.  The temperature of the water rises. This is called sensible heat.
    Sensible heat causes a change in temperature.
  196. Latent heat. As the water reaches the saturation temperature (in this case 212 degrees Fahrenheit), the temperature stops rising, even though heat is still being applied. At this point, the water is changing state from a liquid to a gas (steam). The temperature remains constant until all the water has vaporized.
    This heat is called "latent heat".
  197. Latent heat:
    • • Causes a change in state.
    • • Does not cause a change in temperature.
  198. There are two types of latent heat:
    • Vaporization.

    • Condensation.
  199. After the last drop of water is vaporized and heat is continued to be added, the temperature of the steam begins to rise again. Again, a complete change of state has taken place and the heat is termed "sensible heat". The steam is said to be "superheated" because it is at a temperature above its saturation point.
    Superheated Steam
  200. Saturated Steam:
    Steam that is at the temperature and pressure that it was formed is called saturated steam. All auxiliary boilers in the Coast Guard produce "saturated steam."
  201. Saturated steam contains moisture. The amount of moisture in the steam determines the quality of the steam. The quality of the steam decreases as the moisture content increases.
    Steam which contains....Is considered

    20 percent moisture ....80 percent quality

    50 percent moisture .....50 percent quality

    70 percent moisture ......30 percent quality
  202. Feedwater is stored in a tank and is the source of water for the boiler. The condensate tank is filled from the potable water system when there are:
    • • Leaks.
    • • Blowdowns (a maintenance procedure).
    • • Discharge of steam to atmosphere.
  203. STEAM TRAP:
    The condensate tank is separated from the steam users by the means of a "steam trap." Steam traps allow condensate to flow back to the condensate tank but trap the steam.
  204. Types of steam traps. Steam traps that are most commonly used by the Coast Guard are:
    • Thermostatic float type.

    • Inverted bucket type.
  205. The burner unit is used on an auxiliary boiler to produce a controlled fire in the combustion chamber in order to heat boiler water. The burner unit in most Coast Guard applications consists of four separate systems. These subsystems are:
    • Water system/steam system.

    • Electrical system (includes ignition and control components).

    • Air system.

    • Fuel system.
  206. As steam is condensed in the steam system, it is returned as water to the condensate tank where it is stored. A _______ or ______ pump is used to pump water from the condensate tank to the boiler.
    condensate or feed PUMP
  207. Alarm interlock relays:

    (boiler control panel)
    Two alarm interlock relays are provided in the control panel. Their purpose is to energize an audible alarm in the event of low water or flame failure. One relay is for flame failure and the other relay is for low water failure.
  208. Lead Sulfide Detector:
    The lead sulfide detector is located on top of the burner assembly. Its purpose is to assure a flame is present in the combustion chamber during the ignition trial period, and to monitor flame presence during the run cycle. It detects infrared radiation. If a flame is present, a small amount of current is produced by the detector which is amplified by the amplifier mounted on the FSC. This current is used to keep the relay from initiating a shutdown sequence cycle.
  209. Air Compressors

    Low pressure: Referred to as a Ship’s Service Air (SSA). Discharge pressure of ____ psi or less.
    150 PSI
  210. Air Compressors

    Medium pressure: Referred to as a Start Air (SA) or Diesel Start Air (DSA).
    Discharge pressure of ____ psi to _____ psi.
    151 psi to 1000 psi
  211. Pump Impellers can be classified into three categories:
    • • Closed: They have side walls on both sides, extending from the eye to
    • the outer edge of the vane tips.

    • Open: They have no side walls.

    • Semi-closed: They have a side wall on one side only.
  212. Four types of shaft couplings commonly found in the Coast Guard:
    • -Jaw Coupling
    • -Flex Coupling
    • -Grid Coupling
    • -Gear Coupling
  213. Petroleum jelly, tetrafluroethylene (TFE), and silicon grease must
    NOT be used on _____.

    A. retaining dices
    B. pump couplings
    C. elastomer seals
    D. packing glands
    C. elastomer seals
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  214. The P-6 is capable of delivering over ____ gpm at a ____-foot suction lift;

    Higher discharge rates will be achieved at lower suction lifts.
    250 GPM at 12 foot suction lift
  215. The recoil starter assembly should be checked to ensure that the
    starter rope exits the recoil shroud at approximately the _____
    o'clock position.
    A. twelve
    B. six
    C. nine
    D. three
    C. nine o' clock
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  216. The impeller seal on the P-6 pump can only run dry for a maximum
    of _____ minutes before pump and impeller seal damage will occur.
    A. 2
    B. 2½
    C. 1
    D. 1½
    A. 2 Minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  217. The P-6 pump engine oil should be changed after a maximum of
    _____ hours of run time.
    A. 30
    B. 40
    C. 20
    D. 10
    C. 20 Hours of Operation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  218. The P-100 pump has a _____ gallon fuel tank.
    1.45 gallons

  219. The P-100 pump will operate for approximately _____ hours on one tank of diesel fuel.
    The pump will operate for approximately 2.75 hours on one tank.
  220. The P-100 pump is designed to provide ____ gallons per minute (GPM) at 
    ____ psi while lifting 20 feet.
    The pump is designed to provide 100 gallons per minute (GPM) at 83 psi while lifting 20feet.
  221. What is the Yanmar P-100 pump primarily designed for?

    A. Fuel transfer
    B. CG drop pump
    C. Dewatering
    D. Fire fighting
    D. Fire fighting. (Dewatering is secondary)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  222. When checking the lube oil of a P-100 pump, the dip stick should be
    screwed in to get an accurate reading.

    A. True
    B. False
    False.

    • Do Not screw in the dipstick. Screwing in the dipstick
    • will give a false reading indicating that the level is higher than
    • the actual level present
  223. How long must the P-100 pump be flushed with fresh water after
    shutdown?

    A. A minimum of 15 minutes
    B. A minimum of 5 minutes
    C. A minimum of 20 minutes
    D. A minimum of 10 minutes
    D. minimum of 10 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  224. The drip rate for the P-100 pump packing should be _____drops per
    minute while the pump is running.

    A. more than 10 but less than 20
    B. between 5 and 60
    C. over 60
    D. less than 5
    B. Between 5 and 60
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  225. What are the three types of air
    compressor classifications?

    A. Rotating, rolling and scroll
    B. Centrifugal, rotary and
    C. Scroll, rotary, and vane
    D. Lobe, screw and piston
    reciprocating
    B. Centrifugal, rotary and reciprocating
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  226. What are the two most common types
    of valves used in air compressors?

    A. Strip and disc
    B. Flat and round
    C. Tappet and spring
    D. Seat and ball
    A. Strip and Disc
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  227. What are the two types of pistons
    commonly used in air compressors?

    A. Differential and trunk
    B. Supplemental and conical
    C. Dome and cone
    D. Pleated and vane
    A. Differential and Trunk
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  228. Which component guards against
    excessive damage in the event of an oil
    pressure drop?

    A. Feather valves
    B. Pressure diverter valve
    C. Synthetic oil
    D. Hydraulic un-loader
    D. Hydraulic un-loader
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  229. What are the two types of pump
    casings?

    A. Standard and non-standard
    B. Volute and diffuser
    C. Spiral and flat
    D. Nozzle and stationary
    B. Volute and diffuser


    Volute: This type of casing uses a gradually widening spiral channel
    which changes velocity into pressure.
    Diffuser: This type of casing serves the same purpose as the volute, but is more efficient. It directs more fluid to the outlet by the use of
    stationary vanes.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  230. A measurement exceeding _____
    inches would indicate excessive
    radial run-out.

    A. 0.002
    B. 0.0002
    C. 0.00002
    D. 0.000002
    A. 0.002
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  231. The _____ _____ is the maximum
    pressure that a pump can produce.

    A. pressure head
    B. burst pressure
    C. shutoff head
    D. static head
    C. Shutoff head
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  232. What is the normal duration of a
    blow-down?

    A. 10-15 seconds
    B. 15-20 seconds
    C. 5-10 seconds
    D. 10-20 seconds
    D. 10-20 seconds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  233. Why should the rapid operation of
    manual valves be avoided?

    A. Increase service life of valves

    B. Reduce the risk of an explosion

    C. Reduce arm fatigue

    D. Reduce the risk of valve damage
    B. Reduce the risk of an explosion
  234. Mechanical seals should be
    replaced if the leakage rate exceeds
    _____ drops per minute for seals
    already in service.

    A. 5
    B. 20
    C. 40
    D. 60
    D. 60
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  235. Class II rubber gloves have a maximum safe voltage of _____ volts.

    A. 1,000

    B. 7,500

    C. 17,500

    D. 26,500
    C. 17,500
  236. The electron flow concept states that electrons flow from _____.

    A. negative to positive

    B. positive to negative

    C. positive to positive

    D. negative to negative
    A. Negative to Positive
  237. Power is measured in _____.

    A. volts
    B. watts
    C. amps
    D. ohms
    B.  Watts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  238. The property of a component to oppose any change in voltage across
    its terminals by storing and releasing energy in an internal electric
    field is known as _____.

    A. capacitance
    B. transmittance
    C. inductance
    D. resistance
    A. capacitance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  239. What two ways can voltage be generated?
    1. By relative movement between a magnet and a conductor.

    2. Changing a magnetic field
  240. Which meter would provide the MOST adequate test for insulation break down?

    A. Ammeter
    B. Megohmmeter
    C. Ohmmeter
    D. Multimeter
    B. Megohmmeter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  241. The hydrometer reading or specific gravity of a fully charged battery
    is _____.

    A. 1.190
    B. 1.250
    C. 1.260
    D. 1.220
    C. 1.260
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  242. At what degree of the AC generator cycle does the generator achieve MAXIMUM induced voltage in the negative direction?

    A. 270
    B. 90
    C. 180
    D. 360
    C. 180
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  243. When the voltage and current waveforms are in step with each other, they are said to be in _____.

    A. sync
    B. cycle
    C. frequency
    D. phase
    D. Phase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  244. Which portion of the AC motor creates a rotating magnetic field
    when current is applied?

    A. Brushes
    B. Rotor
    C. Commutator
    D. Stator
    D. Stator
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  245. Which motors are specifically designed to maintain constant speed
    with the rotor?

    A. Convection
    B. Synchronous
    C. Induction
    D. Series
    B. Synchronous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  246. Which officer’s express permission
    is required to work on live circuits?

    A. Engineer Officer
    B. Commanding Officer
    C. Operations Officer
    D. Executive Officer
    B. Commanding Officer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  247. What level of shock from a 60-Hz
    AC System can be fatal if it lasts for one
    second or more?

    A. 1 Milliampere (0.001 A)
    B. 100 Milliamperes (0.1 A)
    C. 10 Milliamperes (0.01 A)
    D. 5 Milliamperes (0.05 A)
    B. 100 Milliamperes (0.1 A)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  248. How many classes of rubber
    insulating gloves are there?

    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 1
    D. 4
    D. 4 Classes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  249. What is the flow of free electrons in
    a conductor from one atom to the next in
    the same general direction?

    A. Current
    B. Voltage
    C. Resistance
    D. Power
    A. Current
  250. What is the fundamental relationship that exists between current, voltage and resistance?

    A. Farad’s Law
    B. Ohm’s Law
    C. Coulomb’s Law
    D. Watt’s Law
    B. Ohm's Law
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  251. What is a circuit in which the
    electricity has found an alternative path
    to return to the source without going
    through an appropriate load?

    A. Open
    B. Parallel
    C. Series
    D. Short
    D. Short
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  252. What type of circuit has electrical
    current flow in only one direction?

    A. High Voltage
    B. Alternating Current
    C. Low Voltage
    D. Direct Current
    D. Direct Current
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  253. Which device converts pressure into
    an electrical signal?

    A. Electric motor
    B. Pressure sensor
    C. Speed sensor
    D. Solenoid
    A. Electric Motor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  254. What is the difference between primary cell batteries and secondary cell batteries?

    A. Primary cells are first in a
    circuit, secondary are second
    B. Primary are not rechargeable,
    secondary are
    C. Primary are rechargeable,
    secondary are not
    D. Primary cells are direct current,
    secondary are alternating
    current
    B. Primary are not rechargeable, secondary are
  255. What kind of battery is a
    “recombinant” battery that combines
    oxygen and hydrogen to produce water
    inside the battery?

    A. Dry cell
    B. Gel cell
    C. Wet cell
    D. Primary
    B. Gel Cell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  256. What is the ratio of the weight of a
    certain volume of liquid to the weigh to
    the same volume of water?

    A. Acid ratio
    B. Specific gravity
    C. Refraction
    D. Chemical weight
  257. B. Specific gravity
  258. What is an extended normal charge at the finishing rate?

    A. Floating charge
    B. Normal charge
    C. Initial charge
    D. Equalizing/boost charge
    D. Equalizing/boost charge
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  259. What explosive, toxic gas is
    produced while charging batteries?

    A. Hydrogen sulfide
    B. Chlorine gas
    C. Hydrochloric acid
    D. Sulfuric acid
    A. Hydrogen Sulfide
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  260. What are the types of alternating
    current?

    A. Single-phase and four-phase
    B. Single-phase and three-phase
    C. Dual-phase and three-phase
    D. Dual-phase and four-phase
    B. Single phase and three phase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  261. When selecting a pressure gauge, what portion of the gauge's scale
    should the systems normal working pressure fall within?

    A. 23-33%
    B. 33-66%
    C. 66-99%
    D. 0-23%
    B. 33-66%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  262. To accurately read a manometer containing oil or water, you should check the scale mark on the manometer as it corresponds with the bottom of the _____.

    A. U-tube
    B. combined leg readings
    C. source pressure
    D. meniscus
    D. meniscus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  263. What type of thermometer has an operating range from -40 °F to
    750 °F?

    A. Fluid thermometer
    B. Liquid-in-glass
    C. Bimetallic
    D. Filled-system thermometers
    C. Bimetallic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  264. To prevent the gradual sagging of the protective tube, vertical positioning is important on thermowells installed in operating temperatures of _____.
    A. 125 °F to 200 °F
    B. 225 °F to 350 oF
    C. 375 °F to 400 °F
    D. above 400 °F
    D. above 400 °F
  265. Which valve has three different types of functions: straight flow, angle flow, and cross flow?

    A. Ball
    B. Globe
    C. Butterfly
    D. Gate
    B. Globe
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  266. Which valve opens and closes with a 90 degree turn movement of the handle?

    A. Gate
    B. Check
    C. Butterfly
    D. Globe
    C. Butterfly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  267. What is a simple type of directional control valve?

    A. Petcock
    B. Globe
    C. Gate
    D. Check
    D. Check
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  268. What type of bourdon tube gauge is used to measure pressures above atmospheric pressure?

    A. Vacuum
    B. Differential
    C. Duplex
    D. Compound
    C. Duplex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  269. What type of pipe fitting typically has four parts?

    A. Union
    B. Reducer
    C. Coupling
    D. Bushing
    A. Union
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  270. What is the maximum temperature that black flux can be used?

    A. 1800 °F
    B. 2000 °F
    C. 1900 °F
    D. 2100 °F
    A. 1800 °F
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  271. How are hammers classified?

    A. Maximum striking force
    B. Weight of head and handle
    C. Weight of head alone
    D. Handle material
    C. Weight of head alone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  272. Which part of the drill bit actually
    cuts away material when drilling a hole?

    A. Shank
    B. Tang
    C. Flute
    D. Lip
    D. Lip
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  273. A. Shank
    • B. Flute
    • C. Tang
    • D. Lip
  274. _____ is the apparent change in the
    position of an object resulting from the
    change in the direction of position from
    which it is viewed.

    A. Gauge read-fault
    B. Pointer shift
    C. Perpendicularity
    D. Parallax
    D. parallax
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  275. BEFORE starting the compressor, which of the following would you do?

    A. Open the compressor discharge valve
    B. Slowly open the suction stop valve
    C. Jog the compressor several times
    D. Check the oil level in the compressor sump
    D. Check the oil level in the compressor sump
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  276. What should you do if the compressor is to be secured for MORE THAN 4 hours?

    A. Secure the seawater and the chill water
    B. Close the receiver liquid outlet valve
    C. Close the compressor shutoff valves
    D. Open the compressor shutoff valves
    C. Close the compressor shutoff valves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  277. The fluid used in hydraulic systems has four main functions:
    • Transmit Power.

    • Cool.

    • Seal.

    • Lubricate.
  278. Hydraulic oil:

    Water contamination removal process by evaporation:

    Trace amounts of water are removed from the fluid by heating the reservoir to _____ degrees Fahrenheit.
    140
  279. Types of positive displacement hydraulic pumps:
    • Gear.

    • Vane.

    • Piston.
  280. Definition of MECHANICAL EFFICIENCY:
    Mechanical efficiency is the ratio of actual torque delivered to theoretical torque.
  281. How are hydraulic motors rated?
    Motors are rated according to displacement (size) in cubic inches (in.3), torque capacity in inch pounds (in. #), and maximum operating pressure (psi). This information is provided in the manufacturer’s technical manual. Motors have a mechanical efficiency, instead of a volumetric efficiency, rating.
  282. Purpose of a hydraulic reservoir:
    • Stores the hydraulic fluid not currently being used in the system.

    • Allows space for the expansion and contraction of the system’s volume due to thermal changes.

    • Allows gases to expel from the hydraulic fluid.

    • Allows foreign matter to settle out from the hydraulic fluid.

    • Allows heat to dissipate from the hydraulic fluid.
  283. The three main types of hydraulic accumulators are:
    • Spring loaded.

    • Weight loaded.

    • Gas charged.
  284. Definition of a FULL FLOW filter:
    In full-flow filters, all the fluid passes through a filtering element. This type of filter provides a more positive filtering action than a proportional flow filter, but offers greater resistance to flow, particularly when dirty.
  285. Definition of a PROPORTIONAL FLOW filter:
    In a proportional flow filter, only a portion of the fluid passes through a filtering element during each cycle. This type of filter operates on the venturi principle. As the fluid passes through a venturi throat in the body of the filter, a drop in pressure is created. This pulls some fluid through the filter element. Although only a portion of the fluid is filtered during each cycle, constant recirculation through the system eventually causes all fluid to pass through the filter element.
  286. Hydraulic filter elements can generally by classified into what two groups?
    Surface Type Element. In this type of element, the fluid stream has a straight flow path through the element, and contaminants are trapped on the surface of the element.

    Depth Type Element. In this type of element, the fluid stream is forced to pass through a multiple layer element, and the multiple layers trap the contaminants.
  287. A fault within a hydraulic system can be narrowed down to a fundamental problem with one or more of the following three elements:
    • • Flow.
    • • Pressure.
    • • Direction of flow.
  288. Two types of AC Induction motors:
    Squirrel-Cage. In squirrel-cage motors, the rotor consists of permeable metal containing embedded strips of magnetic material. As the stator magnetic field rotates, the field interacts with the magnetic field established by the magnetic poles of the rotor, causing the rotor to turn at nearly the speed of the rotating stator magnetic field.

    Wound-Rotor. In wound-rotor designs, the permanent magnets used in the squirrel-cage motor are replaced by a rotor having windings. In this motor, when the stator magnetic field rotates and the rotor windings are shorted, the stator magnetic field motion induces a field into the wound-rotor, once again causing the rotor to turn at nearly the speed of the rotating stator magnetic field.
  289. Definition of ABSOLUTE ZERO:
    • The temperature measured using absolute zero as a reference. Absolute zero is:
    •  –273.16°C or –459.69°F.
  290. Auxiliary boilers:

    Definition of BLOWBACK?
    Blowback is:

    The number of pounds per square inch of pressure drop in a boiler from the point where the safety valve pops to the point where the safety valve reseats.
  291. Definition of BOILER HORSEPOWER:
    The evaporation of 34 ½ lbs of water per hour from a temperature of 212 degrees F into dry saturated steam at the same temperature. Equivalent to 33,475 BTU.
  292. Definition of BOILER LOAD?
    The steam output demanded from a boiler, generally expressed in pounds per hour (lb/hr).
  293. Definition of CARRYOVER:
    (1) Boiler water entrained with the steam (by foaming or priming).

    (2) Particles of seawater trapped in vapor in the distilling plant and carried into the condensate.
  294. Definition of CENTIPOISE (cP):
    A unit of absolute viscosity 

    1 poise = 100 centipoise.

    This measurement is one of the units of viscosity used in the SAE Crankcase Oil Viscosity Classification.
  295. Definition of CLAIRIFIER:
    A water tank containing baffles that slow the rate of water flow sufficiently to allow heavy particles to settle to the bottom and the light particles to rise to the surface. This separation permits easy removal, thus leaving the "clarified" water. The clarifier is sometimes referred to as a settling tank or sedimentation basin.
  296. What does COALESCE mean?
    To merge; or cause things to merge into a single body or group
  297. Definition of DEAERATE?
    The process of removing dissolved oxygen.
  298. DEAERATING FEED TANK (DFT):
    A unit in the steam-water cycle used to:

    • (1) free the condensate of dissolved oxygen, (2) heat the feedwater, and
    • (3) act as a reservoir for feedwater.
  299. Definition of Diffuser:
    (1) A duct of varying cross sections designed to convert a high-speed gas flow into low-speed flow at an increased pressure.

    (2) A device that spreads a fluid out in all directions and increases fluid pressure while decreasing fluid velocity.
  300. Definition of DISTILLATE:
    The product resulting from the condensation of the vapor produced by the evaporation of seawater.
  301. DYNAMIC PRESSURE:
    (1) The pressure of a fluid resulting from its motion, equal to one-half the fluid density times the fluid velocity squared.

    (2) In incompressible flow, dynamic pressure is the difference between total pressure and static pressure.
  302. Definition of EMBRITTLEMENT:
    An intercrystalline corrosion of boilerplate occurring in highly stressed zones. Cracking may result.
  303. EXCITATION WAVELENGTH:
    Excitation wavelength is the beam of light transmitted across an optical cell.

    When coupled with an optical system, it provides maximum sensitivity to oil, minimum sensitivity to entrained solids, and virtual immunity to other soluble constituents of the sample stream.
  304. Flash Point:
    The temperature at which a substance, such as oil, will give off a vapor that will flash or burn momentarily when ignited.
  305. Graping:
    A condition that occurs when oil and water will not separate. Temperatures below 33 degrees, damaged or mishandled elements, and surfactants will cause this to happen.

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