Immunology and Serology

Card Set Information

Author:
ncrook
ID:
211502
Filename:
Immunology and Serology
Updated:
2013-05-11 02:08:28
Tags:
Major Histocompatibility Complex Nonspecific Immune Response Adaptive
Folders:

Description:
Major Histocompatibility Complex, Nonspecific Immune Response, Adaptive Immune Response
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user ncrook on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. What are cell surface markers that allow immune cells to distinguish "self" from "nonself"?
    Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs)
  2. What are the 3 classes of MHC products?
    • Class I loci: HLA-A, HLA-B, C, E, F, G, J
    • Class II: HLA-DM, DO, DP, DQ, DR
    • Class III: Complement proteins, TNFalpha and beta, and toher proteins not associated with cell membrane surfaces
  3. What is a combination of inherited HLA alleles?
    Haplotype
  4. What will cause transplants to last longer?
    If the HLA antigens from the recipient and the donor are closely matched
  5. What are the primary cause of immune mediated platelet transfusion refractoriness?
    Antibodies to class I HLA antigens
  6. What is involved in nonspecific response by attachement to damaged epithelium, migration into tissues, chemotaxis, phagocytosis and digestion of target cells, increased metabolism, and degranulation?
    Polymorphonuclear neutrophils (Segs)
  7. What clinical condition is a defect in oxidative pathway (respiratory pathway) phagocytes use to create hydrogen peroxide, which is used to kill bacteria?
    Chronic granulomatous disease
  8. What clinical disease is impaired production of toxic oxygen molecules (decrease respiratory burst) used by phagocytosis to kill ingested bacteria?
    Myeloperoxidase (MPO) deficiency
  9. What cells granules contain acid phosphatase, peroxidase, histamines, and several other types of molecules?
    Eosinophils
  10. What are the functions of eosinophils?
    • Clearing immune complexes
    • Limiting inflammatory reactions
    • Protein in granules toxic to parasites
  11. What cells include mast cells, basophils, and platelets that release substances that mediate immune reactions?
    Mediator cells
  12. When do mast cells degranulate?
    • When membrane bound IgE binds an allergen
    • When nonimmunologic mechanisms such as surgical incisions, heat, and skin or mucous membrane infections
  13. What is the function of basophils?
    • Amplify the reactions that start with the mast cell at the site of entry of the antigen
    • Their granules contain mediators that play a role in anaphylactic reactions
  14. Upon injury, capillaries, arterioles, and venules are dialated to ______________?
    Increase blood flow to the site of the injury
  15. What is the term for when PMNs move between the endothelial cells to the site of tissue damage?
    Diapedesis
  16. What is a collection of serum proteins involved in lysis of cell membranes, mediation of inflammation, enhancement of phagocytosis, and metabolism of immune complexes?
    Complement system
  17. How does the classical pathway activate complement?
    Immune complexes, requre one IgM or two IgG molecules
  18. What is the outcome of C4a, C3a, and C5a cause basophils and mast cells to release histamine and also cause smooth muscle contraction and increased vascular permeability?
    Anaphylatoxins
  19. What is the outcome when C3b adheres to immune complexes and surfaces of substances to facilitate clearing of these molecules?
    Immune adherence
  20. What is the outcome if C3b is attached to a cell, phagocytosis is enhanced?
    Opsonization
  21. What is the outcome when a C5a is an anaphylatoxin and induces the migration of neutrophils and monocytes to the site?
    Chemotaxis
  22. What compound removes a single amino acid from C4a, C3a, and C5a, rendering them useless as anaphylatoxins?
    Analphylatoxin inactivator
  23. What is the clinical significance of a C3 deficiency?
    Increase risk for overwhelmin infections
  24. What is the clinical significance of C3 and C4 deficiency?
    Indicate consumption with classical pathway activation
  25. What is the clinical significance of a C1 (q, r, s), C4, and C2 deficiency?
    Indicate collagen disease
  26. What is the clinical significance of a C5, C6, and C7 deficiency?
    Increased risk for Neisseria meningitidis infection
  27. What are C3 and C4 measured for?
    Indicate consumption and to follow disease states
  28. What is CH50 measured for?
    Measures the activity of the classical pathway
  29. When is CRP increased?
    • After injury
    • Coronary heart disease
  30. What is the function of haptoglobin?
    Removes free hemoglobin from circulation
  31. When is fibrinogen increased?
    • Increased at the site of an injury
    • Converted to fibrin to heal the injury
  32. What does a deficiency of alpha1-Antitrypsin indicate?
    • Premature loss of elasticity in the lung
    • Liver damage
  33. What is the function of ceruloplasmin?
    Principal copper trasportation protein
  34. What is the disease called for a deficiency in ceruloplasmin?
    Wilson disease
  35. What antigens do monocytes/macrophages have on their cell surface?
    MHC I or II molecules
  36. What antigens do dendritic cells have on their cell surface?
    MHC I or II molecules
  37. What antigens do B cells have on their cell surface?
    MHC II molecules
  38. What is the B cell antigen receptor?
    Monomeric IgM or IgD
  39. What do T helper cells have on their surface that interacts with MHC II on the antigen presenting cell?
    CD4
  40. When are T helper cells activated?
    Requires direct cell contact  and cytokines (IL-1 and IL-2)
  41. What is the function of NK cells?
    • Kill target cells without being previously senstitized
    • Activity is governed by cytokines
  42. How long does it take to produce antibodies during primary antibody response?
    • 5-7 days
    • During this time, the host is producing plasma cells that will secrete antibodies
    • IgM
  43. How long does it take to produce antibodies during a secondary response?
    • 3-5 days
    • Higher antibody production
    • IgG
  44. What occurs when cytolytic effector cells (NK cells and PMN) can lyse antibody coated target cells if there is direct contact?
    Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview