Immunology and Serology

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Immunology and Serology
2013-05-11 01:39:49
Hypergammaglobulinemia Transplant Tumor Immunology Antigen Antibody Precipitation Agglutination Labeled Reactions Cellular Assays

Hypergammaglobulinemia, Transplant and Tumor Immunology, Antigen-Antibody, Precipitation, Agglutination, and Labeled Reactions, Cellular Assays
Show Answers:

  1. What clinical condition:
    Results in a broad spike in the gamma region on serum protein electrophoresis
    Chronic antigenic stimulation from infectious organisms can create this condition
    Many acute phase proteins are produced during inflammation and can cause a broadening of the alpha-2 peak in the serum protein electrophoresis
    Polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia
  2. What clinical condition:
    Is a lymphoproliferative disease, in which plasma cells produce a high concentration of immunoglobulin
    Bence Jones protein present in urine
    Symptoms: weakness, anorexia, weight loss, skeletal destruction, pain, anemia, renal insufficiency, recurrent bacterial infections
    Monoclonal gammopathy and plasma cells infiltrate in the bone marrow
    Monoclonal immunoglobulins (M protein)
    Multiple myeloma
  3. What clinical condition:
    Has uncontrolled proliferation of a clone of B cells that synthesize a homogeneous IgM
    Hyperviscosity of plasma that causes congestive heart failure, headache, dizziness, partial or total loss of vision, bleeding, anemia
    Symptoms: weakness, fatigue, headache, and weight loss
    Labs: Spike in beta or gamma region on serum protein electrophoresis, increased plasma viscosity, and abnormal accumulation of lymphoid cells in bone marrow and tissues
    Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
  4. What clinical condition:
    A nonstructural protein that becomes insoluble after an alteration in its secondary structure - that accumulates in organs and tissues
    Monoclonal plasma cell disorder in which abnormal immunoglobumin or Bence Jones protein, or (less common) heavy chain fragments are produced
    Insoluble proteins are deposited in some of the tissues - resulting in progressive loss of organ function
    Labs: frequent abnormalities of serum immunoglobulins and presence of Bence Jones protein
    Primary amyloidosis
  5. What type of graft is a transfer of tissue from one site to another within an individual?
  6. What type of graft is a transfer of tissue between genetically identical individuals?
    Isograft (syngraft)
  7. What type of graft is a tanser of tissue between 2 genetically nonidentical individuals of the same species?
  8. What type of graft is a transfer of tissue between 2 individuals of different species?
  9. How long does a first set graft rejection take?
    10-14 days after transplantion
  10. How long does a second-set graft rejection take?
    6 days
  11. What graft rejection:
    Occurs within 24 hours of transplantation
    Caused by a preexisting antibody to antigens on the grafted tissue
    ABO blood group antibodies and MHC class I antibodies cause hyperacute rejection
    Hyperacute rejection
  12. What type of graft rejection:
    Occurs within weeks of transplantation
    Rejection due to CMI response
    Histopathology revels massive infiltration of lymphocytes and macrophages
    Acute rejection
  13. What type of graft rejection:
    Occurs months to years after transplantation
    Mechanisms of rejection include both HMI and CMI
    Chronic rejection
  14. What is the term for an abnormal mass of tissue that results from the uncontrolled growth of normal cells even after the growth stimulus is removed?
  15. What is the term for a typically mild and nonprogressive tumor that pushes aside normal tissue, but does not invade it, as the tumor expands?
    Benign tumor
  16. What is the term for generally consisting of poorly differentiated cells that grow rapidly and invade surrounding tissue, robbing the normal tissue of nutrients?
    Malignant tumor
  17. What is the term for secondary tumor derived from a malignant primary tumor?
    Metastatic tumor
  18. What provides a natural immunity to tumors - to a limited degree?
    Macrophages and NK cells
  19. What is involved in humoral mediated immunity against tumors?
    • Antibodies produced against the antigens on the surface of the tumor
    • Tumor cells can be lysed by complement activation
    • Antibody dependent cellular cytoxicity (ADCC) reactions involving NK cells, PMNs, and macrophages
  20. What is involved in T cell mediated immunity?
    • Cytokines:
    • - IL-1 activates T cells, B cells, and NK cells and induces a fever
    • - TNFalpha destroys tumor cells
    • - INFgamma is produced by activated T cells and NK cells
    • CTLs can directly lyse tumor cells
  21. What tumor marker level is:
    Used in management of gastrointestinal tumors (colon cancer) and adenocarcinomas of the colon, pancreas, liver, and lung
    Also found in IBD, ulcerative colitis, Chrohns disease, polyps, tumors of the GI tract, and cigarette smokers
    Highest levels are found in metastatic disease
    CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen)
  22. What tumor marker level is:
    Produced during embryonic and fetal development
    High in patients with hepatocellular carcinoma, helpatoblastoma, and testicular and ovarian cancer
    Also elevated in viral hepatitis, cirrhosis, and ulcerative colitis
    Important marker for monitoring cancer therapy
    alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP)
  23. What tumor marker level is:
    May be produced by neoplastic cells of testicular cancer and various tumors
    Levels are useful in evaluating patients with gestational trophoblastic disease, testicular tumors, and ovarian germ cell tumors
    Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
  24. What tumor marker level is:
    Increased in prostate cancer, benign prostatic hypertrophy, and acute or chronic prostatitis
    Levels correlate with prostate size, stage of prostate cancer, and response to treatment
    Used to screen for prostate cancer in conjunction with a digital rectal examination
    Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
  25. What forces participate in antibody-antigen interactions?
    • Electrostatic force or ionic bonding: bonding is affected by pH and ionic strength
    • Hydrogen bonding: Weak bond but maximum binding strength occurs below 37 degrees celcius
    • Hydorphobic bonding: Attraction between nonpolar groups
    • Van der Waals force: Weak, attractive force between an electron orbital of one atom and the nucleus of another atom
  26. What type of precipitation reaction is the measurement of light transmitted through a suspension of particles?
  27. What type of precipitation reaction is a direct measurement of light scattered by particles suspended in solution?
  28. What type of precipitation reaction is when antigen and antibody are placed in wells in th egel and diffuse toward each other?
    Double immunodiffusion
  29. What type of precipitation reaction occurs when on a gar gell plate or slide, antigen is added to one well and antibody is added to another well?
    Countercurrent immunoelectrophoresis (CIE)
  30. What precipitation reaction occurs when serum, urine, or CSF is electrophoresed, antisera contained in a cellulose acetate strip is then placed on top of the electrophoresis gel; antibodies diffuse into the electrophoresis gel and combine with the antigens - forming a precipitate?
    Immunofixation electrophoresis
  31. What precipitation reaction occurs when antigens are electrophoresed in agar-containing antibody; the antibody and antigen combine to form precipitates in the shape of a "rocket"?
    Rocket immunoelectrophoresis
  32. What antibodies participate in agglutination reactions?
    • IgM
    • IgG
  33. What labeled reaction has a conjugated reagent antibody reacts with an antigen in a clinical sample to form and antigen-antibody complex?
    Direct immunofluorescence
  34. What labeled reaction has antigens that react with unlabeled antibody forming an antigen complex that is then complexed with a labeled forming antihuman antibody, creating an antibody-antigen-antibody "sandwich"?
    Indirect immunofluorescent assay
  35. What labeled reaction is an indirect assay in which the detection system is modified by using biotin-labeled antibody following by avidin-labeled fluorochrome?
    Biotin-avidin immunofluorescence
  36. What cell markers are identified for T cell subsets?
    • CD1
    • CD2
    • CD3
    • CD4
  37. What cell markers are identified for B cell subsets?
    • CD19
    • CD20
  38. What cell marker is used to monitor treatment for HIV infections?
    • CD4
    • CD8