Biochem Test 3 (11-16)

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Biochem Test 3 (11-16)
2013-04-09 23:01:26
Biochemistry Rutgers

Rutgers intro to biochem with Murphy test 3 chapters 11-16
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  1. 1) Fatty acid groups are referred to as ________ groups.

    A) Acetyl
    B) Acyl
    C) Prenyl
    D) Isoprenoid
    E) Isopentenyl
  2. 2) The double bonds in naturally occurring fatty acids are usually _______ isomers.

    A) Cis
    B) Trans
    C) Both cis and trans
    D) Essential
    E) Nonessential
  3. 3) The essential fatty acids are

    A) Arachidonic acid
    B) Linoleic acid
    C) Linolenic acid
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) Both B and C are correct
  4. 4) Fatty acids react with alcohols to form _____.

    A) Amides
    B) Ethers
    C) Anhydrides
    D) Epoxides
    E) Esters
  5. 5) Prostaglandins are involved in _________.

    A) Ovulation
    B) Inflammation
    C) Digestion
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
  6. 6) The functions of fat include

    A) Insulation
    B) Energy storage
    C) Water-repellent properties
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
  7. 7) Waxes

    A) Are complex mixtures of nonpolar lipids
    B) Are esters formed from long-chain fatty acids and long-chain alcohols
    C) Contain hydrocarbons, sterols, and alcohols
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) Both A and C are correct
  8. 8) Phospholipids are

    A) Structural components of membranes
    B) Surface active agents
    C) Rich energy sources
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
  9. 9) Phosphatidylcholine is sometimes referred to as ______.

    A) PIP2
    B) Cephalin
    C) Ceramide
    D) Cardiolipin
    E)None of the above are correct
  10. 10) The myelin sheath 

    A) Surrounds nerve cell axons
    B) Contains large amounts of cardiolipin
    C) Facilitates nerve impulse transmission
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) Both A and C are correct
  11. 11) All of the following are glycolipids except _________.

    A) Sulfatides
    B) Cerebrosides
    C) Gangliosides
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) None of the above are correct
  12. 12) The role of very low density lipoproteins is

    A) Scavenging the cholesterol from cell membranes
    B) Transporting of lipids from liver to tissues
    C) Transporting of cholesterol esters to the liver
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
  13. 13) Which of the following statements concerning carotenoids is not true?

    A) Carotenoids are the only examples of the monoterpenes
    B) The carotenes are hydrocarbon members of the carotenoids
    C) Xanthophylls are oxygenated derivatives of the carotenes
    D) Carotenoids are orange-colored pigments
    E) None of the above are true
  14. 14) Which of the following molecules is not a lipid?

    A) Fatty acids
    B) Steroids
    C) Isoprenoids
    D) Waxes
    E)  All of the above are lipids
  15. 15) The basic structure of biological membranes is a consequence of the physical properties of  _______.

    A) Proteins
    B) Phospholipids
    C) Cholesterol
    D) Water
    E) None of the above are correct
  16. 16) A membrane’s fluidity is largely determined by the percentage of 

    A) Phosphatidyl choline
    B) Phosphatidylethanolamine
    C) Fatty acids
    D) Cardiolipin
    E) Unsaturated fatty acids
  17. 17) In the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure

    A) Proteins form an inner layer between two layers of lipid
    B) Proteins coat an inner layer of lipids
    C) Proteins float in a lipid bilayer
    D) Proteins are covalently bonded to the lipid bilayer
    E) All of the above are true
  18. 18) Which of the following statements concerning the anion channel protein is not true?

    A) It plays an important role in carbon dioxide transport in blood
    B) It facilitates the chloride shift
    C) Bicarbonate and chloride exchange occurs through the anion channel protein
    D) The N-terminal methionine residue of the anion channel protein is prenylated
    E) All of the above statements are true.
  19. 19) Energy requiring transport mechanisms include

    A) Primary active transport
    B) Diffusion
    C) Facilitated diffusion
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) Both A and C are correct
  20. 20) In simple diffusion a solute

    A) Is propelled by random molecular motion
    B) Moves up its concentration gradient
    C) Moves across a membrane because of an input of free  energy.
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
  21. 21) Which of the following statements is not true?

    A) Membrane potential is an electrical gradient across a membrane.
    B) A decrease in membrane potential is referred to as membrane depoalarization.
    C) The term repolarization is defined as the reestablishment of the original membrane potential.
    D) The diffusion of potassium ions out of a nerve cell make the inside of the membrane negative.
    E) The sodium channel in muscle and nerve cells is a voltage-gated channel.
  22. 22) In muscle cells, local depolarization caused by acetylcholine binding leads to the opening of the voltage gated _____channels.

    A) Chloride
    B) Potassium
    C) Proton
    D) Sodium
    E) Glucose permease
  23. 23) The function of glucose permease is an example of 

    A) Primary active transport
    B) Secondary active trasnport
    C) Facilitated diffusion
    D) Simple diffusion
    E) None of the above are true
  24. 24) ω-6 Fatty acids

    A) Have a double bond six carbon atoms from the carbonyl end of the chain
    B) Have a double bond six carbon atoms from the methyl end of the chain
    C) Have six double bonds in the molecule
    D) Have three more double bonds than ω-3 fatty acids
    E) Contain six trans double bonds in the molecule
  25. 25) Membrane receptors are transmembrane molecules or molecular complexes that 

    A) Monitor and respond to changes in the cell’s environment.
    B) Bind to hormones or neurotransmitters
    C) Are involved in embryonic and fetal development
    D) Initiate an intracellular response when they bind an appropriate molecule
    E) All of the above are correct
  26. 26) Patients with familial hypercholesterolemia

    A) Possess depressed levels of plasma cholesterol
    B)  Have missing or defective LDL receptors
    C)  Are homozygous or heterozygous for a nonfunctional LDL receptor gene
    D) Have very high levels of serum cholesterol
    E) B, C and D are correct
  27. 27) Indicate which of the following compounds is a endocannabinoid.

    A) Oleic acid
    B)  Arachidonic acid
    C) Anandamine
    D) Prostaglandin
    E) ω-3 Fatty acids
  28. 28) Low fat diets deficient in essential fatty acids are characterized by which of the following?

    A)  Poor wound healing
    B)  Alopecia
    C)  Dental caries
    D Ketone bodies
    E) Both A and B are correct
  29. 29) Which of the following structural features is not characteristic of TXA2 ?

    A) An ether ring
    B) One OH group
    C) Two double bonds
    D) One double bond
    E) Is derived from arachidonic acid
  30. 30) Neutral fats belong to which of the following?

    A) Phospholipids
    B) Glycolipids
    C) Prostaglandins
    D)  Triacylglycerols
    E) Free fatty acids
  31. In addition to the prostaglandins and leukotrienes the autocrine regulators include:

    Arachidonic acid
    Linoleic acid
    All of the above are correct
  32. Choose the lipid class that acts as  surfactants.

    Fatty acids
    Both A and B are correct
  33. Membrane proteins are linked to anchor molecules through a ___________ link

  34. Glycolipids differ from sphingolipids in that they contain no _________.

    Fatty acid
    Both B and C are correct
  35. Which of the following is not likely to be a naturally occurring fatty acid

  36. How many isoprene units does a diterpene contain?

  37. The function of dolichols is to 

    Transport sugars in glycoprotein synthesis
    Bind carbohydrate on the cell surface of bacteria
    Bind to  oxygenated carotenes
    Serve as  precursors of carotenoids
    They are degradation products of steroids
  38. Plasma lipoproteins transport _______ through the blood from one organ to another.

    Cholesteryl esters
    Both A and C are correct
    All of the above are correct
  39. _________ are the principal transporters of cholesteryl esters to tissues.

    Very low density lipoprotein
    Intermediate density lipoprotein
    Low density lipoprotein
    All of the above are true
  40. Individuals with cystic fibrosis have a defective _______ ion channel in their epithelial membrane

  41. A consequence of replacing dietary fat content with sugars is

    No effect on body weight
    An increase in body weight
    A small loss of body weight
    A large decrease in body weight
    An initial loss of weight followed by a large increase in body weight
  42. Which of the following is not a consequence of a low fat diet?

    Low levels of fat soluble vitamins
    Low levels of essential fatty acids
    Brittle hair
    Poor would healing
    Low blood pressure
  43. 43) Phospholipase B hydrolyzes ______ ester bonds in phospholipids

    Both C-1 and C-2
    All of the above
  44. 44)  Which of the following is not a function of phospholipases?

    Membrane remodeling
    Signal transduction
    Energy storage
    Toxic Phospholipases
  45. 45)  Membranes are rigid when they contain

    Large amounts of cholesterol
    Large amounts of unsaturated fatty acids
    Large amounts of saturated fatty acids
    Large amounts of water
    A and B
  46. 46)  Flippase transfers _________ from the outer to inner membrane leaflet

  47. 1. How many acetyl-CoA’s are required to synthesize one molecule of isopentenyl pyrophosphate
  48. 2. ______ is used to transport fatty acids into the mitochondria.
    B-Oxidation and carnitine carrier system
  49. 3)  The b-oxidation of fatty acids requires_________.
    Acyl-CoA, FAD, NAD+, and CoASH
  50. 4. ________, a product of the oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids, is converted to  succinyl-CoA.
  51. 5)   __________ derive a substantial amount of energy from the oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids.
    Ruminant animals (cattle and sheep)
  52. 6) The carbon atoms of cholesterol are derived from _____
    Acetyl CoA
  53. 7) The following reaction requires the presence of beta-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase
  54. 8) In animals the function of peroxisomal b-oxidation appears to be
    OX of odd chain fatty acids
  55. 9) The acetyl-CoA derived from glyoxysomal b-oxidation is converted to carbohydrate via the
    citric acid cycle, CO2, NADH, H2O, FADH2, glyoxylate cycle and gluconeogenesis
  56. 10. Refsum’s disease results from a buildup of _________ in nerve tissue.
    phytanic acid
  57. 11) Which of the following is not one of the ketone bodies?
    • B-methyl- glutate
    • Ketone bodies INCLUDE: Excess Acetyl CoA, Acetone, Acetoacetate and Beta-hydroxybutyrate.
  58. 12. Most eicosanoids are derived from either _________.
    arachidonic acid
  59. 13) Glycerol from the hydrolysis of triacylglycerols is transported by the blood to the
  60. 14) The intermediates in fatty acid synthesis are linked through a ______ linkage to ACP.
  61. 15)  Saturated fatty acids containing up to 16 carbon atoms are assembled in
  62. 16) Fatty acid synthesis begins with the carboxylation of acetyl CoA to form
    malonyl COA.
  63. 17) All of the following are enzymatic activities found in fatty acid synthase except
  64. 18)  Desaturation of fatty acids involves all of the following except
    •      Desaturation is important in the regulation of membrane fluidity(done in
    •      ER) and the synthesis of the precursors for a variety of fatty acid
    •      derivatives such as the eicosanoids.
    •      The system efficiently introduces double bonds (desaturation) into
    •      long-chain fatty acids
    •      Mediated by an electron transport system
    • (The answer will be none of the above)
    • INVOLVES: Cytochrome b5 reductase, cytochrome b5 and desaturase, NADH, O2
  65. 19)   Which of the following types of fatty acid oxidation produces a dicarboxylic
    alpha oxidation
  66. 20)  The conversion of acetyl-CoA to malonyl-CoA is inhibited by
    glucagon, epinephrine, paltimitoyl coa
  67. 21) The conversion of acyl-CoA to acylcarnitine is inhibited by
    malonyl COA.
  68. 22) In conjugation reactions
    • This reaction improve the water solubility of a molecule by converting it to a derivatives (Amid and Esters) that contains a water-soluble group.
    • Most bile acids are conjugated with glycine
  69. 23) Depending on an animal’s metabolic needs, fatty acids may be converted to triacylglycerols, energy or
    membrane synthesis.
  70. 24) Membrane remodeling
    Cells use phospholipases to alter the flexibility of membranes by adjusting the ratio of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids or to replace a damaged fatty acid. Fatty acid removal from a phospholipid is followed by a reacylation reaction catalyzed by an acyltransferase.
  71. 25) The conversion of phosphatidylethanolamine to phosphatidylcholine requires

    enzyme phosphotidylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase.
  72. 26) The sulfatides are synthesized when galactocerebriose  reacts with
  73. 27) __________ is the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis.
    HMG-CoA reductase (HMGR)
  74. 28) The conversion of squalene to cholesterol requires
    sterol carrier protein because the conversion of squalene to lanosterol occurs while the intermediates are bound to this protein.

    The answer is NADPH
  75. 29) Cholesterol is a precursor of synthesis of important metabolites used to
    form bile salt, bile salts, steroid hormones nascent lipoproteins.
  76. 30) Most bile acids are conjugated with
    glycine or taurine.
  77. 31) Which of the following tissues cannot use fatty acids as a fuel?
    Brain cells and RBC cannot use fatty acids as fuels.
  78. 32) Lipolysis is used to:
    • Lipolysis is the enzyme-catalyzed hydrolysis of triacylglycerol molecules.
    • When energy reserves are low, the body’s fat stores are mobilized in this process. It usually occurs during fasting or vigorous exercise and stress

    form fatty acids and glycerol from degradation of triacylglycerols when energy reserves are low.
  79. Oxidation of the carbon farthest from the carbonyl group of a fatty acid is called
    omega oxidation
  80. 34) In the process of thiolytic cleavage  the following occurs:
    • an acetyl-CoA molecule is released
    • The other product, acyl-CoA, contains two fewer C atoms
  81. 35) How many FADH2 molecules would be produced in the oxidation of palmitic acid?
  82. 36) The rate limiting step in fatty acid synthesis is
    acetyl COA Carboxylation
  83. 37)  Which of the following lipids have signaling functions?
    Steroid hormones and prostaglandins.
  84. 38) What form of oxidation is characteristic of branched chain fatty acids
    alpha oxidation
  85. 39) The metabolism of fatty acids is regulated in the short term by allosteric modulators, covalent modification and
  86. 40) The most important mechanism for degrading and eliminating cholesterol is the synthesis of
    bile acids in the ER of liver cells.
  87. 41)   The absorption of triglycerides and other lipid nutrients and their distribution to body tissues is referred to as the
    exogenous pathway
  88. 42)  The pathway in which lipoproteins are transported from the liver to cells is referred to
    endogenous pathway
  89. 43)  Which of the following is not a function of lipids:
    Function of lipids : vital energy reserves, primary structural components of biological membranes, act as hormones, antioxidants, pigments, or vital growth factors and vitamins

    • Highly efficient and compact energy storage molecules
    • Essential components of biological membranes (phospholipids, cholesterol, sphingolipids)
    • Diverse membrane-associated molecules that have signaling or protective functions
  90. The triacylglycerol cycle is :
    A mechanism that regulates the level of fatty acid that are available to the body for the energy generation and synthesis of molecules such as phospholipids.
  91. 45) The principal means of producing glycerol in the body
  92. 46) The recycling rate of triacylglycerols to fatty acids  is inhibited by
  93. 1) The glutamate family of amino acids includes all of the following except _____.
    a. Glutamate
    b. Arginine
    c. Lysine
    d. Proline
    e. None of the above
  94. 2)  Which of the following is an example of an excitatory neurotransmitter?
    a. Seratonin
    b. Glycine
    c. Glutamine
    d. Glutamate
    e. None of the above are correct
  95. 3) All of the following are referred to collectively as the branched chain amino acids except _________
    a. Valine
    b. Glycine
    c. Leucine
    d. Isoleucine
    e. None of the above are correct
  96. 4) Which of the following is an example of an inhibitory neurotransmitter?
    • GABA is most prevalent inhibitory
    • Glycine
  97. Glycine is used as a precursor molecule in the synthesis of all of the following except _______.
    Glycine is used in the purine, porphyrin, and glutathione synthetic pathways
  98. 6) In plants fixed nitrogen is assimilated into __________.
    the amide group of glutamate
  99. 7) a-Ketoisovalerate is an intermediate formed during the synthesis of _________.
    valine and leucine
  100. 8) The group of molecules called the catecholamines include all of the following except
    The most abundant ones ARE: Norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine.
  101. 9) Tryptophan is a precursor in the synthesis of _________.
    • Serotonin
    • Niacin
    • auxin
    • β-carboline norharman
  102. 10) Chorismate is a precursor in the synthesis of all of the following except _______.
    tryptophan, tyrosine, phenylalanine. also: prephenate
  103. 11) Molecules involved in histidine synthesis include ________.
    phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (PRPP), ATP, and glutamine
  104. folic acid
    A vitamin of the B complex, found esp. in leafy green vegetables, liver, and kidney. A deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia
  105. 13) SAM is a methyl donor in the synthesis of ______.
    115 transmethylation reactions some which which occur in the synthesis of phospholipids,several neurotransmitters, and glutathione.
  106. 14) Amethopterin is a structural analogue of _________.
  107. GSH is? Important why?
    It is an antioxidant, preventing damage to important cellular components caused by reactive oxygen species such as free radicals and peroxides. May reduce cancer development
  108. 16) All of the following are purine bases except _____.
    purine bases include: adenine, guanine, xanthine, and hypoxanthine.
  109. 17) Deficiency of _____________ causes Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
    Hypozanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)
  110. 18) All of the following are directly involved in the synthesis of deoxyribonucleic acid....
  111. 19)  Inorganic nitrogen is initially assimilated into which of the following amino acids
    glutamine, glutamate, asparagine, and aspartate
  112. 20) The amino acids serine and _______ are preferentially used to synthesize  glucose for export from the liver
  113. 21) Nitrogen fixation requires iron and ________ as cofactors.
  114. 22) One-carbon carriers in metabolism include
    SAM and tetrahydrofolate THF (folic acid)
  115. 23) Which of the following is an a-keto acid/a-amino acid pair used in transamination?
    a-ketoglutarate/glutamate, oxaloacetate/ aspartate, pyruvate/ alanine
  116. 24) In plants the pathway by which most ammonium ion is incorporated into organic molecules requires
  117. 25) Asparagine is formed from aspartic acid and ______.
  118. 26) The benzene ring of the aromatic amino acids is formed by the
    shikimate pathway
  119. 27) The oxidation state of the methenyl group (-CH=) is comparable to that of ____.
    formyl (-CHO)
  120. 28) The methylated product of _______ is creatine.
    L-arginine, glycine, and L-methionine
  121. 29) The fixation of nitrogen requires
    Anaerobic Conditions
  122. 30) Most aminotransferaes utilize ________as the recipient a-keto acid.
  123. 31) The primary energy source for enterocytes is:
    short-chain fatty acids
  124. _______ ATP molecules are required to convert one mole of nitrogen to two ammonia molecules.
  125. 33) The first step in nitrogen fixation is  ___
    reduction of atmospheric nitrogen by nitrogen-fixing bacteria to yield ammonia NH3 or NH4
  126. 34) The major form of regulation of nitrogen fixation is _______.
    transcriptional control of approximately 20 nitrogen fixation genes
  127. 35) The first amino acid containing newly fixed nitrogen is _______.
  128. 36) Which of the following is not a gasotransmitter?
    examples of gasotransmitters are: nitric oxide, hydrogen sulfide, carbon monoxide, and nitrous oxide
  129. 37)  Which of the following compounds is not present in the normal process of nitrogen fixation
  130. 38) Hydrogen sulfide is produced from
    cysteine by several enzymes [pyridoxal phosphate requiring enzymes cystathione beta-synthetase (CBS) and CSE]
  131. 39) The six families of amino acids are glutamate, aromatic, serine, aspartate, pyruvate and _______.
  132. 40) Which of the following neurotransmitters are derived from amino acids?
    GABA, catecholamines, serotonin, and histamine
  133. 41) In ocean water phytoplankton growth is limited  by temperature and low levels of nutrients containing
    nitrogen (and phosphorous)
  134. 42) Hypoxic water is characterized by
     low oxygen conditions
  135. 43) The ultimate products of mineralization of organic nitrogen is
    NH3, NO3-, NO2- (nitrite), and eventually N2
  136. 44)  The most common intracellular reducing agent is
  137. 45) In nitrogen fixation by microorganisms what gas other than ammonia is produced?
    hydrogen gas
  138. 46) Which of the following is not a function of glutathione
     Glutathione is an antioxidant - protects the body against oxidative stress, radiation, uv light, etc.
  139. 1) In addition to urea humans also excrete waste nitrogen as
    Uric Acid
  140. 2) Stress proteins
    are referred to as heat shock proteins
  141. 3) The ammonia that is incorporated into urea molecules is produced in reactions catalyzed by all of the following enzymes except
    L-amino acid oxidases, Serine and threonine dehydrases, Bacterial ureases (intestinal bacteria), and Adenosine deaminase produce NH4
  142. 4) N-Acetylglutamate is
    produced from glutamate and acetyl-CoA, and stimulates the activity of carbonyl synthetase 1
  143. 5) Amino acids whose degradation yields acetyl-CoA include all of the following except
  144. 6) Homogentisate is an intermediate in the degradation of
  145. 7) a-Ketoadipate is an intermediate in the degradation of
  146. 8) In addition to phenylalanine-4-monooxygenase the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine requires
    O2, BH4, NADPH
  147. 9) Amino acids whose degradation yields a-ketoglutarate include all of the following except _________.
    Arginine, Histidine, Glutamate, Glutamine, and Proline degrade to alpha-ketoglutarate.
  148. 10) Glutamate-g-semialdehyde is an intermediate in the degradation of
  149. 11)  Amino acids whose degradation yields succinyl-CoA includes all of the following except ________.
    Methionine, Isoleucine, Threonine, and Valine are converted to succinyl-coa
  150. 2) Alkaptonuria is caused by a deficiency of :
    homogentisate oxidase, an enzyme required for the catabolism of aromatic ring of phenylalanine and tyrosine.
  151. 13) Albinism is caused by the absence of:
    pigment (lack of melanin)
  152. 14) The major route for protein degradation is
    Ubiquitin Proteosomal System (UPS)
  153. 15) Which of the following reactions require SAM?
    Conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine
  154. 16) The production of antibodies
    occurs in the B cells and is referred to as the humoral immunity response
  155. 17) Which of the following is not a characteristic N-terminal amio acid residue of long-lived proteins
  156. 18)  Covalently bound chains with _____ or more ubiquitin monomers are required to transfer a protein to the proteosome.
  157. 19) Which of the following amino acids reacts with HOCl to form a nontoxic product during respiratory bursts?
  158. 20) The end product of uracil degradation is
  159. 21) The end product of thymine degradation is
  160. 22) Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of
    uracil to dihydrouracil and thymine to dihydrothymine
  161. 23) The glucogenic amino acids include all of the following except ______.
    All amino acids except Lysine, and Leucine
  162. 24) Components of the transulfuration pathway include all of the  following except _____.
  163. 25)  In adenosine deaminase deficiency large concentrations of dATP result in the inhibition of
    ribonucleotide reductase.
  164. 26) Which of the following tissues can only replenish citric acid cycle intermediates by the purine nucleotide cycle?
  165. 27) All of the following are directly involved in protein turnover except _______.
    • lysosomal proteases--> endocytosed proteins
    • cytoplasmic complexes (proteasomes)
  166. Propionyl-CoA and L-methylmalonyl-CoA are intermediates in the conversion of ______ and _____ to succinyl-CoA
    isoleucine and valine
  167. 29) The end products of the transulfuration pathway are sulfate and
  168. 30) Methylmalonic acidemia results from a deficiency of
    Vitamin B12
  169. 31) The main nitrogen storage molecule in animals is
  170. 32) Decomposers convert organic nitrogen to
  171. 33) In general, catabolism of amino acids begins with
    removal of the amino group
  172. 34) In muscle excess amino groups are transferred to _________ to produce glutamate
  173. 35) Ammonia is transferred to the liver as
  174. 36) Urea is synthesized in which organ?
    Liver (specifically hepatocytes)
  175. 37) In patients with alkaptonuria the urine is colored
  176. 38) High phenylalanine blood levels from phenylketonuria results in damage to which  organ?
    The brain
  177. 39) Which of the following conditions result in a buildup of a-ketoacids derived from branced chain amino acids?
    Diabetic Ketoacidosis
  178. 40) A buildup of uric acid is characteristic of which of the following diseases?
    Branched chain ketoaciduria
  179. 41) Autophagy is
    the basic catabolic mechanism that involves cell degradation of unnecessary or dysfunctional cellular components through the lysosomal machinery
  180. 42) Phagocytosis is
    • the ingestion of bacteria or other material by phagocytes and ameboid protozoans
    • ingestion by local folding of cell membrane
  181. 43) Proteosomal digestion of what type of protein does not require ubiquination
  182. 44) Autophagy is triggered by
    Starvation (lack of any type of essential nutrient)
  183. 45) The ultimate products of autophagy include
    Amino Acids
  184. 46) The major catabolic mechanism used by eukaryotic cells to maintain optimal function and respond to changing environmental conditions is
    ubiquitin-proteasome pathway