Microbiology Final exam

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Microbiology Final exam
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2013 jan-may
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  1. Which of the following is the BEST description of the field of microbiology?

    the study of diseases caused by viruses and bacteria
    the study of living organisms too small to be seen without magnification
    the study of bacteria
    the study of things in the microscope
    the study of simple living things
    The study of living organisms too small to be seen without magnification
  2. Cells with a relatively simple structure that do not have a true membrane-bound nucleus are referred to as:
    Prokaryotes
    eukaryotes
    urkaryotes
    nokaryotes
    A and B
    Prokaryotes
  3. TRUE or FALSE since viruses are considered to be acellular they are NOT included in any of the domains of life
    True - viruses cannot live without a host and acellular means no cell body
  4. Eukaryotic organelles that arose by endosymbiosis include

    Lysosomes
    the golgi
    the ER
    Two of these
    None of these
    None of these (Mitochondria chloroplasts = endosymbiosis)
  5. Which of the following observations by Francesco Redi refutes the idea of spontaneous generation:

    Flies laid eggs on uncoverred meat and maggots developed
    Covered pieces of meat did not produce maggots spontaneously
    maggots and flies are usually associated with meat
    all of the above
    none of the above
    • covered pieces of meat did not produce maggots spontaneously
    • Refute=disproves
  6. Which of the following is NOT one of Koch's Postulates:

    The microorganism is present in some healthy individuals and some diseased individuals
    The suspected microorganism must be isolated and grown in a pure culture
    The same disease must result when the isolated microorganism is inoculated into a healthy host
    Actually ALL of these are Koch's Postulates
    The microorganism is present in some healthy individuals and some diseased individuals
  7. Why did no bacteria grow in the broth during Pasteur's experiment:

    The broth had been frozen before the experiment
    He didn't put any bacteria into the broth
    the neck of the flask was bent
    the temperature was too high for bacteria to grow
    the flask was sealed
    The neck of the flask was bent
  8. Small internal cell structures are best visualized with a:

    Light microscope
    dark-field microscope
    transmission electron microscope
    scanning electron microscope
    confocal microscopy
    transmission electron microscipe
  9. As the magnification of a series of objective lenses increases the working distance ______:

    increases
    decreases
    stays the same
    turns over
    cannot be predicted
    decreases
  10. TRUE or FALSE the main limitation when using the light microscope is resolution rather than magnification
    True (resolution can only down to 200nm)
  11. In the Gram-staining procedure, the primary stain is:

    iodine
    safranin
    crystal violet
    alcohol
    gram negative
    crystal violet
  12. Acidic dyes bind to cellular molecules that are

    hydrophobic
    negatively charged
    positively charged
    aromatic
    hydrophilic
    Positively charged
  13. In microscopy the lens or magnet that focuses the illumination source at the sample is called the

    refractive lens
    condenser
    objective
    magnifier lens
    ocular
    condenser
  14. the term used to describe bacteria that have a rod-like shape is

    coccus
    bacillus
    vibrio
    coccobacillus
    spherillia
    bacillus
  15. Bacterial cells of the same species that are variable in shape are called:

    vibrio
    pleomorphic
    coccobacilli
    hyphal
    mycelium
    pleomorphic
  16. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Procaryotic Plasma membrane:

    control content
    help with energy management
    determine and maintain cell shape
    provide a selectively permeable barrier
    separate the cytoplasm from the outside environment
    determine and maintain cell shape
  17. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the periplasmic space:

    It is found only in gram-negative bacteia
    it is located between the plasma membrane and outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria
    it is located between the plasma membrane and outer membrane of gram-positive bacteria
    it is larger in gram positive bacteria than it is in gram negative bacteria
    TWO of these are TRUE
    it is located between the plasma membrane and outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria
  18. What holds the long chains of sugar to each other in Peptidoglycan:

    Microfilaments
    their amphipathic structure
    lipopolysaccharides
    Braun's lipoproteins
    small polypeptides
    small polypeptides
  19. The function of the ribosome in the Bacterial cell is to:

    produce energy
    tell the cell when glucose is getting more concentrated
    replicate DNA
    store nutrients
    synthesize proteins
    synthesize proteins
  20. TRUE or FALSE Gram negative bacteria stain pink because the purple stain cannot get into the cells
    False
  21. Bacterial granules that serve as storage locations for organic or inorganic material are called:

    organelles
    chambersomes
    nucleoids
    inclusions
    periplasms
    inclusions
  22. Ribosomal RNA synthesis; ribosome construction:

    golgi apparatus
    nucleolus
    rough ER
    Smooth ER
    Lysosome
    nucleolus
  23. Entry point for protein sorting in the Eucaryotic cell:

    golgi apparatus
    nucleolus
    Rough ER
    Smooth ER
    Lysosome
    Rough ER
  24. Organelle where polymers are degraded so their subunits can be reused:

    golgi apparatus
    nucleolus
    rough ER
    Smooth ER
    Lysosome
    Lysosome
  25. The liquid portion inside a Eucaryotic cell that is not inside any of the organelles is called:

    the cytoplasm
    the cytosol
    the periplasm
    the protoplasm
    the endomembrane system
    The cytosol (the cytoplasm includes all organelles)
  26. Which of the following is/are part of the eukaryotic cytoplasm:

    ribosomes
    mitochondria
    cytosol
    two of these
    all of these
    all of these
  27. In eukaryotes, which cytoskeleton component forms the spindle apparatus that separates chromosomes during mitosis and meiosis?

    microfilaments
    intermediate filaments
    microtubules
    all of the above
    none of the above
    Microtubules (read in book pg 93)
  28. Energy comes from light electrons come from inorganic donors and carbon comes from CO2:

    chemoorganheterotroph
    photolithoautotroph
    photoorganoheterotroph
    chemolithoautotroph
    chemolithoheterotroph
    Photolithoautotroph
  29. Energy comes from organic molecules electrons come from organic donors and carbon comes from organic molecules:

    chemoorganheterotroph
    photolithoautotroph
    photoorganoheterotroph
    chemolithoautroph
    chemolithohetrotroph
    chemoorganheterotroph
  30. Energy comes from inorganic chemicals, electrons come from inorganic donors and carbon comes from organic molecules:

    chemoorganheterotroph
    photolithoautrtroph
    photoorganoheterotroph
    chemolithoautotroph
    chemolithoheterotroph
    chemolithoheterotroph
  31. Which of the following is NOT an example of a growth factor:

    an amino acid which the microbe cannot make
    a source of carbon
    a vitamin
    an enzyme cofactor which the microbe cannot make
    a purine or pyrimidine which the cell cannot make
    a source of carbon
  32. involves one molecule moving WITH the gradient and another molecule moving AGAINST the gradient:

    simple diffusion
    facilitated diffusion
    primary active transport
    secondary active transport
    group translocation
    secondary active transport (sodium with gradient sugar along for ride against its gradient)
  33. Used for large polar molecules that the microbe wants to come in and they do so by moving from high concentration to low concentration:

    simple diffusion
    facilitated diffusion
    primary active transport
    secondary active tranport
    group translocation
    facilitated diffusion
  34. Microbes in an iron-limited environment will secrete ________ externally to bind ferric iron:

    PTS System
    calcium
    hemoglobin
    alkaline phosphatase
    siderophores
    Siderophores
  35. A complex of nucleic acids and proteins, primarily histones, in the cell nucleus that stains readily with basic dyes and condenses to form chromosomes during cell division.
    chromotins
  36. a membrane enclosed structure within a cell, such as a mitochondrion, vacuole, or chloroplast, that performs a specific function.
    organelle
  37. a mucopolysaccharide outer shell enveloping certain bacteria
    capsule
  38. an organism of microscopic or submicroscopic size, especially a bacterium or protozoan
    microorganism
  39. an RNA molecule with catalytic activity
    ribozyme
  40. any substance NEEDED for microbial growth
    nutrient
  41. culture media that distinguish between groups of microorganisms based on differences in their growth and metabolic products
    differential media
  42. dyes that are anionic or have negatively charged groups such as carboxyls
    acid dyes
  43. organic compounds that must be supplied in the diet for growth because they cannot be synthesized
    growth factors
  44. the characteristic movement of a cell along a chemical concentration gradient either toward or away from the chemical stimulus
    chemotaxin
  45. the hypothesis that mitochondria and chloroplasts arose from bacterial endosymbionts of ancestral eukaryotic cells
    endosymbiotic hypothesis
  46. the lens in a microscope that first receives light rays from the object and forms the image
    objective
  47. the process in which a cell takes up solutes or particles by enclosing them in vesicles pinched off from its plasma membrane
    endocytosis
  48. The process in which the internal and external structures of cells and organism are preserved and fixed in position
    fixation
  49. The limitation on microbial YIELD (total cells resulting) at high nutrient levels is:

    the rate of protein synthesis
    the rate of DNA replication
    the saturation of the transport proteins for nutrient uptake
    the build up of toxic waste molecules
    all of the choices
    the build up of toxic waste molecules (Yield means the total number of cells at the end)
  50. Binary fission occurs at the maximum rate during the ______ phase:

    max
    exponential
    stationary
    death
    growth
    Exponential
  51. Which of the following is most likely NOT a reason why cells enter stationary phase?

    they are running out of an essential nutrient
    they are running out of oxygen
    the accumulation of toxic waste products
    their biochemical reactions are at equilibrium
    the population has reached a critical size limit
    Their biochemical reactions are at equilibrium
  52. Given a log phase bacterial culture with 10 cells and a generation time of 30 minutes, how many cells will there be in one hour?

    100
    200
    400
    800
    40
    40
  53. Autolysins are involved in?

    linking strands of peptidoglycan together
    linking peptidoglycan to the plasma membrane
    eliminating penicillin molecules
    helping penicillin enter the cell
    degrading the glycosidic bonds between peptidoglycan molecules
    Degrading the glycosidic bonds between peptidoglycan molecules
  54. The penicillin binding proteins:

    help the antibiotic enter the cell
    link peptidoglycan stands together
    help the antibiotic leave the cell
    stop the antibiotic from binding the ribosome
    two of the above are true
    link peptidoglycan strands together
  55. Balanced growth occurs during the _______ phase.

    lag
    exponential
    stationary
    death
    actually the growth can be balanced in any of these phases
    exponential
  56. the process by which all living cells. spores, and acellular entities are either destroyed or removed from an object or habitat is called:

    antisepsis
    disinfection
    sanitation
    sterilization
    decontamination
    sterilization
  57. The reduction of microbial population to levels deemed safe is called:

    disinfection
    antisepsis
    sterilization
    sanitization
    cidation
    sanitization
  58. Heating food and water to temperatures below boiling in order to control microbial growth is called:

    tyndallization
    autoclaving
    antisepsis
    processing
    pasteurization
    pasteurization
  59. When antiseptics and disinfectants are compared, disinfectants are generally:

    less toxic
    more toxic
    equally as toxic
    unpredictable in toxicity
    no generalization can be made
    more toxic
  60. From the heat killing experiment shown at the right, the D value would be:

    time of exposure      live cells
    1 minute                  1,000000.00
    2 minute                   100000.00
    3 minute                  10,000.00
    4 minute                   1,000.00
    5 minute                   100.00
    6 minute                     10.00
    7 minute                      1.0

    1,000,000 cells
    1 cell
    7 minutes
    1 minute
    zero since we need to kill all the bacteria
    1 minute
  61. which of the following influence(s) the efficiency of an antimicrobial agent?

    concentration of the agent
    duration of the exposure
    temperature
    all of the choices
    only two of the choices
    all of the choices
  62. TRUE or FALSE the main reason iodine works so well as an atiseptic is that it is also a strong disinfectant:

    true
    false
    • False
    • (iodine works well as an antiseptic which is why it does not work well as a disinfectant, its not strong enough)
  63. Which of the following metabolic processes can be classified as catabolic:

    breaking down glucose to pyruvate
    ADP + phosphate = pyruvate
    synthesizing proteins from amino acids
    a reaction with a positive delta G value
    two of the above
    breaking down glucose to pyruvate
  64. a reaction that requires an input of energy is ____:

    exergonic
    spontaneous
    anabolic
    two of the choices
    all three of the choices
    anabolic
  65. the synthesis of ATP from ADP and phosphate using the machinery of ATP synthase would include:

    photophosphorylation
    oxidative phosphorylation
    substrate-level phosphorylation
    all of the above
    two of the above
    • two of the above
    • oxidative phosphorylation
    • substrate-level phosphorylation
  66. if an enzme consists of a protein component and a non-protein component, the non protein component is referred as the:

    apoenzyme
    conenzyme
    holoenzyme
    substrate
    peptenzyme
    coenzyme
  67. Enzymes catalyze a reaction by:

    decreasing the amount of energy released by the reaction
    increasing the amount of energy released by the reaction
    decreasing the activation energy of the reaction
    increasing the activation energy of the reaction
    adding energy to the reaction
    decreasing the activation energy of the reaction
  68. Which of the following molecules has the greatest ability to accept electrons?

    oxygen
    nitrate
    pyruvate
    NADH
    Water
    Oxygen
  69. Which molecule often links catabolic and anabolic processes in the cell:

    pyruvate
    nitrate
    ATP
    Iron
    two of these do
    ATP
  70. which of the following is TRUE regarding the ATP generated in Glycolysis AND the TCA cycle?

    both require high energy electrons
    both require the enzyme ATP synthase
    Both are examples of substrate-level phosphorylation
    tow of these are true
    all three of these are true
    both are examples of substrate-level phosphorylation
  71. which of the following is NOT produced by glycolysis:

    pyruvate
    ATP
    NADH
    carbon dioxide
    actually all of these are produced by glycolysis
    carbon dioxide
  72. which of the following is NOT produced by the TCA cycle:

    co2
    GTP
    NADH
    carbon dioxide
    actually, all of these are produced by the TCA cycle
    actually all of these are produced by the TCA cycle

    (GTP -- form of ATP that is done in TCA cycle)
  73. which products of the TCA cycle transfer electrons to the electron transport chain?

    ATP and GTP
    FMN and NADPH
    oxygen and nitrogen
    NADH and NADPH
    NADH and FADH2
    NADH and FADH2
  74. what causes the rotor of ATP synthase to spin:

    PMF
    electron motion
    ATP formation
    NADH oxidation
    Oxygen taking electron
    PMF
  75. in fermentation the final electron acceptor is:

    oxygen
    endogenous
    exogenous
    usually pyruvate
    TWO of these
    TWO of these

    (endogenous, usually pyruvate)
  76. which of the following is TRUE of oxidative phosphorylation?

    generates ATP via enzymes in a pathway
    uses an endogenous electron acceptor
    involves an electron transport chain
    two of these are TRUE
    all three of these are TRUE
    Involves an electron transport chain
  77. TRUE or FALSE Many enzymes catalyzed reactions are freely reversible; however, some key steps require separate enzymes for the reverse reaction in order to provide for independent regulation of anabolic and catabolic pathways
    true
  78. which molecule usually acts as an electron donor in biosynthesis reactions?

    NADH
    NADPH
    FMN
    Pyruvate
    carbon dioxide
    NADPH
  79. ______ reactions are used to replace TCA cycle intermediates that have been used to provide carbon skeletons for amino acid biosynthesis

    Amphibolic
    metameric
    anabolic
    catabolic
    anaplerotic
    anaplerotic
  80. which of the following was important for Calvin to determine the pathway of the calvin cycle:

    he could purchase CO2 that was labeled with 14C
    he could separate molecules with chromatography
    he could determine the structure of the separated molecules
    all of these were important
    Two of these were important
    all of these were important
  81. TRUE or FALSE catabolism and anabolism use the same high energy electron activated carriers

    true
    false
    False
  82. which of the following is/are needed for the synthesis of large cellular molecules?

    a carbon source
    an energy source
    an electron source
    precursor metabolites
    all of these are needed
    all of these are needed
  83. a series of chemical reactions that occurs as part of the dark reactions of photosynthesis, in which carbon is broken away from gaseous carbon dioxide and fixed as inorganic carbon in compounds that are ultimately used to make sugars and starch as food
    Calvin cycle
  84. an organism that requires a salty environment
    halophile
  85. the rotating enzyme complex that couples ATP production to the flow of hydrogen ions
    ATP synthase
  86. a series of chemical reactions that occurs as part of the dark reactions of photosynthesis, in which carbon is broken away from gaseous carbon dioxide and fixed as organic carbon in compounds that are ultimately used to make sugars and starch as food
    calvin Cycle
  87. inhibiting the growth and reproduction of bacteria
    bacteriastatic
  88. an organism, such as  bacterium, that can live in the absence of atmospheric oxygen
    anaerobe
  89. the plateau of the growth curve after exponential growth, during which cell number remains constant
    stationary phase
  90. the material or substance on which an enzyme acts
    substrate
  91. a substance that causes or accelerates a chemical reaction without itself being affected
    catalyst
  92. making something free of germs as by sterilizing
    sanitizing/sanitization
  93. the spontaneous formation of a complex structure from its component molecules without the aid of special enzymes or factors
    self assembly
  94. the amount of energy that must be put into a system in order to cause a chemical process to  occur
    activation energy
  95. a substance that inhibits the growth and reproduction of disease-causing microorganisms
    antiseptic
  96. an ATP-generating metabolic process that occurs in nearly all living cells in which glucose in converted in a series of steps to pyruvic acid
    glycolysis
  97. What was the conclusion of very's experiment (1944)

    That protease destoryed the transforming principle
    That lipidase destroyed the transforming principle
    That DNAse destroyed the transforming principle
    That RNAse destroyed the transforming principle
    Two of these are correct
    That DNAse destroyed the transforming principle
  98. In Griffith's Transfomration experiment (1928), what became transformed

    S-Bacteria were transformed to R-bacteria
    Virulent bacteria were transformed to non-virulent bacteria
    R-bacteria were transformed to S-bacteria
    DNA was transformed to RNA
    32P was transformed into 35S
    R-Bacteria were transformed to S-bacteria
  99. If DNA froma particular species contains 30% Adenine, how much Guanidine does it contain?

    10%
    15
    20
    25%
    30%
    20%
  100. Transcription produces which of the following

    Bi-directional DNA
    transfer RNA
    Amino acids
    Semi-conservative DNA
    Proteins
    Transfer RNA
  101. Which of the following is TRUE in a DNA double helix

    the two DNA strands are complementary
    Purines pair with purines
    Thymine pairs with cytosine
    the sugars in the backbone are ribose
    Two of these are TRUE
    The two DNA strands are complementary
  102. The fact that replication forks each contain a leading and a lagging strands means that DNA replication is

    bi-directional
    asymmetrical
    processive
    semi-conservative
    error prone
    asymmetrical
  103. For the single strand of DNA 5' -CCGGTTAA- 3' what would be the opposite strand

    5' TTAACCGG 3'
    5' CCTTAAGG 3'
    5' CCUUAAGG 3'
    5' GGAATTCC 3'
    5' GGAAUUCC 3'
    5' TTAACCGG 3'
  104. The region of DNA at which RNA polymerase binds to start transcription is the

    Leader
    Promoter
    coding
    activator binding site
    origin
    Promoter
  105. Which of the following is NOT TRUE of RNA molecules

    The molecules are single-stranded
    Nucleotides include adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil
    The sugar found in the neucleotides is ribose
    They are very stable and last a long time
    actually all of these are TRUE
    They are very stable and last a long time
  106. The genetic code is said to be _____ because more than one codon can specify an amino acid

    ambiguous
    degenerate
    multiplicative
    specific
    universal
    degenerate
  107. _______ molecules code for proteins

    tRNA
    mRNA
    rRNA
    all of these
    two of these
    mRNA
  108. Which tRNA binding site is the entry point for tRNAs in the ribosome

    the A site
    the P site
    the E site
    the I site
    the RF site
    • the A site
    • (P is protein site, E is exit site)
  109. TRUE or FALSE the stop codons do not specify amino acids but the start codon does
    True
  110. Which of the following is TRUE regarding bacterial transcription

    RNA polymerase binds to the promoter and waits for sigma factor to start transcribing
    Sigma factor binds to the promoter and waits for the polymerase to start transcribing
    Sigma factor must be released to ener elongation
    RNA polymerase starts from a primer made by the primase
    RNA polymease binds to DNA only with sigma factor
    Sigma factor must be released to enter elongation (what RNA polymerasse does - transcribing) sigma factor is first
  111. THe main reason why DNA replication has to be asymmetrical is that

    DNA polymerase proofreads
    DNA polymerase is a 3' to 5' nucleotide polymerase
    DNA polymerase requires a primer
    DNA polymerase uses the 3' hydroxyl group from the nucleotide just added
    two of these are correct
    DNA polymerase used the 3' hydroxyl group from the nucleotide just added (asymmetrical = leading strand lagging strand)
  112. During replication the 2 strands of the DNA molecule are unwound from one another by enzymes called

    ligases
    unwindases
    RNA polymerase
    helicases
    primases
    helicases
  113. The strand of DNA double helix from which RNA polymerase reads is called the

    transcription strand
    sense strand
    translation strand
    template strand
    copy strand
    template strand
  114. TRUE or FALSE both the Lac and Trp operons are under negative control
    True ( Lac is inducable and Trp is repressible)
  115. When bound to the DNA the repressor protein usually prevents attachment of the RNA polymerase to the

    operon
    operator
    promoter
    regulator
    activiator
    promoter (key word is repressor)
  116. ----promoter-----operator----Gene A----Gene B
    This presents a particular situation for gene control choose the answer from below:

    negative transcriptional control
    positive transcriptional control
    inducible gene
    repressible gene
    TWO of the above
    Negative transcriptional control
  117. An activator protein that cannot bind to the activator binding site if a particular substance is present in the bacterial cell

    negative transcriptional control
    positive transcriptional control
    inducible gene
    repressible gene
    TWO of the above
    • TWO of the above
    • positive transcriptional control
    • repressible gene
  118. The presence of a particular substance in the bacterial cell causes an operon to be transcribed

    negative transcriptional control
    positive transcriptional control
    inducible gene
    repressible gene
    TWO of the above
    inducible gene
  119. The tryptophan operon co-repressor _______

    is an allosteric protein
    is a DNA sequence
    is required for production of the mRNA encoded by the tryptophan operon
    is important for the production of the tryptophan repressor
    is tryptophan
    is tryptophan
  120. Thymine Dimers are fixed by

    base excision repair
    nucleotide excision repair
    mismatch repair
    proofreading
    actually, they aren't fixed
    nucleotide excision repair
  121. Mutations allowing for substitution of one purine for another or one pyrimidine for another is called a

    transversion mutation
    transition mutation
    frameshift mutation
    silent mutation
    nonsense mutation
    transition mutation (purine - pyrymidine)

    (transversion mutation is purine -purine or pyrimidine - pyrimidine)
  122. What type of mutation converts a codon for one amino acid, to a stop codon

    silent mutation
    missense mutation
    nonsense mutation
    frameshift mutation
    reverse mutation
    nonsense mutation
  123. which type of mutation involves a single base substitution that changes a codon for one amino acid into a codon for another

    silent mutation
    missense mutation
    nonsense mutation
    point mutation
    two of the above
    two of the above (missense mutation, point mutation)
  124. When bacterial genes are transferred to another bacterium by a virus, it is called

    conjugation
    transformation
    transduction
    transfection
    endogenation
    transduction (side to side duct)
  125. Lysine auxotrophs

    Produce their own lysine, and can only grow on media without lysine
    produce their own lysine, and can only gow onmedia with lysine added
    shut off the Lys operon instead of turning it on
    are unable to produce lysine, and can only grow on media without lysine
    are unable to produce lysine, and can only grow on media with lysine added
    are unable to produce lysine and can only grow on media with lysine added
  126. complementary DNA (cDNA) molecules are produced using

    restriction endonucleases
    RNA polymerase
    DNA ligase
    Reverse transcriptase
    RNA polymerase
    reverse transcriptase
  127. A DNA molecule used to carry a foreign gene into a host organism is called a

    plasmid
    vector
    probe
    blot
    phage
    vector
  128. which of the following best describes the basis for separation of DNA fragments during agarose gel electrophoresis

    the fragments with the highest percentage of G and C will migrate fastest
    the fragments with the highest percentage of A and T will migrate fastest
    the largest fragments will migrate fastest
    the smallest fragments will migrate fastest
    small and large fragment will migrate at equal rates
    the smallest fragments will migrate fastest
  129. the purpose of the southern blotting technique is to

    amplify fragments of DNA
    cleave DNA into small fragments
    construct a plasmid vector
    detect specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA molecules
    replace defective genes with genes that work better
    detect specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA molecules
  130. in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), each cycle increases the DNA copy number

    Linearly
    exponentially
    randomly
    the copy number remains the same
    the copy number decreases over time
    exponentially
  131. a mode of gene transfer in prokaryotes in which a piece of free DNA is taken up by a cell and integrated into the its genome
    transformation
  132. a polymerase that catalyzed the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template
    RNA polymerase
  133. an enzyme that joins two DNA fragments together through the formation of a new phosphodiester bond
    DNA ligase
  134. class of RNA molecules that transport amino acids to ribosomes for incorporation into a polypeptide undergoing syntheses
    tRNA
  135. the newly synthesized DNA strand that is oriented away from the replication fork and is made in small fragments that are later joined together
    lagging strand
  136. the process by which the genetic message carried by mRNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides with the aid of ribosomes and other cell constituents
    translation
  137. the RNA that is the structural and catalytic part of a ribosome
    rRNA
  138. a mechanism for the the regulation of transcription of some bacterial operons by aminoacyl-tRNAs
    attenuation
  139. the segment of DNA to which the repressor protein binds; it controls the expression of the genes adjacent to it
    operator
  140. a permanent heritable change in the genetic material
    mutation
  141. the typical form of an organism, strain, gene, or characteristic as it occurs in nature
    wile type
  142. a short labeled nucleic acid segment complementary in base sequence to part of another nucleic acid, which is used to identify or isolate the particular nucleic acid from a mixture through its ability to bind specifically with the target nucleic acid
    probe
  143. enzymes produced by host cells that cleave virus DNA at specific points and thus protect the cell from virus infection; they are used in carrying out genetic engineering
    Restriction enzyme
  144. to make identical copies of a DNA sequence
    clone
  145. In which way are viruses like LIVING organisms

    they evolve
    they consist of cells
    they have their own metabolism
    they multiply on their own
    none of these
    they evolve
  146. TRUE or FALSE bacteriophages grown on a lawn of bacteria form individual colonies which can be counted to determine how many viruses are in the culture
    false
  147. viral spike proteins are involved in

    replication
    lysis
    attachment
    lysogeny
    all of these
    attachment
  148. bacteriophages that can exhibit lysogenic cycles are called _____

    temperate phages
    virulent phages
    lytic phages
    lytigate phages
    prophages
    temperate phages
  149. eukaryotic viruses enter host cells through which of the following mechanisms

    fusion of the viral envelope with he host cell membrane
    entry by endocytosis
    injection of nucleic acid
    all of the above
    TWO of the above
    all of the above
  150. which of the following virus types would replicate using an RNA dependant RNA polymerase

    dsRNA
    retroviruses
    ssDNA
    dsDNA
    TWO of these
    dsRNA
  151. viral capsid protein subunits are called

    auxomers
    elastomers
    protomers
    viromers
    icosahendrans
    protomers
  152. for double stranded RNA viruses, which type of enzyme is used in the production of more genomes

    DNA dependant DNA polymerase
    DNA dependant RNA polymerase
    RNA dependant DNA polymerase
    RNA dependant RNA polymerase
    Reverse transcriptase
    RNA dependant RNA polymerase
  153. what type of enzyme would produce the genomes for retroviruses

    reverse transcriptase
    DNA dependant RNA polymerase
    DNA dependant DNA polymerase
    RNA dependant RNA polymerase
    RNA dependant DNA polymerse
    DNA dependant RNA polymerse
  154. single-stranded viruses that have RNA genomes which are the same sequence as the mRNA they produce are called:

    negative-strand viruses
    positive-strand viruses
    complimentary viruses
    bacteriophages
    proviruses
    positive-strand viruses
  155. the envelope of herpesviruses come from which of the following host structures:

    Plasma membrane
    golgi appartus
    mitochondria
    endoplasmic reticulum
    neucleus
    nucleus
  156. TRUE or FALSE the baltimore system classifies viruses primarily on size and capsid symmetry
    • False
    • (capsid symmetry - way it looks)
  157. A _______ infection is one in which the virus quits reproducing and remains dormant for a period before becoming active again

    persistant
    latent
    slow virus
    lytic
    productive
    latent
  158. attachment of the HIV virus to its host cell requires

    specific surface proteins on the HIV virus
    specific receptor molecules on the host cell
    nucleic acid and protein interactions
    specific surface proteins on the HIV virus and specific receptor molecules on the host cell
    reverse transcriptase
    specific surface proteins on the HIV virus and specific receptor molecules on the host cell
  159. a bacterial cell carrying a prophage is called a

    lysogen
    infective agent
    virulent agent
    temperate bacteria
    lytic agent
    lysogen
  160. which of the following MUST carry an RNA-dependant RNA-polymerase in teh neucleocapsid

    double-stranded RNA viruses
    double-stranded DNA viruses
    negative-strand RNA viruses
    all of the above
    two of the above
    two of the above
  161. which of the following would not necessarily be needed to complete the life cycle of an RNA virus

    RNA-dependant RNA-polymerase
    DNA-dependant RNA polymerase
    ribosomes
    Self Assembly
    all of these are necessary
    DNA-dependant RNA polymerase
  162. Which of the following is used to help protect the lungs from infection

    turbulent airflow deposits airborne pathogens on sticky mucosal surfaces
    the mucociliary escalator moves trapped organisms away from the lungs by ciliary action
    coughing and sneezing forcefully expel organisms away from the lungs
    all of the choices
    two of the choices
    All of the choices
  163. Phagocytic leukocytes that circulate in the blood and migrate to sites of infection are called

    esonophils
    neutrophils
    T-cells
    B-cells
    basophils
    neutrophils
  164. _________ is a process by which microorganisms or othr particles are coated by serum components, preparing them for recognition and ingestion by phagocytic cells

    Phagocytosis
    Inflammation
    clonal selection
    Opsonization
    cytokine processing
    Opsonization
  165. A fever enhances the nonspecific immune response by

    stimulating leukocytes to destroy microbes
    enhancing specific activity of the immune system
    decreasing the amount of iron available to microbes
    enhancing biostasis
    All of these
  166. Blood cell development occurs in the bone marrow of mammals during the process of

    hemolysis
    hematopoesis
    hemostasis
    clonal selection
    diapaesis
    hematopoesis
  167. which of the following immune system cells bind microbial PAMPs leading to phagocytosis of the microbial cell

    Granulocytes
    mast cells
    basophils
    lymphocytes
    macrophages
    macrophages
  168. pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) include

    lipopolysaccharide
    peptidoglycan
    phospholipids
    all of the choices
    two of the choices
    two of the choices
  169. which type of immunity is the result of an individual developing his or her own immune response to a microbial infection

    artificially acquired active immunity
    artificially acquired passive immunity
    naturally acquired artificial immunity
    naturally acquired passive immunity
    naturally acquired active immunity
    naturally acquired active immunity
  170. circulating immunoglobulins are part of 

    the complement system
    cellular immunity
    humoral immunity
    innate immunity
    none of these
    • humoral immunity
    • (immunoglobulins are antibodies)
  171. T-cells attack

    host cells that have been parasitized by microorganisms
    transplanted tissue cells from one host to another
    cancer cells
    macrophages that have become infected
    all of the choices
    all of the choices
  172. B cells that are actively producing antibodies are called

    memory cells
    immunoglobulin cells
    activiated cells
    plasma cells
    stem cells
    plasma cells
  173. Class I major histocompatibility complex molecules are are found on

    skin cells
    antigen-presenting cells
    muscle cells
    all of the above
    two of the above
    all of the above
  174. The humoral immune response differs from the cell-mediated immune response in that only in the humoral immune response is there

    secretion of antibody
    a mature lymphocyte
    a clonal selection mechanism
    the development of memory cells
    actually, all of these are only found in the humoral immune response
    secretion of antibody (cytokines being released)

    • humoral immune (B cells) sends things out to float around (communicator); sends out cytokines (released when virus comes in to the body) goes to neighbor cells on alert for virus
    • T lymphocytes are cell mediated response - has to actually attach to antigen with attach MHC
  175. which of the following is a characteristic associated with secondary antibody responses

    shorter lag phase
    lower antibody amount produced
    lower antibody afinity
    all of the choices
    two of the above choices
    shorter lag phase
  176. an individual with O blood type can safely receive blood from which of the following donors

    Type O donor
    type A donor
    Type B donor
    Type AB donor
    All of the above
    Type O Donor (universal; have zero)
  177. TRUE or FALSE all the antibodies released from a particular B Lymphocyte will have the same antigen
    true (clone-just making copies of itself so same)
  178. The protein shell that surrounds a virus particle
    capsid
  179. The process by which an antigen selexts the best fitting B-cell receoptor, activating that B cell, resulting in the synthesis of antibody and clonal expansion
    clonal selection
  180. of viruses with RNS genomes that carry the enyzme reverse transcriptase and form a DNA copy of their genome during their life cycle
    retro virus
  181. of or relating to an immune response by the body against one of its own cells or tissues
    auto immunity
  182. immunity resulting from a cell-mediated immune response allso called Cell-mediated immunity
    cellular immunity
  183. any of several regulatory proteins, such as the interleukins and lymphokines, that are released by cells of the immune system and act as intercellular mediators in teh generation of an immune response
    cytokine
  184. an infectious agent consisting only of protein
    prion
  185. an area of the antigen molecule that stimulates the production of, and combines with, specific antibodies; also known as the antigenic determinant site
    epitope
  186. a group of plasma proteins that plays a major role in an animal's defense immune response
    complement antibody
  187. a gene whose activity is associated with conversion of normal cells to cancer cells
    oncogene
  188. a foreign (nonself) substance to which lymphocytes respond
    antigen
  189. a double-stranded nucleic acid that is formed from a single-stranded viral genome and used to synthesize new copies of the genome
    replicative form
  190. a complete virus particle that represents the extracellular phase of the virus life cycle
    virion
  191. a clear, often round patch of lysed cells in an otherwise opaque layer of a bacteria or cell culture
    plaque

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