Exam 4 content part 1

The flashcards below were created by user ssoucie on FreezingBlue Flashcards.

  1. What organism causes TB?
    Acid Fast Bacillus- Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
  2. How is TB transmitted?
    person to person by droplet in the air or sneezing
  3. How does Tb spread to other organs of the body?
    by blood or lymphatic system, if immune system is compromised
  4. What is the name of the test performed to test for TB?
    Intradermal PPD test (Mantoux)
  5. How much PPD is injected for a TB test?
    0.1 ML - intradermally
  6. When is a TB test read for results?
    48-72 hrs after PPD is injected
  7. What determines a positive TB reading?
    a RAISED area, greater than 15mm
  8. Peripheral Neuropathy can be a problem for those who are malnourished, have diabetes, or alcoholics while taking this medication?
  9. What should be administerd if an adverse reaction to isoniazid occurs?
    Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
  10. This particular medication turns the body fluids orange, as well as possibly turning soft contact lenses orange?
  11. With Cystic Fibrosis, which enzyme is deficient?
    Pancreatic Enzyme
  12. With Cystic Fibrosis, what is elevated in your sweat concentrations?
    Sodium and Chloride
  13. Associated with respiratory
    Stricture = ?
  14. Associated with Respiratory
    Mucus Production =
    Bronchitis & Cystic Fibrosis
  15. Associated with Respiratory
    Constriction =
  16. TB is spread by _____ when an infected person coughs, sneezes, speaks or sings?
  17. True or False...
    TB is easy to catch?
    False - it is not easy to catch - it requires hours with the infected person to catch the disease
  18. If a person catches TB, a local inflammatory process occurs, causing what to form?
    A Granulomatous Lesion
  19. What happens to the TB organism if a granulomatous lesion is formed in a person with a healthy immune system?
    The lesions are walled off and person is free of disease
  20. What happens to the TB organism if a granulomatous lesion is formed in a person with an unhealthy immune system?
    The disease cannot be contained and spreads
  21. What is considred an active case of TB?
    That the disease/ lesions have spread in the body to other organisms
  22. True or False...
    If TB is closed off in the lung- and not spreading - its considered to no longer be alive?
    False - even though its walled off inthe lung, its considered dormant - but still alive...
  23. What TB is this considered?
    -Has been infected, but no active disease
    - Can reactivate later if not treated
    Latent TB
  24. What TB is this considered?
    Has initial infection- may or may not be active
    Primary / Active TB
  25. What TB is this considered?
    Latent disease that becomes active when the immune system is surpressed
    Reactivation TB
  26. Why are there two seperate PPD test a week apart to test for TB?
    Because a delayed hypersensitivity could occur
  27. What size reading is positive for a patient with symptoms of TB or someone who has come in close contact with someone with the disease?
    positive if > 5-9mm
  28. Does a positive skin test mean you have TB?
    No - it only shows poitive antibodies to TB, must have a sputum culture for positive ID
  29. What size of a raised area after a PPD skin test - for TB, is considered a positive for everyone?
    positive if >15mm
  30. What is rapid indicator test for TB?
    Sputum Smear
  31. A definitive diagnosis for TB takes how long?
    4-8 wks
  32. What test for TB, usually shows dense lesions and possible cavity formation?
    Chest X-Ray
  33. If using a Chest X-Ray to diagnose TB, what are you looking for?
    Dense lesions & possible cavity formation
  34. What should happen if a positive skin test occurs or a close household contact with someone with active TB-  to not spread TB?
    Prophylactic treatment starts
  35. What is the medication for prophylactic treatment for TB?
    Isoniazid - 300mg/ day for 6-12 months
  36. If given Isoniazid for prophylactic treatment of TB, how long is this usually given?

    and what dose?
    6-12 months

    300 mg/ day
  37. What type of patients is taking isoniazid contradicted in?
    Liver Disease
  38. A newly diagnosed TB patients initial drug therapy regimen is what?
    4- oral anitubercular drugs daily for 2 months

    Isoniazid, Rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
  39. What therapy is followed after the inital newly diagnosed TB regimen of 4 oral drugs daily for 2 months?
    another 4 months of Isoniazid and Rifampin
  40. If the patient with TB has HIV, how are they treated?
    Treated with Isoniazid and Rifampin for at least 9 months
  41. Single drug therapy for TB patients leads to?
    Drug resistance
  42. Since compliance is a must for a patient with active TB, who oversees that the patient is compliant with taking their medication?
    DOTS (Directly Observed Treatment Short-Course)
  43. What is the responisbility of DOTS?
    They oversee the compliance of the patient taking their meds with active TB, to prevent spreading of the disease
  44. What is required if the drug has a resistant strain to TB?
    Susceptability testing is done to determine drug resistance before starting therapy
  45. Virtually all patients that are compliant to taking their medications, have a negative sputum cluture after how long?
    3 months
  46. If a Tb patient is in the hospital, what type of isolation room should they be in?
    Negative Airflow room
  47. What type of mask should be used around a TB patient?
    Hepa Filter mask
  48. True or False...
    as long as you have on a mask around a TB patient, you will not get the disease because your mounth and nose is covered?
    False - it must be a Hepa Filtered mask
  49. How does someone get cystic fibrosis?
    Its a autosomal recessive disorder - meaning- both parents have to have the Gene for a child to get the disease
  50. This is the most common LETHAL disease in Caucasian Americans
    Cystic Fibrosis
  51. What respiratory disease does Cystic Fibrosis cause in early childhood and early adulthood
  52. What is the consistency of the secretions in a patient with cystic fibrosis?
    thick and sticky (instead of thin) and tend to plug up tubes, ducts, and passageways
  53. What is often the 1st sign of cystic fibrosis in newborns?
    Meconium Ileus
  54. Failure to thrive (grow) is a classic sign of what?
    Cystic Fibrosis in new borns
  55. Parents first notice a salty taste on their childs skin is a classic sign of what?
    Cystic Fibrosis
  56. Poor weight gain, depsite the voracious appetite and clubbing of the finger tips and toes are signs of what disease?
    Cystic Fibrosis
  57. When testing for cystic fibrosis and doing a Pilocarpine Iontophoresis Sweat Chloride Test- What is a positive diagnosis for cystic fibrosis?
    Test shows elevated chloride levels
  58. What test are ran when testing for cystic fibrosis show a patient has hypoxemia?
    ABG & SaO2 levels
  59. What type of medication is used for a patient with cystic fibrosis to help them breathe from the reduced lung capacity and sputum build up in their lugs?
  60. How should someone with cystic fibrosis take their antibiotics? and why?
    With meals - to absorb the nutrients
  61. What is the only treatment for Cystic Fibrosis, but yet is not a guarantee?
    Lung Transplant
  62. What two diseases could use the same nursing diagnosis as they are nearly similar in their signs and symptoms?
    Cystic Fibrosis & COPD
  63. Cystic fibrosis patients should be on what kind of diet?
    High calorie - bc they tire out quick and need the proper nutrition since not taking in much food
  64. At what age is someone with cystic fibrosis vailable for a lung transplant?
  65. RSV - Respiratory Syncytial Virus - subsides in what part of the lungs?
    The lower repiratory tract
  66. How is RSV spread? And how long does the virus live on contaminate surfaces?
    • - Droplet
    • - Lives for hours on contaminated surfaces
  67. Who is at risk for serious RSV infection?
    • - Infants < 6 months old
    • - Infants premature
    • - Children with weakend immune system
    • - Older adults, epecially with COPD or CHF
  68. When do symptoms typically occur in patients with RSV?
    - 4-6 days after exposure
  69. What is the peak period for RSV infection?
    48-72 hours
  70. A child who's nasals are flaring, has tachypnea, coughing, and body is contracting, would rather sit up than lie down, and mild cyanosis is propbably experiencing what?
  71. What test are ran to diagnose RSV?
    • - Nasal Washing
    • - CBC & Chest X-Ray
    • - Pulse Ox
  72. How is a patient treated with a severe case of RSV?
    - Hospitalized, IV Fluids, Bronchodialators, antibiotics, and placed on droplet isolation
  73. Is RSV a Viral or Bacterial Infection?
    Viral - so, an antibiotic used would be used to treat the symptoms, not the virus
  74. Croup is an infection in what part of the lungs?
    Upper Respiraory Tract
  75. This is a severe inflammation & obstruction of the upper respiratory tract?
  76. This is a an upper respiratory tract infection, that usually occurs in Fall to Spring, that is an abstructive airway disease that affects young children?
  77. When season does Croup most often occur?
    Fall to Spring
  78. A loud, harsh cough, similar to a barking seal, and often wakes a child at night is a classic symptom of what?
  79. Inspiratory Stridor and Marked retractions in a child is common with this virus?
  80. What are some home treatments that are helpful in respirations with someone with Croup?
    Humidifiers, moist steamy bathroom, cool air, sit child upright
  81. If child goes to ER for symptoms of Croup, what treatments will they likely do in the hospital?
    Racemic Epinephrine (Nebulizer) and Corticosteroids
  82. What can occur if a childs gag reflex is stimulated or when the child is crying is they have Croup?
    Laryngospasm with a total occlusion
  83. What are common drugs for upper repiratory disorders?
    • Antihistamines
    • * Remember the "ine" family
  84. Tuberculosis is transmitted via which route?
    A- Direct Contact
    B- Respiratory Secretions
    C- Sweat
    D- Saliva
    B- Repiratory Secretions
  85. Cystic Fibrosis is known for causing damage of the respiratory system. What other system is significantly affected by Cystic Fibrosis?
    A- Neurologic
    B- Renal
    C- Gastrointestinal
    D- Skin
    C- Gastrointestinal
  86. Croup involves which portion of the respiratory tract? (select all that apply)
    A- Alveoli
    B- Bronchioles
    C- Trachea
    D- Esophagus
    E- Bronchi
    F- Larynx
    • C- Trachea
    • E- Bronchi
    • F- Larynx
  87. RSV occurs only in children. True or False?
  88. Which precautions need to be taken to avoid transmission of cystic fibrosis?
    A- Droplet
    B- Standard
    C- Genetic
    D- Hepa Mask
    C- Genetic
  89. The nurse evaluating a tuberculin test result 72 hrs after it was administered notes an area of induration 9m in diameter. What additional information would indicate to the nurse that this is a positive result?
    A- The patient resides in a long term care facility
    B- The patient was born is Southeast Asia
    C- The patient has HIV
    D- The patient is an injection drug user
    C- The patient has HIV
Card Set:
Exam 4 content part 1
2013-04-20 21:25:10

Ventilation Disorders & Common Respiratory Disorders
Show Answers: