anesthesia

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vanessasoto
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215228
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anesthesia
Updated:
2013-04-22 23:21:56
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Final questions anesthesia
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multiple choice questions from tests
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  1. The peripheral pain receptors are also called

    A) Caloriceptors
    B) Propriceptors
    C) Nociceptors
    D) Ouchiceptors
    C) Nociceptors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. The inflammatory mediators that accumulate at the sight of tissue injury cause an amplification of the pain response at the site of injury. With the nerve threshold lowered, even a light touch can evoke a strong painful sensation...this peripheral sentitization is often referred to as

    A) Analgesia
    B) Hyperalgesia
    C) Hypoalgesia
    D) Anesthesia
    B) Hyperalgesia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. The net effect of _____ or_____ is that innocent sentations are perceived as pain and what should be mildly painful sensation are perceived to be ver painful

    A) Transduction, Modulation
    B) Desensitization, minimization
    C) Central sensitization, Wind up
    D) Hypoalgesia, Analgesia
    C) Central senitization, Wind up
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. The four major steps, in proper sequence, in the "pain process" are

    A) transmission, transduction, preception, modulation
    B) transduction, transmission, perception, modulation
    C) modulation, transduction, transmission, perception
    D) transduction, transmission, modulation, perception
    D) transduction, transmission, modulation, perception
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Which part of the central nervous system is responsible for the perception of pain?

    A) brain stern
    B) cerebral cortex
    C) spinal cord
    D) hypothalamus
    B) cerebral cortex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. The use of multiple analgesic agents that act at different sites along the pain pathway is referred as:

    A) multimodal therapy
    B) constant rate infusion
    C) malpractive
    D) allodynia
    A) multimodal therapy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Anesthetic agents are considered to block which step of the pain process?

    A) perception
    B) transduction
    C) transmission
    D) modulation
    A) perception
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. NSAIDs that are ____ tend to have fewer side effects

    A) administration transdermally
    B) injectable only
    C) Cox 1 selective
    D) Cox 2 selective
    D) Cox 2 selective
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. ______is an excellent choice for canine patients inadequately controlled on NSAIDs alone and for those intolerant of NSAIDs

    A) Meloxicam
    B) Deracoxib
    C) Tramadol
    D) Carprofen
    C) Tramadol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Two drugs that are being used long term more frequently to help control chronic pain by decreasing wind up and combating hyperalgesia are:

    A) Amantadine and Gabapentin
    B) Fentanyl and Ketamine
    C) Amitryptyline and Aminophylline
    D) Morphine and Salicylic acid
    A) Amantadine and Gapapentin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Which of the following drugs is absorbed well transmucosally in cats

    A) Fentanyl
    B) Lidocaine
    C) Tramadol
    D) Buprenorphine
    D) Buprenorphine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Which of the two following types of patches used to provide analgesia can, and should be cut to size

    A) Fentanyl
    B) Lidocaine
    B) Lidocaine
  13. Based on the following drugs affinity for certain receptors, which of the following drugs could be administered for "reversing" the effects of morphine or fentanyl if adverse consequences arise, while still maintaining a level of anagesia?

    A) Tramadol
    B) Hydrocodone
    C) Ketamine
    D) Buprenorphine
    D) Buprenorphine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. What two classes of drugs are known to have synergistic effects making their use together an excellent choice for providing improved quality and duration of analgesia?

    A) Alpha 2, opiods
    B) Alpha 2, Benzodiazepines
    C) Alpha 2, phenothiazepines
    D) Alpha 2, fluroquinolones
    A) Alpha 2, opiods
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Why is the use of anticholinergics to decrease the bradycardic effects of Alpha 2 agonists not currently recommended?

    A) Elevating the heart rate with  the Alpha 2 Agoinst on board will decrease renal perfusion
    B) Elevating the heart rate in the presence of high systemic vascular resistance can result in increase cardiac workload and myocardial oxygen consumption
    C) Anticholinergics can cause a partial reversal of Alpha 2 agoints resulting in poor sedation
    D) Anticholinergics can profoundly prolong the sedatory effects of an alpha 2 agoint
    B) Elevating the heart rate in the presence of high systemic vascular resistance can result in increase cardiac workload and myocardial oxygen consumption
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. if a severe bradycardia does develop in a patient that has received an Alpha 2 agonist is best treated by:

    A) Administration of beta blocker
    B) Atropine or Glycopyolate administration
    C) Bolus of IV fluids
    D) Administering a reversal agent
    D) Administering a reversal agent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which of the following is not true about Alpha 2 agoinst

    A) Arousal and the potential for biting can occur even with seemingly heavy sedation

    B) Extreme stress may cause some patients to resiste the seative effects of Alpha 2 agonist. Providing some quiet time in the darkened room may facilitate the dugs effect

    C) intramuscular administration is best achieved by injection into the umbar apaxial muscles or cranial thigh muscle group ( to avoid delayed or reduced effectiveness if inadvertently injected intrafascially in other muscle groups)

    D) The use of Alpha 2 agonist usually required higher doses of induction and maintenance drugs to combat the profound bradycardia
    D) the use of Alpha 2 agoinst usually required higher dose of induction and maintenance drugs to combat the profound bradycardia
  18. Blood pressure can be measured either 

    A) directly
    B) indirectly

    which approach is by far the most frequently used?
    B) indirectly
  19. For a ver small animal, which method of BP measurement would provide the most accurate results?

    A) Oscillometric
    B) Doppler
    B) Doppler
  20. Oscillometric instruments (like our Surgivet Monitors) routinely provide the following information

    A) Diastolic only
    B) Diastolic and Systolic BP
    C) Diastolic, Systolic and mean aterial pressure
    D) Systolic BP
    C) Diastolic, Systolic and mean aterial pressure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. In an awake animal, what systolic BP measurements would be considered normal

    A) 55 to 100 cm h2o
    B) 110 to 140 mm hg
    C) 110 to 140 cm h2o
    D) 55 to100 mm hg
    B) 110 to 140 mm hg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. What diseases, especially in cats, are famous for causing increased BP thus warranting BP monitoring in these patients?

    A) Hyperthyroidism
    B) B and C
    C) Renal DZ
    D) Ear mites
    E) all of the above
    B) B and C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Which blood pressure measuring modality

    A) Ocillometric
    B) Doppler

    requires the use of ultrasound gel placed over the artery?
    B) Doppler
  24. Hypoventilation leads to ________

    A) Decreased end-tidal CO2, also called hypercapnea
    B) Increased end-tidal CO2, also called hypercapnea
    C) Increased end-tidal CO2, also referred to as hypoxemia
    D) Decreased end-tidal O2, also called hypoxia
    B) Increased end-tidal CO2, also called Hypercapnea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. A happy end-tidal CO2 level in an anesthetized patient would be

    A) 20
    B) 85
    C) 40
    D) 93 or above
    C) 40
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. one of the most common causes of increasing end-tidal CO2 is

    A) Low blood pressure
    B) Hypoventilation
    C) Hyperventilation
    D) Profoundly decreased cardiac output
    B) Hypoventilation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. In an anesthetized  animal, a happy inspired CO2 level would be

    A) 0
    B) 40
    C) 93 or above
    D) 20 or less
    A) 0
  28. What effect on inpired CO2 level would exhausted soda lime granules have

    A) It would increase inspired CO2 concentration
    B) It would decrease inspired CO2 concentration
    A) It would increase inspired CO2 concentration
  29. If your one way flutter valve on the exhaust side of the breathing circuit (located next to pop off valve) was stuck shut with mucus or other debris, what effect on inspired CO2 would it have?

    A) It would increase inspired CO2 level
    B) It would decrease inspired CO2 level
    A) it would increase inspired CO2 level
  30. Of the following local anesthetics which are most commonly use for nerve blocks and other regional anesthesia procedures

    A) Tetracaine
    B) Marcaine (Bupivaicaine)
    C) Yuenglingaine
    D) A and C
    E) Lidocaine
    F) All of the above
    D) A and C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. What two drugs hasve been shown to effectively double the analgesia duration when combined with lidocaine and/or bupivacaine

    A) Diazapam
    B) A and B
    C) Buprenorphine
    D) Morphine
    E) Acepormazine
    F) All of the above
    B) A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. The "ring block" is most commonly performed to provide analgesia for which surgical procedure

    A) Seline neuter
    B) tail amputation
    C) Feline spay
    D) Declaw
    D) Declaw
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. different local anesthetics have vary onset times (when the frug starts to work after injestion) and length of duration of analgesia provided. Which statement below is most accurate?

    A) Lidocaine and Bupivacaine are often use together because bupivacaine kicks in immediately but doesnt last very lone while lidocaine has a delayed onset time but an extended duration of analgesia

    B) Lidocaine and bupivacaine has similar onsets and duration time but they are use together because of their synergictic effect

    C) Of all the small species, the cat seems to be the least sensitve to lidocaine doses toxicity and carefully calculating lidocaine doses in this species is not as important as it is in other species

    D) Lidocaine and Bupivacaine are often used together because lidocaine kicks in immediately but doesnt last very long while bupivacaine has a delayed onset nut an extended duration of activity
    D) Lidocaine and Bupivacaine are often used together because lidocaine kicks in immediately but doesnt last very long while bupivacaine has a delayed onset nut an extended duration of activity
  34. When performing an intratesticular block. it is most important that the following anatomic area is infused with local anesthetic

    A) Epidiymis
    B) Testicular Body
    C) Scrotum
    D) Spermatic cord
    D) Spermatic cord
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. It is very important that you always aspirate before admintering any local anesthetic to any species. Which species

    A) dog
    B) cat

    is known to be particularly sensitive to lidocaine toxicity?
    B) cat
  36. Which local anesthetic

    A) lidocaine
    B) bupivacaine

    is known for potentially fatal cariac toxicity?
    B) bupivacaine
  37. if a surgon is performing an amputation ans they periodically spray from a syringe a local anesthetic on the exposed tissure layer as they subsequently close layer by layer, this is referred to as a

    A) splash  block
    B) ring block
    C) epidural
    D) regional blocl
    A) splash block
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Which call of drug is generally considered to provide the best analgesia

    A) benzodiazephine
    B) opiods
    C) phenothiazines
    D) Alpha 2 agonist
    B) opiods
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. With an opiod overdose the standard reversal agent is generally considered to be

    A) antisedan
    B) narcan
    C) flumazenil
    D) yohimbine
    B) narcan
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. if the species reversal agent (narcan) is not avalable and the patient has been overdosed with morphine, what drug listed below could be administered to the animal to "reverse" the effect of morphine while still maintaining a level of anesthesia

    A) torbugesic
    B) diazepam
    C) buprenorphine
    D) tramadol
    C) buprenorphine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. fentanyl patches have been used to provide analgesia in dogs and cats. which staement below is most accurate?

    A)fentanly patches provide essentially immediate analgesic and can be applied to bloth dogs and cats immediatley prior to surgery

    B)if the patch is too long for a cat it is recommanded that you trim it to size to minimize the chance of an overdose

    C) in dogs the onset time for providing analgesia is delayed (12-36 hours) so it is often recommended that the pathc be applied one day prior to the scheduled surgery

    D) fentanyl patches should not be used on cats
    C) in dogs the onset time for providing analgesia is delayed (12-36 hours) so it is often recommended that the pathc be applied one day prior to the scheduled surgery
  42. Which of the following drugs listed below is considered to have good transmucosal absorption if given to a cat?

    A) buprenorphine
    B) hydromorphone
    C) tramadol
    D) butorphanol
    A) buprenorphine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Which of the following drugs is considered to be a synthetic opiod and is not yet controlled
    A) butorpharnol
    B) tramadol
    C) hydromorphoe
    B) tramadol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. an E cylinder containing oxygen will be what color

    A) blue
    B) varies
    C) green
    D) grey
    C) green
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. a flowmeter is

    A) where the oxygen/anesthetic agent misture exits the anesthetic machine
    B) allows the expired air into the scavenging system
    C) used to attach the E tank to the anesthetic delivery system
    D) used to deliver a specific flow rate of gas
    D) used to deliver a specific flow rate of gas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. what part of the anesthetic delivery system prevents expired gases from bing recirculated?

    A) y piece
    B) pop off valve
    C) unidirectional valves
    D) frech gas inlet
    C) unidirectional valves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Over pressurization of the system can damage a patients lungs. Which of the following measures the pressure in the breathing circuit?

    A) unidirectional valves
    B) fresh gas inlet
    C) scavenge system
    D) manometer
    D) manometer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. when doing the daily check of the anesthetic delivery system what is the minimum amount of pressure that should be in the oxygen tank?

    A) 750 psi
    B) 2200 psi
    C) 350 psi
    D) 500 psi
    D) 500 psi
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. the purpose of the scavenging system is

    A) to keep the anesthetic levels from building up in the tubes
    B) to reduce the contamination if the work place
    C) not necessary when using a non-rebreathing system
    D) to prevent exposure of the animal
    B) to reduce the contamination if the work place
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. the flow of gas for the rebreathing and non rebreathing system becomes defferent at the

    A) flowmeter
    B) fresh gas inlet
    C) vaporizer
    D unidurectional valve
    B) frech gas inlet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. a non precision vaporizer is used:

    A) when you need a temp compensated vaporizer
    B) when an exact concentration of anesthetic must be used
    C) with anesthetic agents with low vapor pressure
    D) if you want a vaporizer that is back flow compensated
    C) with anesthetic agents with low vapor pressure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. the pop off valve

    A) can be maintained in a open position when mechanical ventilation is used
    B) is always closed when the patient is spontaneously breathing
    C) has a fixed setting and cannot be adjusted
    D) is used to allow the excess or waste gases to be vented to the scavenging system
    D) is used to allow excess or waste gases to be vented to the scavenging system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. a rebreathing system

    A) is more economical than a non rebreathing system
    B) allows for rebreathuing of exhaled gases
    C) is used on patients weighing over 15 pounds
    D) all of the above
    D) all of the above
  54. the pop off valve is part of the anesthetic machine and helps

    A) keeps the oxygen flowing  in one direction
    B) prevetns waste gases from reentering the vaporizer
    C) vaporize the liquid anesthetic
    D) prevents excess gas pressure from building up within the breathing circuit
    D) prevents excess gas pressure from building up within the breathing circuit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. true or false the rebreathing system are the best for animals over 7 kgs
    true
  56. non rebreathing systems should have maintenance flow rate that rae

    A) very  high ( 130 ml/kg/min)
    B) very low (10 ml/kg/min)
    C) moderate ( 30 ml/kg/min)
    A) very  high ( 130 ml/kg/min)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. the false statement regarding the non rebreathing system is

    A) must have CO2 absorber
    B) use high oxygen glow rate
    C) high amount of waste gas produced
    D) allow quick changes of depth of anesthesia
    B) use high oxygen flow rate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. charcoal canisters attached to the exhaust of the anesthesai machine?

    A) remove all gs anesthetic agents. except for nitrous oxide
    B) remove all the gas anesthetic agents
    C) changes color when the canister must be changed
    D) absorbe carbon dioxide
    A) remove all gs anesthetic agents. except for nitrous oxide
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. non rebreathing systems are generally recommended for patients weighing

    A) less that 25 lb
    B) less than 7 kgs
    C) more the 15 lb
    D) greather than 7 kgs
    B) less than 7 kgs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. if the pop off valvve is unadvetently left shut it will

    A) stop the oxygen flow from entering the circuit
    B) cause a significant rise of pressure within the circuit
    C) convert the circuit to low flow anestheia
    D) cause the flutter valves to malfunction
    B) cause a significant rise of pressure within the circuit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. drugs considered an ______ if their action at the receptor is to simulate

    A) against
    B) antagonist
    C) anarchist
    D) agonist
    D) agonist
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. an ____ in _____ in the blood stimulate the animal to take a breath

    A) decease, oxygen saturation
    B) increase, ph
    C) increase, carbon dioxide
    D) decrease, carbon dioxide
    C) increase, carbon dioxide
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. daily preanesthesia check of the anesthesia machine includes all except

    A) leak test
    B) weighing the charcoal canister
    C) filling the vaporizer with anesthetic agents
    D) calibration of the vaporizer
    D) calibration of the vaporizer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. true of false as the depth of anesthesia increases there will be a continued depression of cardiovascular and respiration function
    true
  65. for what species us laryngeal desensutization particulary helpful during endotracheal tube

    A) cats
    B) swine
    C) small ruminants
    D) all of the above
    D) all of the above
  66. atelectasis is

    A) a rapid respiratory rate
    B) blue mucous membrane
    C) a collapse or airless state of the lung
    D) cessation of breathing
    C) a collapse or airless state of the lung
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. the oxygen flush valve

    A) increase the anesthetic concentration within the circuit
    B) allows oxygen to flow into the breathing system without going through the vaporizer
    C) is used primarily to keep the reservoir bag inflated
    D) causes the patient to breath deeper
    B) allows oxygen to flow into the breathing system without going through the vaporizer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. what is IPPV stand for and when it is indicated and what are the benefits
    Intermitted positive pressure ventilation to give a sigh breath animals with respiratory problems

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