clin tech

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vanessasoto
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clin tech
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2013-04-24 00:45:39
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clin tech test questions
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  1. test kits frequently used in private practice that use a color change to diagnose disesase such as caine parvo, feline leukemia and influenza are all examples of:

    A) ELISA
    B) ELICA
    C) Enzyme-like immunosorbant assays
    D) ELIZA
    A) ELISA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. testing that detects the concentration of antobody and therefore an animals immune response to  a certain infecting agents (usually virus) is often referred to as

    A) Viral histology
    B) Histology
    C) Mycology
    D) Serology
    D) Serology
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Humoral Immunity deals mostly with ____ lymphocytes where as Cell mediated immunity deals mostly with _____ lymphocytes

    A) A-cell, T-cell
    B) B-cell, T-cell
    C) T-cell, B-cell
    D) none of the above
    B) B-cell, T-cell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Which of the following is a test of cell mediated immunity

    A) Coombs
    B) Tuberculin skin test
    C) RIM
    D) CELISA
    B) Tuberculin skin test
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. _______ is a treat for autoimmune disorders

    A) ELISA
    B) RIM
    C) Fluorescent Antibody Testing
    D) Coombs
    D) Coombs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. ____ is a test used to back up or clarify results found in in-house testing

    A) Immunodiffusion
    B) CELISA
    C) Fluorescent Antibody Testing
    D) RIM
    D) RIM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. These test contain Colloidal Gold in conjunction with antibodies

    A) CELISA
    B) Immunodiffusion
    C) Latex Agglutination
    D) RIM
    D) RIM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. These tests are used to diagnose Equine Infectious Anemia in horses and its uses agar plated as a test media

    A) CELISA
    B) Immunidiffusion
    C) Latex Agglutnation
    D) RIM
    B) Immunidiffusion
  9. The heartworm test we use here at the school comes from which group of test

    A) RIM
    B) CELISA
    C) Latex Agglutination
    D) ELISA
    D) ELISA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Canine Brucellosis testing falls under which category of test?

    A) ELISA
    B) RIM
    C) CELISA
    D) Latex Agglutination
    D) Latex Agglutination
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. the urine of animal with hematuria is most likely to be _____

    A) cloudy and red
    B) clear and brown
    C) brown and cloudy
    D) red and clear
    A) cloudy and red
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. specific gravity is ______

    A) the negative log of the ph
    B) another name for total protein
    C) weight of urine compared with the weight of water
    D) measured with a dipstick
    C) weight of urine compared with the weight of water
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. the best time to collect  a sample for urinalysis is _____

    A) morning
    B) mid morning
    C) afternoon
    D) late evening
    A) morning
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. urine sample collested in the morning tend to be

    A) unacceptable for sediment analysis
    B) bright orange
    C) the least concentrated
    D) more concentrated, thus increasing the chance of observing abnormalities
    D) more concentrated, thus increasing the chance of observing abnormalities
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. what are the two preferred methods of collecting a urine sample

    A) cystocentesis and catherterization
    B) expressing the bladder and cystocentesis
    C) catherization and vioding
    D) cystocentesis and voiding
    A) cystocentesis and catherterization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. polyuria is ____

    A) excessive protein in the urine
    B) lack of urine
    C) production of excessive amount of urine
    D) excessive intake of water
    C) production of excessive amount of urine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. oliguria is _____

    A) green urine
    B) excessive eating
    C) decreased urine output
    D) excessive bilirubin
    C) decreased urine output
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. anuria is ____

    A)decrease of urine output
    B) complete lack of urine production
    C) excessive urination
    D) excessive drinking
    B) complete lack of urine production
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. how does the specific gravity of dilute, colorless urine compare with that of dark yellow

    A) lower
    B)slightly higher
    C) much higher
    D) moderately higher
    A) lower
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20.  a urine ph above 7.0 is____

    A. alkaline urine
    B. high protein diet
    C. always abnormal
    D. acidic urine
    A. alkaline urine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. which statement concerning ph is least accurate

    A. it depends on the animals diet
    B. it is measure of acidity or alkalinity
    C. it is measured with a refactometer
    D. it is measured of hydrogen ion concentration
    C. it is measured with a refactometer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. a urine specimen collected at 8 am and left at room temperature until the afternoon could be expected to have _____

    A. increased number of bacteria
    B. increased number of cells
    C. decreased turbidity
    D. decreased numbers of bacteria
    A. increased number of bacteria
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. specific gravity is a measure of ____

    A. molecular weight
    B. molarity
    C. number of atoms present
    D. density
    D. density
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. dark yellow urine generally has a ____

    A. ph of 5.0 or below
    B. low specific gravity
    C. high specific gravity
    d. ph of 8.0 or above
    C. high specific gravity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. carnivores generally have _____

    A. acidic urine
    B. high glucose level in urine
    C. very high protein levels in urine
    D. alkaline urine
    D. alkaline urine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. the sulfasalicylic acid test of urine is used to detect ______

    A. bilirubin
    B. protein
    C. glucose
    D. hemoglobin
    B. protein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. this is a type of urinary catheter _____

    a. foley
    b. polypropylene
    c. red rubber feeding tube
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  28. the renal threshold for dogs is approximately _____

    A. 140-150 mg/dl
    B. 190-200 mg/dl
    C. 170-180 mg/dl
    D. 120-130 mg/dl
    C. 170-180 mg/dl
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. glucosuria can be caused by ______

    a. fear, excitement, restraint
    b. high carbohydrate meal
    c. diabetes mellitus
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  30. this occurs when there has been muscle damage

    A. hemoglobinuria
    B. pyuria
    C. myoglobinuria
    D. hematuria
    C. myoglobinuria
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. this type of bilirubin is not found in the urine because it will not pass through the glomerulus

    A. conjugated bilirubin
    B. unconjugated bilirubin
    C. both conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin
    D. neither one is found in the urine
    B. unconjugated bilirubin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. most of this bile pigment is excreted in the feces but some is absorbed into the bloodstream and excreted into urine

    A. ketone
    B. bilirubin
    C. protein
    D.urobilinogen
    D. urovilinogen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. infection or inflammaion in the urinary tract causes _____.

    A. hemoglobinuria
    B. pyuria
    C. hematuria
    D. myoglobinuria
    B. pyuria
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. an animal with acute renal disease would probably have ____ in their urine

    A. protein
    B. glucose
    C. ketone
    d. none of the above
    A. protein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. this is usually absent in normal urine that is collected via catheterization or cystocentesis

    A. glucose
    B. bilirubin
    C. ketone
    D. protein
    D. protein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. kidneys that loose their filtering ability are expected to have a ______ specific gravity

    a. lowered
    b. higher
    a. lowered
  37. a good specific gravity for a dog would be ____

    A. 1.010
    B. 1.060
    C. 1.030
    D. 1.080
    C. 1.030
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. this device is very useful in restraining cats for drawing blood or for giving SQ fluids

    A. gloves
    B. capture pole
    C. cat bag
    D. towel
    C. cat bag
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. this type of record is most commonly used by most teaching hospitals

    a. source-oriented
    b. problem-oriented
    a. source-oriented
  40. the _____ valve is located on the left side of the heart

    A. mitral
    B. a/v
    C. septum
    D. tricuspid
    A. mitral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. what is not a route of injection

    A. anteroposterior
    B. intramuscular
    C. intravenous
    D. subcutaneous
    A. anteroposterior
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. the signalmant of the animal is the

    a. age
    b. breed
    c. sex
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  43. the client is usually most concered with the "chief of complaint", which is:

    A. the animal longest-standing problem
    B. the animals most severe clinical problem
    C. the most severe clinical problem and the animal longest-standing problem
    D. the reason the client brought the animal in
    D. the reason the client brought the animal in
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. concering the veterinary technician's role in the history- taking process of a patient, which is most accurate?

    A. even the best veterinarian may be unable to solve the problems of a particular patient without an accurate and complete history
    B. if a good physical exam is performed, a patients history is of little importance
    C. the veterinary technician is usually not involved in any aspect of obtaining patients history
    D. questions asked should help lead the client toward a particular answer 
    A. even the best veterinarian may be unable to solve the problems of a particular patient without an accurate and complete history
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. which fatal canine infectious disease often begin with mucoid eye and nose discharged

    A. kennel cough
    B. caine distemper
    C. parvovirus
    D. rabies
    B. caine distemper
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. feline leukemia is spread between cats primarily by _____ and feline immunodefiency virus by

    A. copulation, nursing
    B. scratches, bitewound
    C. close contact, bite wound
    D. nursing , close contect
    C. close contact, bite wound
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. true or false
    as in large animals, kittens and puppies rely heavily on the ingestion of colostrium (first milk) to obtain protect ion from infectious diseases
    true
  48. vaccines given by the ___ route can produce mild clinical diseases

    A. SQ
    B. SQ and IN
    C. IN
    D. IM
    D. IM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. true or false
    healthy geriatric dogs  need not continue to be vacinated yearly for certain disease
    false
  50. true or false
    because corticosteroids suppress the immune system vaccinating animals who have received them are usually ineffective
    true
  51. what disease can infect personnel who accidently ingest the urine of an infected dog even if the dog is vaccinated and showing no clinical signs of the disease

    A. rabies
    B. leptospirosis
    C. parvovirus
    D. plague
    B. leptospirosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. in general zoonotic diseases that cause diarrhea are spread to human by accidental ingestion of infection

    A. saliva
    B. urine
    C. feces
    D. blood
    C. feces
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. glaucoma is diagnosed with ___ that measures

    A. an opthalmoscope, the density of the lens
    B. a tonometer, the pressure inside the eyeball
    C. a schirmer tear strip, tear production
    D. a split lamp, anterior chamber clarity
    B. a tonometer, the pressure inside the eyeball
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. what is a cateract

    A. an inward rolling of the eyelid
    B. a normal aging change that decreases the clarity of the nucleus of the lens
    C. a scratch of the cornea
    D. a focal or diffuse opacity within the lens
    D. a focal or diffuse opacity within the lens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. fluorescein dye is most often used ti diagnose

    A. cataracts
    B. corneal ulcers or scatches
    C. nuclear sclerosis
    D. glaucoma
    B. corneal ulcers or scatches
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. true or false
    eye pain of corneal cloudiness should be considered a medical emergency
    true
  57. eyes are open by _____ in kittens and puppies

    A. day 14
    B. week 3
    C. day 7
    D. day 21
    A. day 14
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. grid keratotomy is a surgical procedure to treat which condition?

    A. nuclear sclerosis
    B. corneal ulcer
    C. cataracts
    D. KCS
    B. corneal ulcer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. keratoconjunctiontivtis sicca is best diagnosed using:

    A. fluoroscein strip
    B. schirmer tests
    C. tonopan
    d. all of the above
    B. schirmer tests
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. the drug of choice to treat KCS is

    A. cyclosporine
    B. atropine
    C. pilokair 2%
    D. triple antibiotic ointment
    A. cyclosporine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. the drug of choice to treat glaucoma is:

    A. atropine
    B. cyclosporine
    C. triple antibiotic ointment
    D. pilokair 2%
    D. pilokair 2%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. fluid administratio in tiny puppy

    A. intradermal
    B. intranasal
    C. intratracheal
    D. intraosseous
    D. intraosseous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. administration of some vaccines

    A. intranasal
    B. intraosseous
    C. intratracheal
    D. intradermal
    A. intranasal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. administration of emergency cardio pulmonary resuscitative drug

    A. intradermal
    B. intraosseous
    C. intratracheal
    D. intranasal
    C. intratracheal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. always wear gloves when administering medication

    A. into the ear
    B. both eyes and ears
    C. that will be absorbed into skin
    D. into the eyes
    C. that will be absorbed into skin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. concerning subcutaneous adminitration of fluids and medication which statement is most accurate

    A. if multiple vaccinations or medications are to be administered, space injection several centimeters apart
    B. aspiration to check for the needle placement into a vein is not necessary before
    C. the ideal location for SQ administration in dogs and cats is between the shoulder blades
    d. all of the above
    A. if multiple vaccinations or medications are to be administered, space injetion several centimeters apart
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. to avoid penetrating the sciatic nerve during an IM injection into the hind leg of a cat or dog place the needle

    A. proximal to the femur into the gluteal muscles and direct it caudally
    B. just caudral to the mid-shaft of the femur bone and diract it caudally
    C. just caudal to the mid-shift of the femur bone and direct it caudally
    D. into the lateral semimembranosus muscles and direct it caudrally
    D. into the lateral semimenbranosus muscles and direct in caudally
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. how might you administer and anti-seizure drug to a convulsing animals in which you are unable to access a vein?

    A. intrarectally
    B. both intrarectally and intranasally
    C. intraperitoneally
    D. intranasally
    A. intrarectally
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. oral medications are best administered to cat by

    A. hiding the pill in a bit of canned food
    B. placing the pill at the back of the cats pharynex and holding the mouth closed until the patient swollows
    C. pulverizing the pill and mising it with a bit of canned food
    B. placing the pill at the back of the cats pharynex and holding the mouth closed until the patients swollows
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. aural administration refers to the _____

    A. mouth
    B. eye
    C. ears
    D. skin
    C. ears
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. this is an effective and easy way to give isotonic fluids

    A. IV
    B. SQ
    C. intraosseous
    d oral
    B. SQ
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. why would you not want to use steriods on a patients eye
    because it makes the ulcer worse
  73. If used improperly, which restraint device is most likely to case broken bones?
    A. restraint gloves
    B. capture pole
    C. cat bag
    D. nose bleed
    B. capture pole
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. To collect blood from the cephalic vein of a dog or cat, you should place the animal in..
    A. a sitting position and lift the head to expose the vertical aspect of the neck
    B. a sitting position and a steady front leg
    C. lateral recumbancy and lift the uppermost rear leg out of the way to expose the medial surface of the other leg
    D. lateral recumbancy and steady the uppermost bacl leg
    B. a sitting position and steady a front leg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. When placing a cat in a cat bag, which step is first?
    A. place the bag on the table
    B. place the cat in the center of the table
    C. close the zipper
    D. hook the bag around the cat's neck
    A. place the bag on the table
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. Observing its body language, an aggresive dog will
    A. hold its head low between the shoulders
    B. look from side to side
    C. wag its tail
    D. has eyes darting from one thing to another
    A. hold its head low between the shoulders
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. To protect yourself if attacked by a dog you should
    A. kick or hit at it
    B. roll yourself into a ball and protect your neck and face with your arms
    C. run
    D. stand still and call for help
    B. roll yourself into a ball and protect your neck and face with your arms
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. when confronted by a dog inside a kennel that is snarling, growling and lunging at the bars, which restraint device is the safest for you and the dog?
    A. rope leash
    B. capture pole
    C. blanket
    D. restraint gloves
    B. capture pole
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. The cardinal rule when working with cats is to
    A. put them ina cat bag for easier handling
    B. make sure doors and windows are firmly locked
    C. always cover their head with a blanket or a towel
    D. always wear restraint gloves
    B. make sure doors and windows are firmly locked
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Normal behavior for a cat in a new place is to
    A. look around and investigate
    B. sit in one spot
    C. lose bladder and bowel control
    D. cower in a corner
    A. look around and investigate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. Which of these is not a warning sign of an angry cat
    A. rubbing up against the cage bars
    B. ears lowered
    C. crouching low with tail lashing
    D. hissing and spitting
    A. rubbing up against the cage bars
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. A good rule of thumb to follow when restraining animals for veterinary care is
    A. always apply the same amount of restraint
    B. never use ropes when restraining animals
    C. apply the maximum amount of restraint possible to insure the safety of all involved
    D. apply the minimum effect amount of restraint that will keep the animal and staff safe
    D. apply the minimum effect amount of restraint that will keep the animal and staff safe
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. An otherwise docile female animal is most likely to become aggresive toward her human handler when he
    A. moves her to a new location
    B. feeds her ina a new location
    C. appears to be a threat to her suckling young
    D. places a restraint device on her
    C. appears to be a threat to her suckling young
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. If a dog is too large for you to lift it up on the table, you should
    A. ask for help
    B. leave him on the floor to be examined
    C. leave him on the floor to be examined and ask for help
    D. make him jump upon the table
    C. leave him on the floor to be examined and ask for help
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. One of the most effective way to capture and restrain an agitated cat is to
    A. grasp the scruff of the neck
    B. talk softly to the cat
    C. place one hand over its back and one hand under its belly
    D. gently grasp both front legs
    A. grasp the scruff of its neck
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. The feline's first line of defense is its
    A. claws
    B. both
    C. teeth
    A. claws
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. The signalment of the animal is the
    a. age
    b. breed
    c. sex
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  88. A neurologic examination includes
    A. postural reaction
    B. abdominal auscultation
    C. both evaluation of mentation and postural reaction
    D. evaluation of mentation
    C. both evaluation of mentation and postural reaction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. A question about whether a dog is on heartworm prevention is part of the dog's
    A. past medical history
    B. medication history
    C. dietary history
    D. environmental history
    B. mediaction history
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. The __ system is th most difficult and time consuming to examine completely, therfore a complete exam is usually not performed unless a problem is suspected
    A. respiratory
    B. nervous
    C. cardiovascular
    D. urogenital
    B. nervous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. Which part of the body is included ina completeintegumentary exam
    A. eyes
    B. tongue
    C. interdigital areas
    D. eyes
    C. interdigital areas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. During the physical exam only observation that appear significant need be recorded
    a. true
    b. false
    b. false
  93. If a scale is available, an animal should be weighed at every visit to the veterinarian
    a. true
    b. false
    a. true
  94. Observation of the for nasal discharge often begins the exam for which system
    A. respiratory
    B. musculoskeletal
    C. special senses
    D. digestive
    A. respiratory
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Difficulty breathing due to stenotic nares is commonly seen in what kind of dogs
    A. sporting
    B. working
    C. dolichocephalic
    D. brachiocephalic
    D. brachiocephalic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. The heart rates of small-breed dogs are generally __ than those of large breed dogs
    A. the same
    B. faster
    C. slower
    d. none of the above
    B. faster
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. There are __ quadrants for auscultation of the lungs
    A. 5
    B. 8
    C. 9
    D. 4
    C. 9
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. The normal feline heart rate range from
    a. 60 to 100 bpm
    b. 80 to 120 bpm
    c. 100 to 180 bpm
    d. 140 to 220 bpm
    d 140 to 220 bpm
  99. Heart murmurs are assessed for
    A. heart rate
    B. abnormal rhythm
    C. pulse deficits
    D. loudness, character, and timing
    D. loudness, character, and timing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. the pulse is most readily available over the

    A. carotid artery
    B. femoral artery
    C. facial artery
    D. lateral ear vein
    B. femoral artery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. abdominal palpation will most likely reveal

    A. a very enlarged bladder due to high stress
    B. primarily intestines slipping between palpaters fingers
    C. two round structures in the cranioventral abdomen
    D. the liver boarder approximately 5-10 cm beyond the last rib
    B. primarily intestines slipping between palpaters fingers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. true or false
    the oral cavity of a cat should not be examined when the cat is awake due to the risk of getting bitten
    false
  103. the mitral valve id located on the ____ side of the heart

    A. left
    B. both
    C. right
    A. left
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. the tricuspid valve is located on the ____ side of the heart

    A. left
    B. right
    C. both
    B. right
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. the ____ kidney in the dog may not be palpated because it is located more craniodorsally

    A. neither can be palpated
    B. left
    C. right
    C. right
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. mucous membrane color and CRT refers to which system

    A. circulatory
    B. respiratory
    C. nervous
    D. gastrointestinal
    A. circulatory
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. the normal ocular exam generally includes:

    A. white sclera
    B. yellow ocular discharge
    C. cloudy cornea
    D. the eyelid rolls inward
    A. white sclera
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. the urinary bladder can usally be palpated in which part of the abdomen

    A. cranioventral
    B. craniodorsal
    C. caudodorsal
    D. caudoventral
    D. caudoventral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. icteric mucous membranes suggest:

    A. liver disease
    B. liver disease and hemolysis
    C. hemolysis
    D. cardiac disease
    B. liver disease and hemolysis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. jugualr pulses may indicate

    a. poor perfusion
    b. hypothermia
    c. hypertension
    d. none of the above
    d. none of the above
  111. assessment of a patients perfusion may best be achieved by

    A. lung sound
    B. pulse strength
    C. CRT
    C. CRT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. lymph node enlargement may indicate

    A. hypertension
    B. neoplasia
    C. poor nutrition
    D. hypotension
    B. neoplasia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. why is the skin wiped with 70% iospropyl alcholol before venipuncture

    a. it removed some superficial skin contaminants
    b. it causes vasodilation
    c. it improved visualization of the vein
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  114. you are drawing from a cats medical saphenous vein using 23 gauge needle on a 3ml syringe. the blood begins to fill the syringe then stops flowing one likely cause of the problems is

    A. the needle is too large
    B. the needle is too small
    C. the syringe is too large
    D. you have applied too much suction, causing the vein to collapse
    D. you have applied too much suction, causing the vein to collapse
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. when you are performing venipuncture, always use the ____ needle possible for the vein chosen and direct the bevel ____

    A.smallest, upwards
    B.largest, upwards
    C.largest, downward
    D.smallest, downward
    B.largest, upwards
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. the easiest vein from which to draw 10 ml of blood from a 11kg dog is the

    A.cephalic vein
    B. marginal ear vein
    C. jugular vein
    D.lateral saphenous
    C. jugular vein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. when might the lateral saphenous vein be preferred to the cephalic vein for canine venipuncture

    A. when a larger amount of blood is needed
    B. when an animal  is especially sensitive to pain
    C. when a dog is very aggressive
    d. all of the above
    C. when a dog is very aggressive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. how does arterial blood collection differ from venous blood collection

    a. it is not necessary to occlude an artery to obtain a blood sample
    b. venous blood will rapidly fill a syringe in a pulsatile manner, while arterial blood must be aspirated using manual pressure on the plunger
    a. it is not necessary to occulde an artery to obtain a blood sample
  119. after making a jugular stick how long do you hold off

    A. 20 sec
    B. 30 sec
    C. 60 sec
    D. 15 sec
    B. 30 sec
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. if you go too deep with a jug stick ou can hit the ____

    A.caroid
    B.esophagus
    C.aorta
    D.trachea
    A.caroid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. which needle size would be preferred for a jugular draw from a 60 pound lab?

    A.20ga
    B.25ga
    C.14ga
    D.23ga
    A.20ga
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. how long do you hold off for a cephalic stick

    A. 80 sec
    B. 60 sec
    C. 20sec
    D. 30 sec
    C. 20sec
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. what should be periodically infused into an IV catheter to prevent problem

    A. steriods
    B. heporin
    C. antibiolics
    B. heporin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. the vein is good place for venipuncture in the cat for small amount of blood

    A. cephalic
    B. femoral vein
    C. jugular vein
    B. femoral vein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. blood that is bright red in color comes from _____

    A. vein
    B. both
    C. artery
    C. artery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. which needle has the largest interior diameter

    A. 22 ga
    B.27 ga
    C.20 ga
    D. 16 ga
    D. 16 ga
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. when drawing blood from an animal at what point do you remove the tourniquet

    A. after you remove the needle
    B. 2 min after you remove the needle
    C. same time as you remove the needle
    D. before you remove the needle
    D. before you remove the needle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. how long can you leave in an indwelling catheter

    A. 24hr
    B. 36 hr
    C. 72 hr
    D. 48 hr 
    C. 72 hr
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. the catheter of choice for chemotherapy is the _____

    a. OTN
    b TTN
    c. butterfly catheter
    d dont need one
    c. butterfly catheter
  130. place the following steps of a basic ear cleaning in the correct order
    (1) apply cerumenolytics (2) pluck hair (3) lavage with a bulb syringe and (4) dry ear

    A. 4,1,3,2
    B.4,3,2,1
    C.2,1,3,4
    D.1,3,2,4
    C. 2,1,3,4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. requires less time to fill out

    a. source oriented
    b.problem oriented
    a. source oriented
  132. commonly used byy veterinary university teaching hospital

    a. source oriented
    b. problem oriented
    b. problem oriented
  133. uses more paper so the record is more bulcky

    a. source oriented
    b. problem oriented
    b. problem oriented
  134. generally provied less pretection against potential lability

    a. source oriented
    b. problem oriented
    a. source oriented
  135. which syringe size is best for an arterial stick

    A. 1cc
    B. 3cc
    C. 6cc
    D. 1cc and 3cc
    D. 1cc and 3cc
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. a diaphragmatic hernia may be detected by checking this system

    A. gastrointestinal
    B. respiratory
    C. cardiac
    D. nervous
    B. respiratory
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. list the four groups of lymph nodes  we discussed in class
    • mandibular
    • prescapular
    • popileal
    • axillary
  138. the right kidney of what species is difficult to palpate

    A. dog
    B. cow
    C. horse
    D. cat
    A. dog
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. what is the preferred size of needle for a jug stick

    A. 18 ga
    B. 29ga
    C.27ga
    D. 20ga
    D. 20ga
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. what is the perferred size for adminitrating an IM injection

    A. 29ga
    B. 25ga
    C. 18ga
    B. 25ga
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. name two possible sites for an arterial blood sample for conscious animals
    • dorsal metatarsal
    • femeral artery
  142. name two possible sites for an arterial blood sample for unconscious animals
    radial and lingual artery

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