Qtr 3 immunology exam 1

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Qtr 3 immunology exam 1
2013-05-01 15:41:03

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  1. what types of dyes stain neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils?
    • Neutrophils- acid and basic
    • Eosinophil - acidic (red)
    • Basophils -  Basic (blue)
  2. What cells are precursors to all leukocytes?
    hematopoietic stem cells
  3. What is the combination of monocytes,  macrophages, and specialized endothelial cells called?
    Reticuloendothelial system
  4. where are histiocytes found?
    connective tissues
  5. Where are kupffer cells found?
    the liver
  6. What type of tissue lines the lymph tissue?
    tissue macrophages
  7. what are the first granulocytes to enter the site of inflammation?
  8. What is the first line in defense of the bodies tissue?
    tissue macrophages
  9. what do basophils release into the blood to prevent coagulation?
  10. What disease causes the production of abnormal leukocytes which destroy RBC's?
  11. What are the two main branches of the immune system?
    innate and adaptive
  12. What are the two main functions of the innate immune system?
    • killing nonspecific microbes
    • Activating adaptive immune process
  13. What are the small chemical groups on the antigen molecule that can elicit and react with antibodies?
  14. where does the activation to antigens occur?
  15. Where are B-lymphocytes produced?
    • Liver (mid-fetal life)
    • Bone marrow (ate fetal life and after birth)
  16. What do T-cells differentiate into?
    • CD4+ (helper)
    • CD8+ (cytotoxic)
  17. How s the adaptive immune system activated by macrophages?
    macrophages in lymph tissue partially phagocytes the organism and passes on the antigenic products to the lymphocytes
  18. what type of B-lymphocyte is inactive after exposure to a microbe?
    Memory cel
  19. What is the most abundant and active form of leukocyte?
  20. Besides esinophils what other leukocyte has a active role in allergic reactions?
    Basophils (attach to E-immunoglobins)
  21. Approximately how many WBC's are in the adult human body?
    7000 per microliter
  22. What processes is used by neutrophils and monocytes to squeeze through the capillary wall?
  23. Phagocytosis, Stomach acid secretions, digestive enzymes, Resistance of the skin, Presence in the blood of certain chemical compounds (lysozyme, basic polypeptides, the complement complex and natural killer lymphocytes) are all part of what system of immunity?
    Innate immunity
  24. What is the condition of decreased quantity of WBC's in the body?
  25. What type of cell is involved in cell-mediated immunity and where is it found?
    • Activated T-Cells
    • Lymph tissue
  26. What portion of an antibody attaches to a specific antigen?
    variable portion
  27. Which type of acquired immunity do helper t-cells (CD4 pos) work in?
    Humoral and cell mediated
  28. What type of acquired immunity do cytotoxic T-cells (CD8 pos) work in?
    Cell mediated immunity
  29. What is the function of suppressor T-cells?
    Have the ability to suppress the function of helper and cytotoxic T-cells
  30. What type of immunoglobins represent 75% of the immunoglobin population in the normal adult?
  31. What type(s) of cells produce memory cells?
    T and B cells
  32. If you have a D antigen you are?
    Rh positive
  33. what disease is characterized by characterized by agglutination and phagocytosis of the fetus’s red blood cells?
    Erythroblastosis Fetails
  34. What is the Rh blood type of the fetus and mother respectively that causes erythroblastosis fetails?
    • Mom = Rh neg
    • Fetus = Rh pos
  35. What is the transplant of tissue from one part of an individuals body to another?
  36. The transplant of tissue form one identical twin to another is called?
  37. The transplant of tissue from one individual of a species to another of the same species?
  38. What is the transplant of tissue between different species?
  39. characterized by the failure of B-cell precursors (pro-B cells and pre-B cells) to mature into B cell. Patients usually present with recurrent pyogenic infections with extracellular pathogens.
    X-linked agammaglobulinemia
  40. group of 20-30 primary immunodeficiencies. The feature common to all patients is hypogammaglobulinemia. Recurrent and chronic infections, particularly intestinal infections, chronic swelling of the lymph glands, enlarged spleen.
    Common variable immunodeficiency
  41. is the most frequently diagnosed form of specific primary immunodeficiency. Affected individuals have extremely low levels of both serum and secretory IgA. Repeated sinopulmonary and gastrointestinal disease.
    Isolated IgA deficiency
  42. a group of rare, sometimes fatal, congenital disorders. Patients have defects in both humoral and cell-mediated immune responses. So, patients’ T-cell number are greatly reduced (Lymphopenia) and antibody synthesis is greatly impaired due to lack of T-cell help
    Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
  43. a multisystem disease of autoimmune origin characterized by a bewildering array of autoantibodies, particularly antinuclear antibodies (ANAs). Acute or insidious in its onset, it is a chronic, remitting and relapsing, often febrile illness characterized by injury to skin (Butterfly rash), joints, kidney, and serosal membranes.
    Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
  44. chronic inflammatory disease that affects primarily the joints, but may involve extra-articular tissues such as the skin, blood vessels, lungs and heart.
    Rheumatoid Arthritis
  45. an autoimmune disorder in which immune cells attack and destroy the exocrine glands that produce tears and saliva.
    Sjögren Syndrome
  46. a rare chronic disease of unknown cause characterized by diffuse fibrosis, degenerative changes, and vascular abnormalities in the skin, joints, and internal organs (especially the esophagus, lower GI tract, lung, heart, and kidney).
    systemic sclerosis
  47. Where is the compliment binding site?
    Constant Ch2 domain
  48. What part of the antibody is responsible for antigen-binding?
    Fab fragments (1 variable, 1 constant)
  49. What portion of an antibody is responsible for placental transfer?
    Fc fragment (Constant sites)
  50. What immunoglobin can cross the placenta?
  51. Where are IgA mainly found?
  52. What immunoglobin is derived from breast milk?
  53. What immunoglobin is produced in the primary response to an antigen?
  54. Which immunoglobulins fix the compliment system?
    • IgG
    • IgM
  55. What is it called when antibodies form large particles with antigens bound together into a clump?
  56. What is precipitation of an antigen?
    soluble antigen and antibody is rendered insoluble and precipitates
  57. What is it called when an antibody covers the toxin sites of the antigen?
  58. What are the three main effects of the compliment system?
    • Lysis
    • chemotaxis
    • opsonization
  59. What complement pathway is initiated by antigen-antibody reaction?
  60. What complement pathway is initated by microbial surfaces?
  61. What complement pathway is initiated by nonspecific activators eg. endotoxin?
  62. What do all pathways of the complement system lead too?
  63. What molecule must be bound to an antigen to get T cells to respond?
    Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)
  64. What are the three major types of antigen-presenting cells?
    • Macrophages
    • B lymphocytes
    • Dendritic Cells
  65. What are the three main functions of macrophages?
    • Phagocytosis
    • Antigen presentation
    • Cytokine production (interleuken I)
  66. Where are dendritic cells primarily located?
    under skin and mucosa
  67. Which type of T-cell is the most numerous?
    Helper T-cells
  68. What are the regulatory functions of lymphokines?
    • Proliferation of cytotoxic T cells and Suppressor T cells
    • Stimulation of B-cell growth
    • Activation of macrophage
    • feedback to helper T-cells
  69. What interleukin induces naive helper T-cell to make Th-2 cells (antibody immunity)
  70. What interleukin induces naive helper t cell to form Th-1 cell (cell-mediated)
  71. What are the clinical presentations of erythroblastosis?
    • Anemia at birth
    • enlarged liver and spleen
    • Kernicterus (damage to motor areas of the brain)
  72. What are the three causes of kidney failure in a blood transfusion reaction?
    • Renal vasoconstriction
    • Circulatory shock
    • renal tubular blockage
  73. What type of hypersensitivity is caused by allergens and is mediated by IgE and IgM immunoglobulins?
    Type I (immediate)
  74. What is important in mast cell triggering?
    IgE Fc
  75. What amplifies mast cells stimulation?
    Platelet Activating Factor (PAF)
  76. What mediates Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity?
    IgG or IgM
  77. What are some examples of type II hypersensitivity?
    • Erythroblastosis fetails
    • hemolytic anemia
    • granulocytopenia
    • thrombocytopenia (lack platelets)
    • blood transfusion
  78. What type of hypersensitivity occurs when antigen-antibody complexes induce inflammation?
    Type III (immune complex hypersen)
  79. What mediates type III (immune complex hypersensitivity)?
    • Soluble immune complexes 
    • IgG and IgM
    • C3a C4a C5a
  80. What disease is characterized by Type III hypersensitivity?
    Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
  81. What is type IV (delayed hypersensitivity) mediated by?
    T-lymphocytes (cell mediated)
  82. What is the classical example of type IV (delayed hypersensitivity)?
    tuberculin reaction