pharm

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vanessasoto
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215752
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pharm
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2013-04-25 07:22:08
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pharm final
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  1. the substance that is producted in the kidneys that stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells is called

    A. enalapril
    B. leukopietin
    C. erythropoietin
    D. nephrogenic colony stimulating factor
    C. erythropoietin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. the inhibition of bone marrow resulting in the decreased production of blood cells and platelets is called

    A. myeloma
    B. myelosuppression
    C. aplastic anemia
    D. thrombocytopenia
    B. myelosuppression
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. unlike many drugs chemotherapy drugs are often dosed bassed on a patients ____

    A. breed
    B. the size of their liver
    C. life span
    D. body surface area
    D. body sureface area
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. chemotherapy drugs attack rapidly dividing cells which include

    a. tumor cells
    b. bone marrow
    c. cell lining the GI tract
    d. hair follicles
    e. all of the above
    e. all of the above
  5. a fancy name for a blood clot is

    A.  thrombocytopenia
    B. erthrocytoma
    C. thrombus
    D. hemangioma
    D. thrombus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. a tumor that has spread from its original location to other parts of the body is said to have

    A. degranulated
    B. thromboembolized
    C. metastasized
    D. microencapsulated
    C. metastasized
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. which of the following is not an opiod

    A. Meperidine
    B. Diazepam
    C. Fentanyl
    D. Butorphanol
    B. Diazepam
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. the ideal anesthetic should have all of the following charateristics, except

    A. provid good muscle relaxtion
    B. low MAC
    C. low vapor pressure
    D. high solubility coeffient
    D. high solubility coeiffient
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. which drug is an antagonist of medetomidine (Domitor)

    A. dopram
    B. yohimbine
    C. naloxone
    D. atipamezole
    D. atipamezole
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. all are controlled substances except

    A. acepromazine
    B. fentanyl
    C. ketamine
    D. diazepam
    A. acepromazine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. inhalant anesthetics with low _____

    A. biotransformation
    B. solubility coefficient
    C. toxicity
    D. vapor pressure
    B. solubility coefficient
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. before administering an anesthetic which of the following is the least important part of an animal history

    A. when the animal was last vaccinated
    B. when the animal last ate
    C. if the animal has a concurrent disease
    D. the prior anesthetic history
    A. when the animal was last vaccinated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. all the following drugs are controlled substances and their use must be logged, except

    A. propofol ( propoflo)
    B. ketamine (ketaset)
    C. dias.zepam (vallum)
    D. oxymorphone (numorphan)
    A. propofol (propoflo)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. highly volatile anesthetics are best suited fir

    A. open drop or cone system
    B. draw over vaporizers
    C. IV administration
    D. precision vaporizers
    D. precision vaporizer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. which drugs will not slow the heart rate

    A. gas anesthetics
    B. phenothiazine tranquilizer
    C. alpha 2 agonists
    D. anticholinergics
    D. anticholinergics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. _____ is an analgesic and a type of tranquilizer

    A. xylazine
    B. atropine
    C. diazepam
    D. acepromazine
    A. xylazine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. which of the following is not an effect associated with atropine administration

    A. mydriasis
    B. decreased gastrointestinal motility
    C. tachycardia
    D. excessive salivation
    D. excessive salivation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. naloxone is classified as a

    A. mu and kappa blocker
    B. antagonist
    C. mixed agonist/antagonist
    D. agonist
    B. antagonist
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. a popular anti-motion-sickness agent for dogs and cats is _____ which is classified as a

    A.xylazine; sympathomimetic
    B. acepromazine; alpha 2 andrenergic agonist
    C. xylazine; alpha 2 andrenergic agonist
    D. acepromazine; phenothiazine tranquilizer
    D. acepromazine; phenothiazine tranquilizer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. another name for a gas anesthetic that has a high vapor pressure is called _____
    volatile
  21. when an anesthetic gas has a high solubility the induction rate is quick or slow
    slow
  22. which inhalant gas can cause a patients temperature to rise to dangerous levels
    halothane
  23. which drug is an opioid

    A. propofol
    B. valium
    C. morphine
    D. atropine
    C. morphine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. when an anesthetic gas has a low minimum alveolar concentration it is more or less potent than an inhalent with a high minimum alveolar concentration?
    more potent
  25. acepromazine should be avoided in

    A. geriatric patients
    B. aggressive patients
    C. doberman pinschers
    D. patients with a history of seizures
    D. patients with history of seizures
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. during respiratory arrest what drug stimulates respiration?
    doxapham
  27. a drugs site of action is termed its

    a. active site
    b. target tissue
    c. receptor zone
    d. active location
    target tissue
  28. a drug that exactly produces the actions of a natural body substance whem it binds to its receptors is called

    A. an antagonist
    B. an agonist
    C. a biotransformer
    D. an inhibitor
    B. agonist
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. what two organs are most often involved in deactivating drugs and elimination them from the body

    A. liver and lungs
    B. liver and kidney
    C. small intestine and lungs
    D. brain and small intesting
    B. liver and kidney
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. meticulous technique and needle placement are essential when giving intramuscular injections because of the risk of

    a. accidental injection into a nerve
    b. introduction of infection into the animal
    c.all of the above
    c. all of the above
  31. which pair of agents has the most similar effect?

    A. anticholinergics and cholinomimetics
    B. sympatholytics and anticholinergics
    C. anticholinergics and sympathomimetics
    D. sympathominetics and sympatholytics
    C. anticholinergics and sympathomimetics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. all but which of the following drugs have an antemetic action?

    A. apomorphine
    B. metoclopramide (reglan)
    C. antihistamine (meclizine)
    D. phenothiazines (chlopromazine)
    A. apomorphine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. an asthmatic cat may receive which of the following drugs for its bronchodilatory effect

    A. histamine
    B. digoxin
    C. prednisone
    D. theophylline
    D. theophylline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. a coating agent that forms an ulcer adherent complex at the ulcer site is

    A. sucralfate
    B. misoprostol
    C. kaopectate
    D. cimetidine
    A. sucralfate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. a group of drugs that is the treatment of choice to treat diarrhea is dogs is

    A. antispasmodics
    B. anticholinergics
    C. narcotic analgesics
    D. protectants
    C. narcotic analgesics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. which drug is most likely to be prescribed prevent motion sickness?

    A.apomorphine
    B. syrup of ipecac
    C. atropine
    D. dimenhydrinate
    D. dimenhydrinate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. an expectorant is adrug that acts to

    A. liquidfide and dilute viscus secretions in the respiratory tract
    B.suppress inflammatory cells in the respiratory tract
    C. reduce the allergic component of respiratory disease
    D. suppress a productive cough
    A. liquidfide and dilute viscus secreations in the respiratory tract
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. guaifenesin is a example of a(n)

    A. bronchodilator
    B. mycolytic agent
    C. antitussive
    D. expectorant
    D. expectorant
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. robitussin an OTC antitussive has what primary active ingredient

    A.dextromethorphon
    B. butorphanol
    C. codeine
    D. hydrocodone
    A. dextromethorphon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. butorphanol tartrate is an example of a drug that functions on more than one body system it is both an

    A. analgesic and barbitturate
    B. expectorant and carcotic analgesic
    C. antitussive and narcotic analgesic
    D. analgesia and expectorant
    C. antitussive and narcotic analgesic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. the type of drug used in a partient with a productive cough is an

    A. expectorant
    B. antitussive
    C. antihistamine
    D. anaglesic
    A. expectorant
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. a stool softener often helpful in patients recovering from anal surgery is

    A. doeusate sodium succiants (DSS, Cloace)
    B. magnesium hydroxide
    C. bran
    D. mineral oil
    A. doeusate sodium succiants (DSS, Cloace)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. payllium and metamucil are example of

    A. libricants
    B. bid laxatoves
    C. irritant cathartics
    D. saline catheters
    B. bid laxatoves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. kaolin and pectin (kaopectate) and bismuth subsalicylate (pepto bismal) are examples of

    A. anticholinergics
    B. protectants
    C. antispasmodies
    D. narcotic analgesic
    B. protectants
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. the emetic of choice in cats is

    A. acemorphine
    B. xylazine
    C. hydrogen peroxide
    D. srup of ipecac
    B. xylazine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. the emetic of choice in dogs is

    A. xylazine
    B. apomorphine
    C. srup of ipecac
    D. hydrogen peroxide
    B. apomorphine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. a 10% concentration of solution contains

    A. 1g of drug per ml of solution
    B. 100g of drug per 1000m (1L of solution)
    C. 10g of drug per 100 ml of solution
    D. 10g of drug per 100 ml of solution and 100g of drug per ml of solution
    D. 10g of drug per 100 ml of solution and 100g of drug per ml of solution
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. if 480 ml of a 0.9% sodium chloride is to be  infused interavenously over 24 hours what is the correct infusion rate if the set delivers 60 drops/ml

    A. 480 drops/min
    B. 200 drops/ min
    C. 20 drops/min
    D. 1200 drops/min
    C. 20 drops/min
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. drugs that are described as beta 2 receptors stimulats have what effect on the respiratory tree

    A. increased the volume of watery ssecretions
    B. cause bronchodilation
    C. causes bronchocontriction
    D. increased the volume of sticky mu cold secretions
    B. cause bronchodilation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. drugs that increase the volume of watery secretions within the repiratory tree as a mean to make a dry cough productive are called

    A. antitussive
    B. expectorants
    C. antihistamine
    D. mucolytics
    B. expectorants
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. drugs that effectively block cough reflex are called

    A. antihistamine
    B. expectorants
    C. mucolytics
    D. antitussives
    D. antitiussives
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. atropine works primarily by

    A.stimulating the sympathetic system
    B. stimulating the parasympathetic system
    C. blocking the sympathetic system
    D. blocking parasympathetic action
    D. blocking parasympathetic action
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. another term for laxative is

    A. diuretic
    B. relaxant
    C. cathartic
    D. anthelmintic
    C. cathartic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. which abbrevation means "as needed"

    A. q
    B. Prn
    C. Rx
    D. dd
    B. Prn
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. which of the following is not parenteral route of administration

    A. oral
    B. subcutaneous
    C. intravenous
    D. intramuscular
    A. oral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. the generic name for a drug is also called

    A. the proprietary name
    B. the trade name
    C. the chemical name
    D. the nonproprietary name
    D. the momproprietary name
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. when a drug is said to have a narrow therapeutic range it meant that

    A. it may be used for treatment of only a few disorders
    B. it must be frequently
    C. it must be giving in greater concentrations to be effective
    D. its effective and toxic doses are close to eachother
    D. its effective and toxic doese are close to eachother
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. a drug that has extreme potential for abuse and no approved medical purpose in the US us classifed as

    A. C-I
    B. C-V
    C. C-IV
    D. C-II
    A. C-I
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. aminophylline acts as a

    A. thermoregulatory agent
    B. vermifuge
    C. cardiotonic
    D. bronchodilator
    D. bronchodilator
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. which statement is true concerning veterinary use of a controlled substance

    a. a controlled substance is a substance of high abuse potential for which detailed
    b. the law states that controlled substances must be kept in all securely locked in a substantially constructed cabinet or safe
    c. the controlled substances used medically are designated on the label by the letter C with a roman numeral in the C
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  61. sucralfate and omeprazole are both used in the treatment of gastric ulcers which statement is true concerning their mode of action

    A. sucralfate adheres to damaged mucosa and creates a protective adhesive- bandage like barrier while omeprazole works much like antacids by neutralizing stomach acid to increase gastric ph
    B. sucralfate acts on parietal cells to directly inhibit gastric acid secretion while omeprazole adheres to damaged mucosa and creates a protective adhesive bangage like barrier
    C. sucralfate adheres to damage mucosa and creates a protective adhesive bandage like barrier while omeprazole acts on partial cells to directly inhibt gastric acid secretion
    D. sucralfate works much like antacids by neutralizing stomach acid to increase gastric ph while omeprazole adheres to damaged mucosa and creates a protective adhesive bandage like barrier
    C. sucralfate adheres to damage mucosa and creates a protective adhesive bandage like barrier while omeprazole acts on partial cells to directly inhibt gastric acid secretion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. which statement concerning antibiotic therapy is most accurate

    a. indiscrimainate choice of antibiotic and inadequate doses or treatment lengths can lead to microbial resistance to the antibiotic used
    b. each antibiotic is effective against specific groups of organisms
    c. antibiotics are substances that kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms including bacteria
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  63. which pair of agents has the most similar effects

    A. anticholinergics and sympathomimetics
    B. sympathomimetics and sympatholytics
    C. anticholinergics and cholingomimetics
    A. anticholinergics and sympathomimetics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. a popular anti-motion sickness agent for dogs and cats is ____ which is classified as an ____

    A. acepromazine; phenothiazine tranqulizers
    B. acepromazine; alpha 2 andrengeric agoinst
    C. xylazine; sympathomimetic
    D. xylazine; alpha 2 andrenergic agonist
    A. ancepromazine; pehnothiazine tranquilzer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. what antibiotics are not recommented for yound animals

    A. quinolones and tetracycline
    B. penicillins and aminolycosides
    C. macrolids and quinoles
    A. quinolone and tetracyclines
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. which antibiotic may cause bone marrow suppression if taken systemically or handled inproperly?

    A. chloramphenicol
    B. enrofloxacine
    C. penicillin
    D. tetracycline
    A. chloraphenicol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. which antibiotics are used only topically

    A. penicillins and cephalosporins
    B. erythromycin and doxycycline
    C. polymyxin B and bacitracin
    D. gentamicin and sulfonmide
    C. polymyxin B and bacitracin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. cimetidine and famotidine exert their effect by

    A. neutralizing the scid molecules
    B. inhibiting the proton pump
    C. antagonizing H2 recpetors
    D. stimulation of prostraglandin activity
    C. antagonizing H2 receptors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. scooter a 13 year old minature schnauzer has arrested under anesthesia for a routine dentistry. you run to the crase cart and grab what you know to be the drug choice for cardian arrest which is

    A. epinephrine
    B. digoxin
    C. lidocaine
    D. dobutamine
    A. epinephrine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. the h2 receptors are found in the

    a gastric mu cosa
    b. saliva
    c. carotid arteries
    d. aortic arch
    a. gastric mu cosa
  71. a cat suffering from megacolone have which  of the following drugs prescribed in an effort to stimulate gastrointestinal motility

    A. cisaprida (propatsid)
    B. spironlactone
    C. cimetidine
    D.hycodan
    A. cisaprida (propatsid)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. dermatophytosis is a _____ skin infection

    A. parasitic
    B. fungal
    C. immune mediated
    D. bacterial
    B. fungal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. all of the following drugs are classified as penicillin except_____

    A. ampicillin
    B. closacillin
    C. cephalexin
    D. amoxicillin
    C. cephalexin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. panmycin is classified as an ___

    A. cephalosporin
    B. penicillin
    C. aminoglycoside
    D. tetracycline
    D. tetracycline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. enrofloxacin is a

    A. flucoroquinolone
    B. tetracycline
    C. penicillin
    D. cephalosporin
    A. fluoroquinolone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. which antibiotics contain the betalacton ring

    A. macrolides and quinolones
    B. penicillins and aminogly cosides
    C. quinolones and tetracyclines
    D. penicillins and cephalosporins
    C. quinolones and tetracyclines
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. list 3 signs of pain
    vocalization frooming appetite
  78. opiods as a class are considered excellent analgestics for amny solutions where and how long the pathway do they exert their effects
    brain spinal cord and periferal tissues by blocking pain
  79. which of the following opiods is considered the best analgesic

    A. phenybutazone
    B. etodolac
    C. buprenex
    D. morphine
    D. morphine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. if you reapplying a fentanyl patch to an animal post operativetly and the animal only really needs to have half of the patch applied to control the best approach to take?

    A. cut the patch in half and apply to skin that has been shaved
    B. remove only half of the paper backing and apply entire patch to skin that has been shaved
    C. remove only half of the paper and then apply the entire patch to unshaven skin
    D. cut the pathc in half proir to applying to unchaven skin
    A. remove only half of the paper backing and apply entire patch to skin that has been shaved
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. which of the followinf drugs is frequently used for post op analgesia becuase of its opid like properties ( it is also popular because it is not controlled yet)

    A. flunxin meglumine
    B. deracoxib
    C. tramadol
    D. butorphanol
    C. tramadol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. what does NSAID stand for
    non stariodal anti inflammatory drugs
  83. which of the following is an NSAID that is labeled for horse and cattle has anti endotoxin effect has great ability to control visceral pain in horses and is potenically nephrotoxic in cats and dogs

    A. DMSO
    B. etodolac
    C. flunixin meglumine
    D. phenylbutazone
    C. flunixin meglumine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. which of the following drugs can be givin IV or orally and is primarly used to control muscloskeletal pain in horse

    A. methylprednisolone
    B. orudis
    C. tramadal
    D. phenylbutazone
    D. phenylbutazone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. which of the following drugs when used topically has significant anti inflammatory actions cause vasodilation and acts as a carrier agent pulling other chemicals through the skin with it

    A. depo medol
    B. DMSO
    C. banimine
    D. fentanyl patch
    B. DMSO
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. the other name for rimadyl is

    A. drudis
    B. naproxen
    C. carprofen
    D. firocoxib
    C.carprofen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. NSAIDs have anti inflammatory analgesic and anti pyretic properties while steriods have primarly the following properties

    A. analgesic
    B. anti inflammatory
    C. antipyretic
    B. anti inflammatory
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. the body produced two main classes of steriods glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids which of the following statement is most accurate

    a. mineralcorticoids primeraly regulate electrlytes and water balance while glucocorticoids are primarly anti inflammatory and immunosupressive
    b. glucocorticoids primarllly regulated electrolyte and water balance while mineralcorticoids
    a. mineralcorticoids primeraly regulate electrlytes and water balance while glucocorticoids are primarly anti inflammatory and immunosupressive

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