Test 1.7

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Ritameeker
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216326
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Test 1.7
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2013-04-28 12:17:55
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Cardiology
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Test 1.7 - Cardiology
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  1. Which of the following ECG findings would indicate a possible pacemaker failure?

    A. occasional QRS complexes without pacer spikes
    B. Pacemaker spikes without associated QRS complexes
    C. a pacemaker spike preceding each P wave
    D. a QRS duration of 0.20 seconds
    B. Pacemaker spikes without associated QRS complexes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. On a properly calibrated ECG machine, 1 mV is equivalent to a height of _____ boxes.

    A. five small
    B. ten small
    C. one large
    D. four large
    B. ten small
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which of the following is the LEAST LIKELY cause of PEA?

    A. tension pneumothorax
    B. cardiac tamponade
    C. hypertension
    D. hypovolemia
    C. hypertension
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Which of the following is most commonly associated with multifocal atrial tachycardia?

    A. acute myocardial infarction
    B. digitalis toxicity
    C. pulmonary disease
    D. use of cocaine, amphetamines, or caffeine
    C. pulmonary disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. An accelerated junctional rhythm has a rate between _____ and _____.

    A. 100 - 150
    B. 40 - 60
    C. 20 - 40
    D. 60 - 100
    D. 60 - 100
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. A decrease in preload results in a(n):

    A. decrease in cardiac output
    B. decrease in peripheral vascular resistance
    C. decrease in afterload
    D. increase in stroke volume
    A. decrease in cardiac output
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. The mitral valve is also known as the _____ valve.

    A. left atrioventricular
    B. pulmonic
    C. right atrioventricular
    D. tricuspid
    A. left atrioventricular
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. An early sign of hyperkalemia is:

    A. tall, peaked T waves on an ECG
    B. Presence of an Osborn wave
    C. flat T waves on an ECG
    D. widening of the QT interval
    A. tall peaked T waves on an ECG
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. The pericardial sac normally holds about _____ mL of ______.

    A. 1 to 2, serous fluid
    B. 30, blood
    C. 25, straw-colored lubricant
    D. 100, blood
    C. 25, straw-colored lubricant
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. The predominant effect of a drug with primarily alpha properties would result in which of the following?

    A. vasodilation
    B. decreased heart rate
    C. increased heart rate
    D. vasoconstriction
    D. vasoconstriction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Your patient is a 55 year-old male who is in moderate distress and complaining of chest pain. He states that he experienced an acute onset of left-sided crushing chest pain while playing basketball with his grandson.  He complains of weakness and near-syncope with exertion.  His skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic.  HR=40, BP=72/40, RR=20, SaO2=95%.  The monitor shows a third-degree AV block.  Which of the following is most appropriate?

    A. Aspirin, nitroglycerin, and morphine
    B. Atropine, 0.5 mg, up to 2.0 mg
    C. sedation and transcutaneous pacing
    D. Dopamine at 5 mcg/kg/min
    C. sedation and transcutaneous pacing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. A patient's ECG shows regular RR intervals of 0.48 seconds, a PR interval of 0.12 seconds, and a QRS of 0.08 seconds.  This best fits the criteria for:

    A. normal sinus rhythm
    B. supraventricular tachycardia
    C. sinus bradycardia
    D. sinus tachycardia
    D. sinus tachycardia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Increased _____ does NOT occur due to increased venous return to the heart.

    A. myocardial stretch
    B. stroke volume
    C. afterload
    D. myocardial contraction
    C. afterload
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Which of the following is NOT a consideration when deciding to withhold resuscitative efforts?

    A. indications of "down time"
    B. the nature of the injury
    C. documentation of the patient's wishes
    D. patient's age
    D. patient's age
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Which of the following is most likely to be associated  with torsades de pointes?

    A. Preexcitation syndrome
    B. idiopathic ventricular irritability
    C. block at the Bundle of Kent
    D. concomitant use of an antidysrhythmic and antihistamine
    D. concomitant use of an antidysrhythmic and antihistamine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Which of the following features distinguishes a PAC from a PVC?

    A. a PVC is usually followed by a fully compensatory pause, while a PAC is not
    B. PACs are always inifocal, while PVCs may be unifocal or multifocal
    C. PVCs may occur in a pattern of bigeminy, while PACs do not
    d. All of the above are distinguishing features
    A. a PVC is usually followed by a fully compensatory pause, while a PAC is not
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. A patient's ECG shows a rhythm at a rate of 40, regular RR intervals, a varying PR interval, and a QRS of 0.28 seconds.  This best fits the criteria for:

    A. sinus bradycardia with PVCs
    B. second-degree type II AV block
    C. third-degree AV block
    D. first-degree AV block
    C. third-degree AV block
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. A patient's ECG shows a rhythm at a rate of 42, regular RR intervals, a PR interval of 0.16 seconds, and a QRS of 0.12 seconds.  This vest fits the criteria for:

    A. sinus bradycardia
    B. atrial flutter
    C. sinus dysrhythmia
    D. atrial fibrillation
    A. sinus bradycardia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Which of the following best describes the physiology of anastomoses?

    A. provide alternative routes of myocardial conduction
    B. allow right-to-left shunt
    C. provide collateral circulation of the myocardium
    D. receive blood from the great cardiac and lateral marginal veins of the heart
    C. provide collateral circulation of the myocardium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Which of the following can be determined by lead II cardiac monitoring?

    A. chamber enlargement
    B. presence of a myocardial infarction, but not its location
    C. axis deviation
    D. impulse conduction time
    D. impulse conduction time
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. An action potential begins  in a myocardial cell when _____ enters the cell, giving it a _____ charge.

    A. sodium, negative
    B. calcium, negative
    C. calcium, positive
    D. sodium, positive
    D. sodium, positive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. A positive dromotropic agent will:

    A. increase the force of myocardial contractions
    B. increase the speed of impulse conduction through the myocardium
    C. decrease the force of myocardial contractions
    D. decrease the speed of impulse conduction through the myocardium
    B. increase the speed  of impulse conduction through the myocardium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. The most serious characteristic of PVCs according to the Lown grading system is:

    A. greater than 30 per hour
    B. couplets
    C. R on T phenomenon
    D. multifocal
    C. R on T phenomenon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Slowing of the electrical impulse at the AV node is necessary to allow time for the _____ to fill with blood.

    A. atria
    B. coronary arteries
    C. ventricles
    D. coronary sinus
    C. ventricles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. At standard speed a 1 mm box on ECG paper represents _____ seconds.

    A. 0.08
    B. 0.10
    C. 0.12
    D. 0.04
    D. 0.04
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Artifacts such as muscle tremors can make assessment of a paced rhythm difficult because:

    A. artifacts can cause the pacer to fire prematurely
    B. the QRS complexes may be obscured by pacer spikes
    C. artifacts can obscure the pace spikes
    D. the pacemaker may take the artifact for an electrical impulse and not fire
    C. artifacts can obscure the pacer spikes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. There are three large boxes between R waves on an ECG tracing.  What is the heart rate?

    A. 75
    B. 100
    C. 50
    D. 150
    B. 100
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the left ventricle, interventricular septum, and portions of the cardiac conduction system?

    A. posterior descending
    B. left coronary
    C. marginal
    D. right coronary
    B. left coronary
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. The thick middle tissue layer of the heart is the:

    A. endocardium
    B. pericardium
    C. myocardium
    D. epicardium
    C. myocardium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. A patient's ECG shows a rhythm at a rate of 64, regular RR intervals, a PR interval of 0.24 seconds, and a QRS of 0.12 seconds.  This best fits the criteria for:

    A. second-degree type II AV block
    B. third-degree AV block
    C. first-degree AV block
    D. second-degree type I AV block
    C. first-degree AV block
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. The appearance of a pathological Q wave on an ECG indicates the presence of _____ tissue.

    A. injured
    B. infarcted
    C. reperfused
    D. ischemic
    B. infarcted
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Which of the following describes the ability of a cardiac cell to propagate the electrical impulse to another cell?

    A. contractility
    B. excitability
    C. conductivity
    D. automaticity
    C. conductivity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. BNP is a hormone that is:

    A. elevated when the chemoreceptors sense increased pulmonary congestion
    B. released when the atria is stretched
    C. released when the ventricle is stretched
    D. released when both atria and ventricles are stretched
    C. released when the ventricle is stretched
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. A patient with WPW may experience dysrhythmias secondary to a disturbance in what conduction pathway?

    A. Bundle of His
    B. Bundle of Kent
    C. Left posterior fascicule
    D. Interatrial pathways
    B. Bundle of Kent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Without careful management a patient with WPW may degrade into what lethal dysrhythmia?

    A. mobitz II heart block
    B. sinus tachycardia
    C. junctional tachycardia
    D. ventricular fibrillation
    D. ventricular fibrillation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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