pearson tests

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  1. The hormones produced by the adrenal cortex to protect one during a stressful situation are
  2. The medial malleolus is a projection at the ankle of the
  3. Muscles are attached to bones by
  4. The amount of air taken in with a normal breath is about 500 cc and is referred to as
    tidal volume
  5. The long narrow tubes that drain urine from the kidneys to the bladder are called:
  6. An example of reticular tissue is
  7. The descending colon is attached at this anatomical feature
    splenic flexure
  8. The valve to the right ventricle is the
  9. Fertilization occurs in the
  10. Which of the following bacilli are spore-forming anaerobes, found in soil, and capable of causing gas gangrene?
    Clostridium perfringens
  11. An enzyme produced by some virulent microorganisms, such as thehemolytic streptococcus, that breaks down fibrin and leads to wound infection is
  12. The most likely portal of entry for the Treponema pallidum organism is
    the genitourinary tract
  13. The type of isolation recommended for the immunocompromised, burn, or organ transplant patient is:
  14. After following instructions on the penicillin label for reconstitution, you note that the concentration is “250,000 U/ml.” The preference card calls for 500,000 U of penicillin to be added to 500 ml of NS. How many milliliters of penicillin would you draw up?
    2 ml
  15. A 50% solution of dextrose in water means that
    there are 50 g of dextrose in 100 ml of water
  16. A drug commonly used to reduce vascular spasms during vascular surgery is:
  17. A local anesthetic that is only used topically is
    cocaine hydrochloride
  18. An enzyme sometimes added to a local anesthetic to enhance infiltration/spread is:
    hyaluronidase (Wydase)
  19. The force or push that moves free electrons from one atom to another is referred to as
  20. Which of the following electrical energy concepts is measured in Hertz?
  21. Which of the following electrical energy concepts is measured in Watts?
  22. Which of the following electrical energy concepts is measured in Ohms?
  23. Which of the following concepts of electrical energy is true?
    radiofrequency cycles at approximately 100,000 cycles per second
  24. Which of the following statements concerning current is true?
    Alternating current flows back and forth along a single pathway due to changes in polarity.
  25. Which of the concepts of electrosurgical unit (ESU) electrical energy flow is correct?
    Use of monopolar energy flow may result in alternate site burns.
  26. The electrical energy device that causes the collagen matrix in vessel walls and connective tissue to reform into a permanently fused tissue matrix is the:
  27. The mechanical energy device that uses a peizoelectric transducer to create mechanical friction energy is called the:
    Harmonic Scalpel®
  28. The characteristics of light energy include all of the following except:
  29. The characteristics of LASER light include all of the following except:
  30. The method of heat transfer used in a neonatal warmer is:
  31. The heat transference that results from contact of internal organs with a cool irrigation solution is:
  32. Computer input devices include a:
  33. The single robotic arm:
    attaches to the bedrail of the OR table
  34. The mechanical energy device that uses an ultrasonic vibrating tip to “break up” and vacuum away tissue is the:
    Cavitational Ultrasonic Suction Aspirator
  35. A particle of LASER light energy is called a/an:
  36. To decrease airborne contamination and static electricity, the relative humidity of the operating room is maintained at:
    50% to 55%
  37. Which of the following antiseptics is not used as a skin prep when using electrosurgery or LASER?
    isopropyl alcohol
  38. Pressurized water is most effective in containing:
    class A fires
  39. The legal doctrine which holds the institution liable for failure to ensure an acceptable level of care is:
    corporate negligence
  40. Defamation or injury to an individual’s character carried out in writing is called:
  41. Which of the following is a recommended ventilation practice in an individual operating room?
    use of in-line HEPA filters
  42. Which of the following is not a requirement for an individual operating room?
    grounded wall outlets 2 feet above the floor
  43. The process of destroying microorganisms on inanimate (nonliving) objects is
  44. The procedure for destroying pathogens at the end of the procedure is:
    terminal sterilization
  45. The Bowie-Dick test must be run daily in which of the following types of sterilizers?
  46. Which of the following types of sterilizers would require a drying cycle?
    gravity displacement
  47. In the middle of the surgical procedure, a critical stainless steel instrument is contaminated and there is no sterile replacement. Which time setting would be selected for the flash autoclave?
    3 minutes
  48. When storing sterile packs, you should place them:
    behind packs with older dates
  49. When disinfecting instruments for use, you would do all of the followingexcept:
    rinse immediately before putting in the germicide
  50. The purpose of keeping doors to the operating room closed is to:
    maintain positive pressure
  51. If the temperature on the steam sterilizer reads 270°F, what should the pressure reading be?
    27 psi
  52. An expressed concern of the patient that he or she will be paralyzed following spinal anesthesia should be reported to the:
    anesthesia provider
  53. Persons witnessing the signing of the consent for surgery attest to all of the following except:
    that the surgeon fully explained the surgery to the patient and family and they understand it
  54. Which of the following positions for surgery might require the use of shoulder braces?
  55. Postural hypotension is a threat when the patient is placed in which of the following positions?
  56. For the patient in the prone position, the weight of the body should be borne by the:
    iliac crests and acromion processes
  57. Which of the following lab values falls within the normal range?
    hematocrit of 45%
  58. You are assigned to scrub on a gunshot wound of the abdomen with a perforated bowel and will expect the surgeon to:
    clean up the wound, pack the wound to keep wound edges apart, and bring the patient back at a later date for delayed closure
  59. During which phase of wound healing is the strength of the wound limited to the suture holding it together?
    lag phase (inflammatory)
  60. Inadvertent removal of which one of the following drains during the first 48 hours after placement would cause the least concern?
    nasogastric tube
  61. Which suture is contraindicated both in the presence of infection and in the urinary or biliary tract?
  62. With which of the following staplers would the surgeon need assistance in application?
    skin stapler
  63. Which one of the following scalpel handles would be needed for a #20 blade?
  64. Which of the following is a voluntary demonstration of competency in a professional area?
  65. Critical thinking skills require the Surgical Technologist to develop and implement plans of care based on knowledge and experience. Place the steps of critical thinking skills in order.1. evaluate2. plan3. assess4. implement
    3, 2, 4, 1
  66. Which of the following credential is the most restrictive type of professional credentialing?
  67. In Erickson’s developmental stages, the elderly patient over 65 is addressing which major psychological issues?
    ego integrity versus despair
  68. Place the five stages of Maslow’s hierarchy in order from simple to complex.1. love and belonging2. safety needs3. self-actualization4. physiological needs5. self-esteem
    4, 2, 1, 5, 3
  69. When considering employment qualities, the desire to give the best care possible is called:
  70. The divisions of the small intestines in order beginning at the pyloric sphincter are:
    duodenum, jejunum, ileum
  71. What specialty supply is used when performing minimally invasive surgery (laparoscopy) using the open method?
    Hasson device
  72. A hernia that forms due to a defect in the internal inguinal ring is referred to as a _____ hernia.
    indirect inguinal
  73. A “twisting” of the bowel causing obstruction is called a/an:
  74. Surgical enlargement of the passage between the prepylorus of the stomach and the duodenum is called a:
  75. The telescoping of proximal intestine into the lumen of distal intestine is called a/an:
  76. The scissors used to open the common bile duct during duct exploration are called:
  77. The liver performs all of the following functions except:
    synthesis of insulin
  78. The most common type of hernia is the:
    indirect inguinal
  79. A Meckel’s diverticulum is found in the:
  80. The colon walls are made up of axial strips of muscle called the _____ and outpouches of the wall called _____.
    teniae coli; haustras
  81. Upon completion of a colon anastamosis, the defect in the _____ must be closed to prevent postoperative obstruction.
  82. The organ that synthesizes cholesterol is the:
  83. Mr. Robertson, aged 82, enters the hospital, complaining of right upper quadrant pain with nausea and vomiting. He is jaundiced (yellow skin). He is scheduled for exploratory surgery.49. Preoperative testing for Mr. Robertson would include all of the followingexcept:
    type and crossmatch
  84. The test that would help decide if Mr. Robertson has cholecystitis would be:
    CBC with differential
  85. What medication would be used during an intraoperative evaluation of Mr. Robertson’s common bile duct?
    diatrizoate sodium
  86. Intraoperatively the surgeon decides to perform a Cholecystostomy. The drain placed into Mr. Robertson’s infected gallbladder would be a:
  87. A woman who is pregnant for the first time is:
  88. The position of choice for the patient with a prolapsed umbilical cord is:
    turned onto the patient’s on left side
  89. The clamps most desirable for approximating uterine wound edges for closure during a Cesarean section are:
  90. Excessive uterine bleeding occurring both during menses and at irregular intervals is:
  91. A simple diagnostic procedure to differentiate normal from abnormal cervical or vaginal tissue by a staining technique is:
    Schiller’s test
  92. The removal of a fibroid tumor from the uterus is a/an:
  93. A Radical Hysterectomy with Pelvic Lymphadenectomy is a/an:
    Wertheim operation
  94. Stirrups would not be required for which of the following procedures:
    Abdominal Hysterectomy
  95. Types of dilators used to dilate or open the cervix include all of the followingexcept:
  96. dilators are used to dilate or open the cervix.
    Hanks, Hegar, and Goodell
  97. Fallopian tube patency is verified through a procedure called:
  98. The procedure which includes removal of the terminal portions of vulvar orifices and tissues of the vulva, inguinal lymph nodes, and associated structures is:
    Radical Vulvectomy
  99. The mass is found to be a simple ovarian cyst. The surgeon decides to perform an I&D (incision and drainage).The specimen from this procedure would be sent:
    o Cytology without any solution for examination of the cells
  100. Which of the following dressing materials would NOT be used for this procedure (diagnostic laparoscopy)?
    Xeroform gauze
  101. X-ray visualization of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder following an intravenous injection of dye is a diagnostic test called:
    intravenous urogram
  102. Which of the following instruments could be used to dilate a male urethra?
    van Buren sound
  103. A special sterilization permit would be needed for which of the following procedures?
  104. Common tips found on ureteral catheters include all of the following except:
  105. Clinical indications for performing Cystoscopy include all of the followingexcept
    glomerulonephritis, indicated by a urine specific gravity of 1.020
  106. The procedure of choice to treat irreparable hydronephrosis is:
  107. Ureterolithotomy is performed with all of the following instruments except:
    #10 blade on a #4 handle
  108. An Ileal Conduit involves:
    implanting the ureters into an isolated segment of ileum
  109. The procedure for urinary stress incontinence during which cystoscopy is performed is the _____ procedure.
    Stamey procedure
  110. Suture used to close the ureter would include:
    4-0 dexon
  111. Which plastic surgery procedure is performed to change the urethral meatus from the ventral surface of the penis to its normal position at the tip of the penis?
    Hypospadius Repair
  112. During kidney transplantation, the renal artery and vein are anastomosed to the:
    iliac artery and iliac vein
  113. The surgical procedure done to straighten a deviated septum in the nose is a/an:
    Submucous Resection
  114. The type of Tympanoplasty which involves malleus damage and a graft placed between the tympanic membrane and the incus is:
    Type II
  115. The medication used during ear surgery to reduce bleeding is:
  116. The prosthesis that replaces the malleus and incus is called a/an:
    Partial Ossicular Replacement Prosthesis
  117. Which of the following instruments is not used during nasal surgery?
    aural speculum
  118. A sampling of the lymph nodes in the neck region is referred to as a:
    Scalene Node Biopsy
  119. When performing interdental wiring for fracture fixation, which of the following is true?
    Remove the throat pack before placement of the elastic bands on the approximating appliance (arch bars).
  120. Surgical hazards associated with a Thyroidectomy include all of the followingexcept:
    damage to the facial nerve
  121. The transparent, absorbable sponge used to support a graft in the ear is:
  122. The nerve which may be injured during Mastoidectomy is the:
    Facial Nerve
  123. The surgical procedure to open the maxillary sinus by way of the canine fossa for removal of the sinus contents is referred to as:
    Caldwell Luc
  124. The treatment for persistent epistaxis is:
    Internal Maxillary Artery Ligation
  125. The medication used during ear surgery to reduce bleeding is:
  126. Which of the following is true of an autogenous tissue graft taken from the temporalis fascia for use on the tympanic membrane?
    placed on a drying block to allow it to stiffen before insertion
  127. Salivary glands include which of the following?
  128. Preoperative testing which should be reported for the patient undergoing Tonsillectomy would be:
    PTT—7 minutes
  129. The facial bone which makes up the bony structure of the outer aspect of cheek is the:
  130. A malar fracture is a fracture primarily involving which bone?
  131. Homografts or heterografts used as temporary coverings for denuded skin are called:
    biological dressings
  132. Tissue transfer from one part of the body to another with the graft tissue’s blood supply left intact is called a/an:
    pedicle graft
  133. Special fine-tipped forceps used in plastic surgery include:
  134. Brown and Padgett are examples of which type of equipment used for skin grafting?
    motor dermatome
  135. Otoplasty is performed for which of the following diagnoses?
  136. In orthopedic surgery, absorbable suture would most likely be used on:
  137. The patient would be placed in the prone position for which of these procedures?
    Excision of a Baker’s Cyst
  138. When assisting with the application of a plaster cast, you would do all of the following except:
    secure a bucket of hot water
  139. Heavy suture is used to reattach a weakened anterior capsule to the glenoid fossa to correct recurrent dislocation of the shoulder in which procedure?
    Bankhart Procedure
  140. The fixation device(s) most commonly used for intratrochanteric fractures of the femur include(s):
    compression plates and screws
  141. The implant used on small bone fragments or as part of skeletal traction is called:
    steinmann pin
  142. The sterile tourniquet cuff is applied:
    during draping but before other drapes are placed over the upper extremity
  143. Casting material can be made from all of the following materials except:
  144. The stage of osteogenesis where there is a proliferation of cells from the fracture site into the fibrin to form fibrous connective tissue and cartilage is called:
    callus stage
  145. The method of fracture treatment where a pulling force is exerted directly on the bone itself via a pin in the bone using a system of weights and pulleys is called:
    skeletal traction with balanced suspension
  146. A fracture where the tendonous attachments of the bone are torn away is called a/an:
  147. The method of fracture treatment where a pulling force is exerted directly on the bone itself via a pin in the bone using a system of weights and pulleys is called:
    skeletal traction with balanced suspension
  148. Methods of prosthetic fixation and stabilization include all of the following except:
    biofixation using polymethylmethacrylate
  149. The “freeing up” of an entrapped nerve is referred to as a/an:
  150. The procedure which consists of excision and fusion of the middle phalangeal joint of the foot with incision of the flexor tendon is:
    Correction of Hammer Toe Deformity
  151. The fracture commonly treated with angled blade plates or a long cancellous screw would be:
    tibial plateau fracture
  152. Which position is the patient placed in for an Anterior Cervical Discectomy and Fusion?
  153. Long cancellous screws placed with a gliding hole for the shaft provide:
    compression of bone fragments
  154. A potential complication of ischemia of the femoral head is:
    avascular necrosis
  155. The corner of the eye is called the:
  156. A Radial Keratotomy is done to correct:
  157. Which of the following surgical procedures is an intraocular procedure?
  158. The procedure involving the removal of all orbital contents is called:
  159. The surgical schedule shows the first operation to be “ECCE with IOL, OD.” You will be prepared for:
    removal of a cataract with lens implant in the right eye
  160. Drapes included in the eye pack are (1) split sheet, (2) plastic eye sheet, (3) head drape. The order in which they will be used is:
    3, 1, 2
  161. All of the following are potential complications during intraocular surgery except:
  162. The term used to describe the eye’s ability to adapt for near and far vision is:
  163. The space between the lens and the iris/pupil is called the:
    posterior chamber
  164. Sagging and eversion of the lower lid is termed a/an:
  165. The removal of a portion of an ocular muscle with reattachment is called a/an:
  166. Removal of a fleshy encroachment on the cornea is called:
    Pterygium Excision
  167. Esotropia is:
    convergent strabismus
  168. The operative microscope in ophthalmic surgery often uses which objective lens distance?
  169. Which of the following ophthalmic LASER/use combinations is incorrect?
    CO2 for Vitrectomy
  170. Presbyopia is:
  171. The classification of medications used to dilate the pupil while inhibiting the ability to focus are:
  172. Injectable agents for ophthamologic anesthesia include all of the following except:
    tetracaine hydrochloride
  173. The instrument used to excise vitreous humor is called a/an:
  174. Miotic agents include all of the following except:
  175. Dyes used in ophthalmic surgery include which of the following?
    flourescein sodium
  176. A mass of undissolved matter carried in the blood is:
  177. For visualization of the pleurae, lower and middle mediastinum, and pericardium, the surgeon would need a:
  178. With which of the following procedures would you expect the greatest amount of bleeding?
    Decortication of the Lung
  179. Portosystemic shunts include all of the following except:
  180. Facts concerning arteriovenous fistulas and shunts include all of the following except that they:
    are usually performed in the upper arm or leg
  181. Vena cava filter devices are inserted to prevent pulmonary emboli by trapping clots from the venous system of the legs and include which of the following?
    Greenfield filter
  182. The autogenous graft which is left in place after destruction of the internal valves and then sutured into the arterial system is:
    in-situ saphenous vein graft
  183. The instrument used to approximate the ribs following Thoracotomy is the:
    Bailey rib contractor
  184. When a rib is removed, the remaining bone edges are trimmed with a:
    Stille-Luer rongeur
  185. The diagnostic procedure which permits visualization of the Great Vessels is called
  186. Venous air embolism would be a surgical complication more likely to occur in patients having a/an:
    Posterior Fossa Craniotomy in the sitting position
  187. Craniosynostosis is treated with which surgical procedure?
  188. What is the position of choice for supratentoral craniotomy?
    dorsal recumbent
  189. The instrument used to remove a herniated nucleus pulposus during Laminectomy/Discectomy is the:
    pituitary rongeur
  190. The tissue encountered under the skin of the scalp is the:
  191. Closure of the dura mater would be accomplished using any of the following suture materials except:
    chromic gut
  192. The procedure for the treatment of chronic pain which involves surgery on the nerve root is referred to as:
  193. Which of the following is a dye that should not be used to mark the skin prior to neurosurgical procedures?
    methylene blue
  194. Dural traction sutures are secured with:
  195. The tissue/structure found in the sella turcica is the:
    pituitary gland
  196. The meningeal layer space where bleeding most commonly occurs following trauma is the:
    subdural space
  197. CN I:
    Olfactory Nerve
  198. CN II
  199. CN III :
    Oculomotor Nerve
  200. CN V
    Trigeminal Nerve
  201. CN IV :
  202. CN VI
  203. CN VII :
    Facial Nerve
  204. CN VIII
    Vestibulocochlear Nerve
  205. CN IX
  206. CN X :
    Vagus Nerve
  207. CN XI
    Accessory or spinal-accessory
  208. CN XII
Card Set:
pearson tests
2013-04-29 20:11:56
surgical tech

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