Unit 5 (Traumatic Disease)

trauma is the most common cause of death
between the ages of:

the cost of traumatic disease to the US:

list the three critical periods after injury:

if death occurs in the first critical time period, it is usually due to:

list the classifications of injury in the 1st triage:

list the classifications of injury in the 2nd triage:

list the three classifications of medical facilities and their abilities:

CDC recognizes that ERs play a major role in the treatment of minor injuries and more recently they recognize them as:

name three main types of trauma injuries that are being directed straight to CT:

how likely is a kidney injury with blunt trauma of the abdomen?

why are CTs preferred over IVUs with blunt trauma of the abdomen?

what is the canadian rule when it comes to CT for trauma injuries?

new orleans helical computed tomography (HCT) rule – CT should be performed on patients with a GCS of _____ in combination with any one of the following:

the national emergency x-radiography utilization study (NEXUS) concluded that CT demonstrated a ______ sensitivity for cervical fractures, while radiography has a _____ specificity for cervical injury.

what are the three most common injury causes to the cervical spine in vehicular accidents?

hyperextension injuries of the head and neck or direct trauma to the neck can injure the:

most frequent type of injury involving a vertebral body:

most common sites of compression fracture in the spine:

a fracture of the arch of the second cervical vertebra that is usually accompanied by anterior subluxation of the second cervical vertebra on the third cervical vertebra:

a burst fracture of C-1 caused by axial force causing compression:

a type of fracture that involves only one column of the spine, either the anterior column or the posterior column:

a type of fracture that involves both columns of bone of the spine:

evaluation of trauma cervical spine radiographs may require:

temporary neurological function is lost when there is ___________ of the spinal cord, and there is permanent loss of neurological function when the cord is ____________.

laceration of the cord above the _____ cervical vertebra is usually fatal, while laceration below this level results in paralysis:

of value in the detection of spinal fractures:
of value for horizontal fractures:
of value for soft tissue injury to the cord:

the brain is protected by (3):

the major neurologic cause of mortality and morbidity in individuals under 50 years of age:

review the three meninges:

skull fractures are often seen with accompanying:

skull fractures that enter sinuses or mastoid area can cause:

open skull fractures are at risk for:

three classification of skull fractures:

cerebral cranial fracture is a term referring to a fracture in the:

when it comes to fractures of the skull, the _________ of the fracture is more important than the __________ of the fracture.

describe linear fractures of the skull:

describe depression fractures of the skull:

describe basilar fractures of the skull:

an injury that occurs from acceleration and rapid deceleration of the head in which there is no penetration wound:

name some occurrences with a closed head injury (3):

name some symptoms, recovery, and treatment associated with a concussion:

a traumatic injury that results from a direct blow to the head in which there is bruising of the brain parenchyma:

CT demonstrates contusions as:

a contusion formed on the side of the head where the trauma occurs:

a contusion formed on the opposite side of the skull in reference to the site of trauma:

symptoms of a contusion:

treatment for a contusion:

persistence of loss of consciousness for more than 24 hours:

comas most commonly result from:

modalities to determine the cause of a coma:

four types of hematoma:

results from a torn artery, usually the middle meningeal artery often resulting from a fracture fragment of the squamous portion of the temporal bone:

which type of hematoma has the highest mortality rate?

delayed coma can occur with:

name the three stages of a subdural hematoma:

a type of hematoma that occurs most often at the vertex, resulting from tearing of small vessels and is usually limited to one or two sulci:

bleeding within the brain that can result from trauma, ruptured hemangiomas, or stroke:

diagnosis of hematomas is based on:

a discontinuity of bone caused by mechanical forces:

fracture that occurs in abnormal bone weakened by a disease process:

how many projections must be made to evaluate a fracture?

radiographic appearance of a bone fracture:

signs indicating possible radiographic fracture (6):

volar:

damages that can occur from fractures:

blood in the joint:

what type of projection is used to determine ligamentous stability?

what is the first assessment of a possible ligamentous injury?

in radiographing for fractures, give an indication that the film is too light and in indication that the film is too dark:

bone can reactivate processes that occur during:

know the steps for bone regeneration (6):

healing process steps (5):

refers to a fracture that does not heal in the usual time:

a fracture that heals in a faulty position:

a fracture in which healing does not occur and the fragments do not join:

what can cause a non-union fracture to occur?

types of common bone fractures (9):

a fracture that breaks through the skin:

a fracture that does not break through the skin:

a rib fracture that penetrates the lung often results in:

complications of skeletal fractures include:

classifications based on the appearance of these fracture line types (5):

fracture classifications based on location (4):

treatments of fractures (2):

one or more fragments separate along the edges of the major fragment, in addition to the major line of the fracture:

criteria to determine a comminuted fracture:

a comminuted fracture in which there are one or two wedge-shaped fragments that split off from the main fragment:

a comminuted fracture with long, sharp-pointed fragments:

bone has separated into two fragments and may be named according to the direction of the fracture line:

a type of break in the bone which is very unstable and one of the rarest breaks:

Pathological fractures are frequently __________ fractures.

a type of fracture that occurs when a fragment of bone is pulled away from the shaft:

where do avulsion fractures usually occur?

what type of fracture is a chip fracture?

what type of fracture is a break of a spinous process?

a fracture in which only part of the bony structure gives way, with little or no displacement:

fracture in which the cortex breaks on one side without separation or breaking of the opposing cortex:

in what patients are greenstick fractures most common?

a type of greenstick fracture in which the cortex bulges outward:

a type of incomplete fracture resulting from penetration by a sharp object:

a fracture involving the end of a long bone and may affect the growth of the bone:

a classification scale of growth plate fractures according to severity:

a growth plate injury in which a posterior and inferior slippage of the proximal femoral epiphysis on the metaphysis through the physeal plate occurs:

when and in who does SCFE occur?

a type of fracture that usually occurs as a result of an abnormal degree of repetitive trauma:

a type of fracture that occurs at sites of maximal strain on a bone, usually in connection with unaccustomed activity:

where is a fatigue fracture most commonly found?

a fracture that gives clinical signs of its presence without radiologic evidence:

where are occult fractures most common and what is done?

an avulsion fracture of the ulnar styoid process  and through the distal end of the radius in which the distal fragment is usually angled backward on the shaft, with impaction along the dorsal aspect:

a fracture of the wrist with displacement toward the palmar aspect of the hand:

a fracture that occurs from some type of blow to or with the hand, affecting the 4th or 5th metacarpal:

a fracture and dislocation of the first carpometocarpal joint, resulting in an avulsion fracture of the base of the first metacarpal in association with a dislocation of the trapezium from the pulling action of the abductor pollicus longus tendon in the hand:

a fracture that occurs when the thumb is forced backwards while in partial flexion:

where is the anatomical snuffbox located?

a fracture of the fifth metatarsal bone of
the foot that occurs in the midfoot area:

a fracture of the proximal third of the ulnar shaft, with anterior dislocation of the radial head:

a fracture that occurs at the proximal radius with a dislocation of the distal radial ulnar joint (DRUJ):

a fracture that involves both malleoli, with dislocation of the ankle joint:

involves the medial and posterior malleoli of the tibia and the lateral malleolus of the fibula:

a fracture that consists of a severe ankle sprain or disruption of the syndesmosis between the distral tibia and fibula with a fracture of the proximal third of the fibula:

an indicator of a non-visualized, underlying fracture of the bones of the elbow:

which fat pad is normally present, and which fat pad is only present if there is a pathology involved?

what are two dislocations of the fat pads?

fractures of the facial bones:

any time there is a head or facial trauma, what must be done?

clinical signs of zygomatic arch fracture:

a fracture in which the zygomatic bone is fractured at all three sutures: frontal, temporal, and maxillary and is accompanied by restricted jaw movement:

the mandible is prone to fracture because of:

the mandible is strongest at the _______ and weakest at the _______, with the most common site for fracture at the _______, followed by the ________.

what is the slowest healing bone in the body?

why is a fracture of the maxilla considered especially serious?

name the three classifications of maxillary fractures:

a fracture caused by direct blow to the front of the orbit that transfers the force to the orbital walls and floor:

what is the best projection for viewing a blowout fracture?

what is the most frequently fractured facial bone?

how is the nasal bone usually fractured?

when the bone is out of the joint:

a partial dislocation, often occurring with a fracture:

shoulder dislocations are usually:

a compression fracture of the articular surface of the humeral head often associated with an anterior dislocation of the humeral head:

what projection best demonstrates a hill-sachs defect?

name two causes of posterior dislocations of the shoulder, and two projections that best view them:

bankart fracture

traumatic dislocations of the hip are usually __________ and the femoral head ___________________________.

on an anterior dislocation of the hip, the femoral head:

a softening of the cartilage under the patella which results in wearing away of this cartilage causing pain and tenderness of this area:

an inflammation of the bone and cartilage involving the anterior proximal tibia and is most common in boys ages 10 to 15:

a condition in which the cause is believed to be an injury that occurs when the large patellar tendon detaches part of the tibial tuberosiy to which it is attached:

congenital hip dislocations are usually ___________, are discovered because of __________________________, and are more common in __________.

in which group of patients is an AC joint separation most common in?

a physical form of child abuse that often exists with emotional and sexual abuse and is most common in children under the age of four:

approximately how many deaths occur per year due to child abuse?

physical signs of battered child syndrome:

suspicious injuries concerning battered child syndrome:

battered child syndrome is demonstrated by a
skeletal survey of:

radiographic signs of child abuse:

severe physical abuse that affects a child’s head and neck:

give the survival statistics of shaken baby syndrome:

bone death resulting from inadequate blood supply:

in which patients is avascular necrosis most common and what does it affect?

avascular necrosis is best seen in which modality?

what occurs in the late stages of avascular necrosis and how is it treated?

what treatment can be attempted if avascular necrosis is diagnosed early?

a common form of the ischemic necrosis of bone group of diseases of unknown cause and which affects the epiphyses and may be easily mistaken for tuberculosis of the skeletal system:

legg-perthes disease refers specifically to:

in which pts is legg-perthes disease most common?

when may pts be inserted in the 4th or 5th intercostal space without waiting for a chest radiograph?

when do changes to the lungs due to contusion appear?

thoracic aorta traumatic injury is characterized by:

a condition in which free air is trapped in the pleural space and compresses the lung tissue, which may occur spontaneously from perforation of the visceral pleura, or by generation of gas by gas-forming organisms in an empyema:

common causes of pneumothorax:

a flaccid vesicle, like a blister:

common symptoms of pneumothorax:

radiographic appearance of pneumothorax:

an artifact that can mimic a pneumothorax, such as a wrinkle in the patient's skin:

a condition that occurs when air enters the pleural space but cannot leave the space because of a check valve mechanism in the fistula, results in a complete collapse of the lung and a shift of the mediastinum to the opposite side:

a pneumothorax resulting in a collapse of ________ is usually treated by bedrest.

name two possible treatments of pneumothorax:

incomplete expansion of the lung as a result
of partial or total collapse, but is not a disease itself, but a sign of an abnormal process:

seen after thoracic or abdominal surgical procedures:

what is notable about the diaphragm with atelectasis?

examples of compression atelectasis:

caused from air being completely absorbed from alveoli beyond an obstructed bronchus:

one or more linear opacities visualized on a radiograph, usually at the lung bases and parallel to the diaphragm:

three treatments for atelectasis:

when death occurs because of abdominal injury it usually occurs:

films that should be taken following an abdominal trauma:

portion of the GI tract most often damaged by blunt trauma:

the presence of fee air in the peritoneum:

causes of pneumoperitoneum:

describe radiographic projections for a pneumoperitoneum:

a lucent, oval gas collection that corresponds to the anterior peritoneal cavity indicating a pneumoperitoneum:

spasm of the feet and hands observed in hyperventilaion, calcium deprivation, and tetany: