Biochem test 4

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Biochem test 4
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Rutgers intro to biochem exam 4 murphy
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  1. 1) The liver performs all of the following functions except

    A) Blood glucose regulation
    B) Processing of foreign molecules
    C) Storage of energy in the form of fat
    D) Synthesis of plasma protein
    E)  Synthesis of urea
    C
  2. 2) During  fasting and prolonged starvation, skeletal muscle

    A) Protein is degrades to provide amino acids to the liver for gluconeogenesis
    B)  Released as fat into the blood for storage in adipose tissue
    C)  Is synthesized from blood lactate
    D) Converts glutamine molecules  to proline
    E) None of the above are correct
    A
  3. 3) The cells that line the small intestine, which are responsible for the absorption of nutrients into the body, are called

    A) Adipocytes
    B) Tubule cells
    C) Hepatocytes
    D) Enterocytes
    E) Epithelial cells
    D
  4. 4) The functions of the kidney include all of the following except

    A) Blood pH regulation
    B) Body water regulation
    C) Reabsorption of electrolytes, sugars, and amino acids from the urinary filtrate
    D) Filtration of blood plasma which results in the excretion of water-soluble waste products
    E) Production of urea from ammonia
    E
  5. 5) The most distinctive characteristic of living organisms is

    Cellular structure
    The autonomous capacity to sustain adequate operating conditions
    Utilization of carbon compounds as food
    Complex cellular mechanisms
    Utilizing environmental materials as energy sources
    B
  6. 6) A simple system for information flow is composed of three components : reception, transduction and response.  In multicellular organisms hormones play a role in which phase?

    A)  Reception
    B)  Transduction
    C)   Response
    D) Hormones are not involved in the process of information flow
    E) Both A and B are correct
    A
  7. 7) In a metabolic steady state the rate of anabolic processes is approximately equal to:

    Catabolic processes 
    Cellular energy needs
    Nutrient intake
    Cellular repair and growth
    B and C
    A
  8. 8)  In animals the vast majority of water soluble hormones are 

    Peptides
    Steroids
    Polypeptides
    Carbohydrates
    A and C
    E
  9. 9) The molecules that mediate the growth-promoting actions of GH are referred to as the

    A) Interferons
    B) Mitogens
    C) Insulin-like growth factors
    D) Both B and C are correct
    E) None of the above are correct
    C
  10. 10) Symptoms of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus include all of the following except

    A) Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis
    B) Hypoglycemia
    C) Hyperlipoproteinemia
    D) Ketoacidosis
    E) Polyuria
    B
  11. 11) Steroid hormones

    A) Are transported in blood attached to transport proteins
    B) Bind to intracellular receptors
    C) Diffuse through the plasma membrane of target cells
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    E
  12. 12) Which of the following is not a major source of extracellular signal molecules?

    Steroids
    Modified amino acids
    Carbohydrates
    Fatty acids
    Proteins
    C
  13. 13) The biological effects of atrial natriuretic factor appear to be mediated by ______.

    A) cAMP
    B) cGMP
    C) PIP2
    D) AG
    E) IP3
    B
  14. 14) In animals the ______ system has a primary responsibility for co-ordinating metabolism.

    Nervous
    Lymphatic
    Hepatic
    Endocrine
    A and D
    E
  15. 15) The IP3 receptor

    A) Binds cGMP
    B) Is associated with Gi
    C) Is a calcium channel
    D) Both B and C are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    C
  16. 16) A DNA segment that binds a hormone-receptor complex is called a _________.

    A) DRE
    B) DAG
    C) EGF
    D) HRE
    E) IGF
    D
  17. 17) Calmodulin is a 

    A) Transmembrane receptor
    B) Calcium-binding protein
    C) HSP
    D) Plant hormone
    E) A, B and C are correct
    B
  18. 18) Insulin resistance is

    A) A risk factor for Type I diabetes
    B) A risk factor for Type II diabetes
    C) Caused by excessive production of ANF
    D) Associated with damage to the adrenal gland
    E) None of the above are correct
    B
  19. 19)  Receptors for most water soluble hormones are located in what part of the cell?

    Plasma membrane
    Endoplasmic reticulum
    Nucleus
    Cytoplasm
    Nuclear membrane
    A
  20. 20)  Which of the following is not a second messenger molecule?

    A cGMP 
    B) cAMP
    C) Calcium
    D) Steroids
    E) Inostol-phospholipid system
    D
  21. 21) The most prominent mechanism to prevent excessive hormone syntheis is

    Desensitization
    Downregulation
    Feedback inhibition
    Target cell stimulation
    Sensitization
    C
  22. 22) Enterocytes require large amounts of energy supplied by

    Glucose oxidase
    Fatty acid degradation
    Lactose oxidation
    Glutamine
    Alanine
    D
  23. 23) The organ responsible for processing most foreign molecules is

    Intestine
    Stomach
    Liver
    Kidney
    Blood
    C
  24. 24) Insulin-resistance is associated with all of the following except _______.

    A) Obesity
    B) Desensitizatioin
    C) Down-regulation
    D) IDDM
    E) NIDDM
    D
  25. 25) Biochemical signal molecules include _________.

    A) Amino acids
    B) Fatty acid derivatives
    C) Steroids
    D) Peptides
    E) All of the above are true
    E
  26. 26) Receptor tyrosine kinases are transmembrane receptors that bind ligands such as

    A) Insulin
    B) Epidermal growth factor
    C) Platelet derived growth factor
    D) Insulin like growth factor
    E) All of the above
    E
  27. 27) Which of the following molecules is a second messenger? 

    A) TSH
    B) cGMP
    C) Proline
    D) Calcium
    E) Both B and D are correct
    E
  28. 28 The organ responsible for the regulation of blood pH is

    Liver
    Kidney
    Intestine
    Brain
    Stomach
    B
  29. 29) Most diabetic complications are the result of 

    A) Glycation
    B) Hyperglycemia
    C) Damage to the vascular system
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    E
  30. 30) The principle target tissues of insulin include

    A) Skeletal muscle
    B) Liver
    C) Adipose tissue
    D) Both B and C are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    E
  31. 31) Animals employing several mechanisms to prevent excessive hormone action and release. Examples include which of the following? 

    Genetic regulation
    Feedback inhibition
    Desensitization
    Down regulation
    All of the above are true
    E
  32. 32) Which of the following molecules do GPCRs not respond to?

    Catecholamines
    Oxytocin
    Light
    Dopamine
    Insulin
    E
  33. 33) Which of the following is a role of PKB

    Stimulation of glycogen synthesis
    Inhibition of lipolysis
    Glucose transport into adipocytes
    Activation of mTOR
    All of the above are roles of PKB
    E
  34. 34)  An example of a cytokine is

    Epidermal growth factor
    Interleukins
    Interferons
    Insulin-like growth factors
    B and C
    E
  35. 35) The most serious acute symptom of type 1 diabetes is 

    Anemia
    Ketoacidosis
    Hypoglycemia
    Insulin resistance
    Both A and C are correct
    B
  36. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic non-ketosis can occur in type _____
    Diabetes

    Type I
    Type II
    Insulin dependent diabetes
    Is present in all forms of diabetes
    Is not a symptom of diabetes
    B
  37. During periods of starvation muscle reduces its consumption of glucose. This spares its use for which of the following organs?

    Liver
    Heart
    Kidneys
    Brain
    Lungs
    D
  38. Leptin is secreted by which of the following tissues?

    Brain
    Liver
    Adipose tissue
    Muscle
    Gasterintestinal tract
    C
  39. The brain consumes about _______% of the body’s energy.

    10
    20
    30
    40
    50
    B
  40. The phosphatidylinositol cycle mediates the action of all of the following except ______.

    Acetylcholine
    Insulin
    Glucagon
    Vasopressin
    GRH
    C
  41. 41)) Metabolism of fructose in the liver rapidly depletes which of the following


    NADPH
    ATP
    Triose phosphate
    AMP
    Glucose
    B
  42. 42) An autoimmune disease caused by the destruction of the insulin producing beta cells of the pancreas is called 

    Hyperglycemia
    Dyslipidemia
    Glucosuria
    Type II diabetes
    Type I diabetes
    E
  43. 43) Extreme thirst and frequent urination in diabetics is directly caused by 

    Osmotic diuresis
    Hyperglycemia
    Dyslipidemia
    Glucosuria
    Adipoisledimia
    D
  44. 44) Type II diabetes is uniquely characterized by:

    Hyperinsulinemia
    Depressed insulin levels
    Insulin resistance
    Depressed glucose levels
    A and C
    E
  45. 45) Which of the following carbohydrates is a major contributing cause of 
    dyslipidemia non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

    Glucose
    Ribose
    Fructose
    Galactose
    Xylose
    C
  46. 46) Urea synthesis is the responsibility of which organ of the body?


    Kidney
    Liver
    Intestine
    Stomach
    Lung
    B
  47. 1) The replisome consists of all of the following proteins except _________.

    A) DNA polymerase
    B) DNA topoisomerase
    C) Primase
    D) Catabolic gene activator protein
    E) Helicase
    D
  48. 2)  The experiment that demonstrated the mechanism whereby DNA is synthesized was performed by 

    A) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
    B) Watson and Crick
    C) Linus Pauling
    D) Messelson and Stahl
    E) Maurice Wilkins
    D
  49. 3) The _____ are enzymes that catalyze the unwinding of duplex DNA.

    A) Topoisomerases
    B) Helicases
    C) Ligases
    D) Primases
    E) Unwindases
    B
  50. 4) SSB are

    A) A series of nucleases that degrade RNA primers
    B) Substrates for DNA ligase
    C) Proteins that bind to single-stranded DNA
    D) Enzymes that catalyze Okazaki fragment formation
    E) Molecules that bind to DNA
    C
  51. 5) The background rate of spontaneous mutations is approximately ________ mutations per gene per million gametes

    A) 0.01 to 0.1
    B) 0.1 to 1
    C) 1 to 10
    D) 10 to 100
    E) None of the above are correct
    B
  52. 6) DNA polymerase β is believed to be involved in

    A) Eukaryotic DNA repair
    B) Mitochondrial DNA replication
    C) Chloroplast DNA replication
    D) Prokaryotic DNA synthesis
    E) Chloroplast DNA repair
    A
  53. 7) Mutations are caused by all of the following except ________.

    A) Depurinations
    B) Radiation
    C) Viruses
    D) Oxidative Damage
    E) None of the above are correct
    E
  54. 8) DNA molecules are copied or replicated by a  _______ mechanism.

    A) Conservative
    B) Semiconservative
    C) Dispersive
    D) More than one answer is correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    B
  55. 9) The tangling of DNA strands during replication is prevented by _________.

    A) Topoisomerases
    B) Helicases
    C) Ligases
    D) Primases
    E) Unwindases
    A
  56. 10) The rate of DNA synthesis in eukaryotes is approximately_________ nucleotides per ________  per replication fork.

    A) 10/ second
    B)  50 / second
    C) 100 / second
    D) 50 / minute
    E) 100/ minute
    B
  57. 11) In the eukaryotic cell cycle the M(itosis) phase occurs after the ______ phase.


    A) Go
    B) G1
    C) G2
    D) S
    E) None of the above are correct
    C
  58. 12) _______ is a form of intermicrobial DNA transfer that occurs when bacteriophage
    inadvertantly serve as carriers of bacterial DNA to the recipient cell.

    A) Transposition
    B) Conjugation
    C) Transformation
    D) Tranduction
    E) Recombination
    D
  59. 13) The initiation of transcription involves the binding of RNA polymerase to a specific sequence called a __________.

    A) Delta repeat
    B) consensus sequence
    C) Promoter
    D) Primer
    E) Long terminal repeat
    C
  60. 14) All of the following gene products are coded for by constitutive genes except ______.

    A) Histone
    B) Aconitase
    C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
    D) Lactose
    E) rRNA
    D
  61. 15) The reassortment of DNA sequences is called

    A) Duplication
    B)  Replication
    C)  Recombination
    D) Decoding
    Reconstitution
    C
  62. 16) _______ are tumors that arise in connective tissue.

    A) Lymphomas
    B) Leukemias
    C) Carcinomas
    D) Sarcomas
    E) None of the above are correct
    D
  63. 17)  ______ is a protooncogene that codes for a GTP-binding protein.

    A) Sis
    B) Src
    C) Jun
    D) Myc
    E) None of the above are correct
    E
  64. 18) ______ is a protooncogene that codes for platelet-derived growth factor.

    A) Sis
    B) Src
    C) Jun
    D) Myc
    E) None of the above are correct
    A
  65. 19) _______ is a product of a delayed response gene.

    A) Cyclin
    B) Jun
    C) Fos
    D) AP-1
    E) Myc
    A
  66. 20) ______ is an enzyme that catalyzes a critical step in replicative transposition.

    A) Unwindase
    B) Replicase
    C) Resolvase
    D) Primase
    E) Catabolic gene activation protein
    C
  67. 21) DNA synthesis is called

    A) Transcription
    B) Replication
    C) Translation
    D) Transformation
    E) Transposition
    B
  68. 22) _______ catalyzes the transcription of the precursor of the tRNAs and 5S rRNA.

    A) RNA polymerase I
    B) RNA polymerase II
    C) RNA polymerase III
    D) RNA directed DNA polymerase
    E) None of the above are correct
    C
  69. 23) DNA transposition can cause gene ______.

    A) Duplication
    B) Deletion
    C) Transcription
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    D
  70. 24) Many promoters for RNA polymerase II contain a consensus sequence call the _______.

    A) CAAT box
    B) GC box
    C) Pribnow box
    D) TATA box
    E) Okazaki box
    D
  71. 25) Place the following steps of general recombination in chronological order

    i. DNA ligase seals the cut ends
    ii A second series of DNA strand cuts occurs opposite the first crossover strands
    iii Two homologus DNA molecules become paired
    iv DNA polymerase fills any gaps and DNA ligase seals the cut strands
    v Two of the DNA strands  are cleaved
    vi The two strand segments cross over

    A) i, iii, v, iv, ii, vi
    B) iii, iv, vi, i, vi,iii
    C) iv, ii, v, i, ii, iv
    D) iii, v, vi, i, ii, iv
    E) v, vi, i, ii, iv, iii
    D
  72. 26) Most of the carcinogenic effects of radiation are believed to be the result of _______.

    A) Viruses
    B) Transposition
    C) ROS
    D) Transduction
    E) Alkylation
    C
  73. 27) DNA is synthesized in which of the following directions

    A) In the 5’ --> 3’ direction on the leading strand and 3’ --> 5’ direction on the lagging strand
    B) In the 3’ --> 5” direction on the leading strand and the 5’ -->3’ direction on the lagging strand
    C) In the 5’ --> 3’ direction on both DNA strands
    D) The direction differs depending on the genes being duplicated
    E) None of the above are correct
    C
  74. 28)  All of the following play a role in DNA repair except ________.

    A) Light
    B) PR enzyme 
    C) Ribozymes
    D) Endonuclease
    E) Pol I
    C
  75. 29) In the absence of its inducer the lac operon remains repressed because of the binding of lac repressor to the _______.

    A) Promoter
    B) Regulatory gene
    C) Catabolic gene activator protein
    D) Operator
    E) CAP site
    D
  76. 30) Eukaryotic gene expression is affected by all of the following except ______.

    A) RNA processing
    B) Translational control
    C)) Gene rearrangements
    D) Transcriptional  control
    E) None of the above are correct
    E
  77. 31) The majority of genetic variations arise from

    Mutations
    Genetic recombination
    Base deletion
    Tautomerism
    Both A and B are correct
    B
  78. 32) Topoisomerases

    Join DNA strands together
    Prevent tangling of DNA strands
    Relieve torque in replicating DNA
    Change the supercoiling of DNA
    All of the above are correct
    E
  79. 33) Type II topoisomerases

    Produce double stranded breaks in DNA
    Repilicate only the lagging strand
    Repilicate only the leading strand
    Relieve torque ahead of the replicating machinery
    Both A and B are correct
    A
  80. 34) In higher eukaryotes replication begins with the
    Origin of replication complex (ORC)
    Assembly of pre-initiation replication complex (preRC)
    Recruiting of the MCM complex to the replication site
    Stabilizing of the DNA strands by replication protein A (RPA)
    Attachment of DNA polymerase δ to each DNA strand
    B
  81. 35) Light-induced repair will correct which of the following mutations

    Deamination of adenine
    Reversion of thymine dimers
    Tautomerism of uracil
    Removal of nucleotides
    Breaks in the phosphodiester linkage
    B
  82. 36) In nucleotide excision repair

    Single bases are removed and replaced
    Bulky lesions are removed
    Thymine dimers are replaced
    Gaps are repaired by DNA polymerase
    Nucleotides are removed and new ones insterted
    B
  83. 37) Insertion of viral DNA into a host cell’s genome is an example of 

    Transformation
    Transduction
    Conjugation
    Site specific recombination
    Myosis
    D
  84. 38) Genomic libraries are produced by

    Colony hybridization techniques
    Polymerase chain reactions
    Electroporation
    Shotgun cloning
    Cosmids
    D
  85. 39) Homology modeling facilitates

    Protein structure prediction
    Open reading frames synthesis 
    Stop codons deletion
    Protein function
    Start codon initiation
    A
  86. 40) Protooncogenes are

    Normal genes that code for transcription factors
    Normal genes that if mutated can promote carcinogenesis
    Tumor supressor genes
    Growth factor receptor genes
    All of the above are correct
    B
  87. 41)  An exonuclease is an enzyme that

    Depolymerizes RNA only
    Polymerizes DNA and RNA
    Removes nucleotides from the end of a polynucleotide strand
    Add nucleotides to the end of a polynucleotide strand
    Depolymerizes DNA  only
    C
  88. 42) Repair of DNA by the SOS system has a major disadvantage


    Repair is slow
    Repair is error prone
    Repair cannot replace missing nucleotide sequences
    Frequently fragments the DNA chain
    C and D
    B
  89. 43)  A difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA polymerases is:


    Polymerizes DNA  from opposite ends of the DNA chain
    Eukaryotic DNA polymerases do not remove RNA primers
    Prokaryotic polymerases work with both DNA and RNA chains
    Prokaryotic  DNA polymerases do not require an RNA primer
    There are no differences
    B
  90. 44) The average natural mutation rate for plants and animals is one mutation per ______
    genes/generation.


    10,000
    50,000
    100,000
    1,000,000
    250,000
    C
  91. 45) ____________ repair occurs only on a strand actively being transcribed,


    Mismatch repair
    Transcription coupling repair
    Replication slippage
    DNA
    RNA
    B
  92. 46)) __________  corrects replication proofreading errors.


    Mismatch repair
    Transcription coupling repair
    Reading repair
    Transcription coupling repair factor
    Isomerase repair factor
    A
  93. 1) The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is a 

    A) Prokaryotic mRNA sequence that binds IF-3
    B) Prokaryotic  mRNA  sequence that binds  16S rRNA of the small ribosomal subunit
    C) Prokaryotic mRNA sequence that binds the 16S RNA of the large ribosomal subunit
    D) Eukaryotic rRNA sequence that binds the AUG codon of mRNA
    E) None of the above are correct
    B
  94. 2) The initiation phase of prokaryotic translation ends as the GTP molecule bound to ________ is hydrolysed to GDP and Pi

    A) IF-1
    B) IF-2
    C) IF-3
    D) IF-4
    E) None of the above are correct
    B
  95. 3) During the elongation phase of prokaryotic translation the aminoacyl-tRNA must first bind _________ before it can be positioned in the A site.

    A) EF-Ts
    B) EF-Tu
    C) EF-Ts-GDP
    D) EF-Ts-GTP
    E) EF-Tu-GTP
    E
  96. 4) ________ is an enzymatic activity that hydrolyses the bond linking the completed polypeptide chain and the P site tRNA

    A) RF-1
    B) EF-G
    C) Peptidyl transferase
    D) Ribosomal esterase
    E) Signal peptidase
    C
  97. 5) Prominent prokaryotic posttanslational modifications include all of the following except __________.

    A) Glycosylation
    B) Methylation
    C) Proteolytic processing
    D) Prenylation
    E) Phosphorylation
    D
  98. 6)  In prokaryotes most of the control of protein synthesis occurs at the level of ______.

    A) Translation
    B) Transcription
    C) Replication
    D) Reverse transcription
    E) Posttranslational modification
    B
  99. 7)  The enzymatic activities coded by the lac operon include all of the following except:

    A) Thiogalactoside transacylase
    B) Lactose transferase
    C) β-Galactosidase
    D) Galactose permease
    E) None of the above are correct
    B
  100. 8)  Translocation in eukaryotes requires _____, which is a GTP binding protein.

    A) eEF-1
    B) eEF-2
    C) eEF-3
    D) eEF-4
    E) None of the above are correct
    B
  101. 9)  In eukaryotic translation the 40S complex binds the 60S subunit to form the _______
    initiation complex.

    A) 80S
    B) 88S
    C) 90S
    D) 100S
    E) 108S
    A
  102. 10) ________ provides the energy needed to move the ribosome along the mRNA.

    A) ATP
    B) GTP
    C) UTP
    D) TTP
    E) All of the above are correct
    B
  103. 11) Polypeptides containing signal peptides are called ________.

    A) Zymogens
    B) Preproproteins
    C) Proproteins
    D) All of the above are correct
    E) None of the above are correct
    B
  104. 12) Phosphorylated dolichol, a polyisoprenoid found in ER membrane, is involved in

    A) Polypeptide synthesis
    B) Proteolytic cleavage reactions
    C) Lipophillic modification reactions
    D) Hydroxylation reactions
    E) Glycosylation reactions
    E
  105. 13) All of the following are involved in signal peptide processing  except

    A)  Ribosomal polypeptide translocation factor
    B) SRP receptor protein
    C) Docking protein
    D) Translocon
    E) Stop transfer signal
    A
  106. 14) The phrase “global control” refers to

    A) Large alterations in mRNA translation patterns
    B) Large alterations in mRNA synthesis patterns
    C) Specific changes in rRNA synthesis
    D) Specific changes in mRNA synthesis
    E) Changes in transcript localization patterns
    A
  107. 15) Translational frameshifting

    A) Results in the synthesis of more than one polypeptide from a single mRNA
    B) Has been observed in cells infected by retroviruses
    C) Is the result of a +1 or –1 change in the reading frame of an mRNA
    D) Both A and C are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    E
  108. 16) All of the following statements concerning eukaryotic mRNA are true except

    A) Only a small portion of mRNA enters the cytoplasm
    B) Most hnRNA is processed into mRNA
    C) Export of mRNA through muclear pores is carefully controlled
    D) mRNA export usually requires a 5’-cap and a 3’-poly A tail
    E) None of the above are correct
    B
  109. 17) Eukaryotic mRNA stability involves

    A) Reversible adenylation
    B) The length of poly (A) tails
    C) The binding of specific proteins to certain mRNA sequences
    D) The action of various nucleases
    E) All of the above are correct
    E
  110. 18) _______ are a group of molecules that mediate protein folding.

    A) Hsp 70s
    B) Chaparonins
    C) Docking protein
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    D
  111. 19) The mRNA that codes for ________ possesses an iron response element.

    A) Collagen
    B) Elastin
    C) Globin
    D) Ferritin
    E) Thiogalactoside transacetylase
    D
  112. 20) Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that

    A) Inhibits prokaryotic peptidyl transferase
    B) Causes mRNA misreading via binding to the 30S subunit
    C) Interferes with aminoacyl-tRNA binding via binding to 30S subunit
    D) Inhibits eukaryotic peptidyl transferase
    E) Inhibits prokaryotic peptide chain elongation
    A
  113. 21)  Cycloheximide is an antibiotic that

    A) Inhibits prokaryotic peptidyl transferase
    B) Causes mRNA misreading via binding to 30s subunit
    C) Interferes with aminoacyl-tRNA binding via binding to the 30S subunit
    D) Inhibits eukaryotic peptidyl transferase
    E) Inhibits prokaryotic peptide chain elongation
    D
  114. 22) Tetracycline is an antibiotic that

    A) Inhibits prokaryotic peptidyl transferase
    B) Causes mRNA misreading via binding to 30S subunit
    C) Interferes with aminoacyl-tRNA binding to the  30S subunit
    D) Inhibits eukaryotic peptidyl transferase
    E) Inhibits prokaryotic peptide chain elongation
    C
  115. 23) Erythromycin is an antibiotic that

    A) Inhibits prokaryotic peptidyl transferase
    B) Causes mRNA misreading via binding to 30S subunit
    C) Interferes with aminoacyl-tRNA binding via binding to the 30S subunit
    D) Inhibits eukaryotic peptidyl transferase
    E) Inhibits prokaryotic peptide chain elongation
    E
  116. 24) Which of the following antibiotics would be most toxic for humans

    A) Tetracycline
    B) Chloramphenicol
    C) Streptomcyin
    D) Cycloheximide
    E) Erythromycin
    D
  117. 25) Ribonucleoprotein particles

    A) Contain an mRNA
    B) Contain several types of protein
    C) Are found only in prokaryotes
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    D
  118. 26) _________ is a translation factor that possesses a unique histidine residue that can be modified to form dipthamide

    A) IF-2
    B) EF-Tu
    C) EF-Ts
    D) eEF-1
    E) eEF-2
    E
  119. 27) Hydroxylation is a posttranslational modification that

    A) Requires ascorbic acid
    B) Is catalyzed by several mixed function oxidases
    C) Is required for the structural integrity of globin
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    D
  120. 28) In prokaryotes posttranslational methylation reactions are associated with

    A) Signal transduction
    B) Chemotaxis
    C) S-Adenosylmethionine
    D) All of the above are correct
    E) None of the above are correct
    D
  121. 29) The half-lives of prokaryotic mRNA usually varies between

    A) 1 and 3 seconds
    B) 1 and 3 minutes
    C) 1 and 3 hours
    D) 3 and 10 hours
    E) None of the above are correct
    B
  122. 30) Peptidyl transferase is an enzymatic activity that

    A) Catalyzes the release of polypeptides from the ribosomes
    B) Is found in an rRNA component of ribosomes
    C) Catalyzes the nucleophilic attack  of the A site α-amino group on the carbonyl carbon of the P side amino acid
    D) Catalyses peptide bond formation
    E) All of the above are correct
    E
  123. 31) Energy for ribosome function is provided by


    ATP
    GTP
    Phosphoenolpyruvate
    Hydrolysis of pyrophosphate
    Both A and B are correct
    B
  124. 32) Unlike the protein synthesis  mechanism in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, mitochondria have _______ stop codes.


    1
    2
    3
    4
    5
    D
  125. 33) An analysis of the wobble hypothesis suggests that a minimum of _______  RNA’s  are required to translate all 61 codons plus one for a start codon.


    22
    32
    16
    62
    30
    B
  126. 34) Translation begins with


    Elongation
    Initiation
    Termination
    Targeting
    tRNA synthesis
    B
  127. 35) Which of the following is a type of posttranslational modification?


    Removal of signal peptides
    Carboxylation
    Methylation
    Phosphorylation
    All of the above
    E
  128. 36) Protein synthesis requires _____ high energy phosphate bonds per peptide bond.


    1
    2
    3
    4
    5
    D
  129. 37) An amino acid coded for by a stop signal is


    Pyrrolysine
    Lysine
    Cysteine
    Selenocysteine
    Both A and D are correct
    E
  130. 38) In eukaryotes which of the following amino acids is  often hydroxylated after  protein synthesis?


    Proline
    Tyrosone
    Arginine
    Methionine
    All of the above
    A
  131. 39) Which of the following amino acids is sometimes carboxylated after protein synthesis in eukaryotes


    Glutamate
    Aspartate
    Phenylalanine
    Lysine
    Arginine
    A
  132. 40) Prokaryotes exclusively use which of the following translational control mechanisms?


    Negative translational control of ribosomal proteins
    Global controls
    RNA specific controls
    Allosteric modifications of ribosomes
    Energy depletion
    A
  133. 41) Which of the following  is a synonymous codon with UCU?


    A)  AAU
    B)  UCA
    C)  GAU
    D)  AAA
    E) CUG
    B
  134. 42) Protein synthesis in bacteria involves six functional centers. Which of the following is not one of those centers?



    Decoding center
    Aminase transfer center
    Pepidyl transfer center
    GTPase associated region
    A site
    B
  135. 43) The peptide emerging from the exit tunnel first encounters a molecular factor called


    Trigger factor
    Signal factor
    Linkage chaperone
    P-site
    Translation factor
    A
  136. 44) Eukaryotic initiation begins with the assembly of  ________________.


    Preinitiation complex
    Cap-binding complex
    Poly-binding complex
    48S Initiation complex
    Translational initiation complex
    A
  137. 45) Which of the following compounds is referred to as the twenty first amino acid


    Selenocysteine
    Glucolysine
    Cysteine
    Dehydroxyalinine
    D-Lysine
    A
  138. 46)  During synthesis of secreted proteins; binding of the ribosome to the ER membrane is mediated by



    The translocon
    SRP and SRP receptor protein
    Signal peptidase
    Cotranslational transfer
    Posttranslational translocation
    B

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