Genetics final

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Genetics final
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  1. Modern biology recognizes that genetics of
    higher organisms is based on
    (a)  
    the pangenesis concept of acquired characteristics

    (b)  
    reproduction via the germ
    line

    (c)   
    preformation of the individual in the egg

    (d)  
    preformation of an individual in the sperm

    (e)   
    a “vital force”
  2. reproduction via the germ
    line
  3. The ability to observe cells with a microscope was
    crucial to the foundation of modern genetics because the microscope was used to

    (a)  
    describe the structure of DNA

    (b)  
    determine the genotype of an organism

    (c)   
    observe chromosomes and
    their division in the cell

    (d)  
    observe the homunculus in the sperm cell

    (e)   
    unite the fields of transmission genetics and population genetics
  4. observe chromosomes and
    their division in the cell
  5. The contribution Charles Darwin made to genetics was to

    (a)  
    determine the structure of DNA

    (b)  
    demonstrate the connection between Mendel’s principles of inheritance and
    evolution

    (c)   
    observe the separation of the soma and germ line

    (d)  
    propose that evolution
    occurs by natural selection

    (e)   
    prove Mendel’s Laws
  6. propose that evolution
    occurs by natural selection
  7. The contribution August
    Weismann made to genetics was to propose

    (a)  
    blending inheritance

    (b)  
    the pangenesis concept of acquired characteristics

    (c)   
    the germ-plasm theory

    (d)  
    preformation of the individual in the egg

    (e)   
    preformation of an individual in the sperm
  8. the germ-plasm theory
  9. The three essential
    elements of a eukaryotic chromosome are

    (a)  
    a centriole, a chloroplast, and a centromere

    (b)  
    a centromere, a pair of
    telomeres, and numerous origins of replication

    (c)   
    a centrosome, a pair of centrioles, and numerous origins of replication

    (d)  
    a cytoplasm, a nuclear envelope, and two centromeres

    (e)   
    a homunculus, a spermist, and two ovists
  10. a centromere, a pair of
    telomeres, and numerous origins of replication
  11. Expression of genetic information
    follows a pathway from

    (a)  
    DNA to RNA to protein to
    traits

    (b)  
    DNA to traits to protein to RNA

    (c)   
    protein to RNA to DNA to traits

    (d)  
    RNA to DNA to traits to protein

    (e)   
    traits to protein to RNA to DNA
    • (a)  
    • DNA to RNA to protein to
    • traits
  12. Diploid cells have

    (a)  
    one copy of the nuclear genome

    (b)  
    one pair of homologous chromosomes

    (c)   
    one set of chromosomes

    (d)  
    two chromosomes

    (e)   
    two sets of chromosomes
    • (a)  
    • two sets of chromosomes
  13. Which of the following
    indicates a correct order of stages in the cell cycle and mitosis?  [Note: None of the following includes all
    stages.  Just look for the one that has
    stages in temporal order.]

    (a)  
    G1, S, prophase,
    metaphase, anaphase

    (b)  
    prophase, S, G, metaphase, anaphase

    (c)   
    S, G1, prophase, metaphase, anaphase

    (d)  
    S, G1, anaphase, prophase, metaphase

    (e)   
    telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase, interphase
    • (a)  
    • G1, S, prophase,
    • metaphase, anaphase
  14. During the cell cycle, in
    a diploid organism with 2n chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in a dividing
    cell is briefly 4n during

    (a)  
    interphase

    (b)  
    prophase

    (c)   
    prometaphase

    (d)  
    metaphase

    (e)   
    anaphase
    • (a)  
    • anaphase
  15. Double fertilization”
    occurs in

    (a)  
    Archaea

    (b)  
    Homo sapiens

    (c)   
    nematodes

    (d)  
    plants

    (e)   
    prokaryotes
    • (a)  
    • plants
  16. Human beings are

    (a)  
    autotrophic

    (b)  
    dioecious

    (c)   
    hermaphroditic

    (d)  
    monoecious

    (e)   
    prokaryotic
    • (a)  
    • dioecious
  17. A cell in G1
    phase of interphase has 14 chromosomes (2n=14). 
    The number of chromosomes and number of DNA molecules per cell after cytokinesis after
    Meiosis II are, respectively,

    (a)  
    7 chromosomes and 7 DNA
    molecules

    (b)  
    7 chromosomes and 14 DNA molecules

    (c)   
    14 chromosomes and 7 DNA molecules

    (d)  
    14 chromosomes and 14 DNA molecules

    (e)   
    14 chromosomes and 28 DNA molecules
    • (a)  
    • 7 chromosomes and 7 DNA
    • molecules
  18. A somatic cell in cattle has a total of 60
    chromosomes (2n = 60).  Sex determination
    is as in human beings.  The total number
    of autosomes in an egg cell produced by a cow is

    (a)  
    29

    (b)  
    30

    (c)   
    58

    (d)  
    59

    (e)   
    60
    • (a)  
    • 29
  19. In female human beings,
    the primary oocyte undergoes meiosis I to produce

    (a)  
    the oogonium

    (b)  
    the ovum and the first polar body

    (c)   
    the ovum and the second polar body

    (d)  
    the primary spermatocyte

    (e)   
    the secondary oocyte and
    the first polar body
    • (a)  
    • the secondary oocyte and
    • the first polar body
  20. Plants of genotypes YY and Yy have yellow petals. 
    Plants of genotype yy have
    white petals.  A plant from a
    true-breeding yellow line is crossed with a plant from a true-breeding white
    line.  The F1 is then
    backcrossed to the true-breeding white line (a testcross).  The proportion of testcross progeny that are
    yellow is

    (a)  
    1

    (b)  
    3/4

    (c)   
    1/2

    (d)  
    1/4

    (e)   
    0
    • (a)  
    • 1/2
  21. A diploid individual
    carrying two different alleles on homologous chromosomes is a

    (a)  
    haploid

    (b)  
    hermaphrodite

    (c)   
    heterosexual

    (d)  
    heterozygote

    (e)   
    homozygote
    • (a)  
    • heterozygote
  22. A 9:3:3:1 phenotypic
    segregation in the F2 indicates

    (a)  
    a dihybrid cross in the P
    generation for two traits, each with complete dominance

    (b)  
    a dihybrid cross in the P generation for a single trait with duplicate
    dominance

    (c)   
    a monohybrid cross in the P generation for two traits, each with
    additivity

    (d)  
    a monohybrid cross in the P generation for a single trait with complete
    dominance

    (e)   
    maternal inheritance
    • (a)  
    • a dihybrid cross in the P
    • generation for two traits, each with complete dominance
  23. A man heterozygous at
    three loci produces  __________  kinds of sperm.

    (a)  
    1

    (b)  
    2

    (c)   
    4

    (d)  
    8

    (e)   
    16
    8
  24. A genotype rrYy in pea, when self-pollinated,
    will, in the next generation,

    (a)  
    breed true at the R locus
    and segregate at the Y locus

    (b)  
    produce four different kinds of gametes

    (c)   
    segregate 3:1 at the R locus,
    assuming complete dominance

    (d)  
    segregate 9:3:3:1 for four different genotypes

    (e)   
    segregate at the R locus and
    breed true at the Y locus
    • (a)  
    • breed true at the R locus
    • and segregate at the Y locus
  25. A dihybrid F1
    plant with genotype AaBb, where the A and B loci are on
    separate chromosomes will, according to Mendel’s Second Law, exhibit the
    following F2 genotypic segregation upon self-pollination:

    (a)  
    1:1

    (b)  
    1:1:1:1

    (c)   
    1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1

    (d)  
    3:1

    (e)   
    9:3:3:1
    • (a)  
    • 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1
  26. A monohybrid F1
    plant is heterozygous at the A locus
    and exhibits a phenotype for the A
    trait identical to one of its homozygous parents.  Thus, we say that there is  __________ 
    gene action at the A locus.

    (a)  
    additive

    (b)  
    complete dominance

    (c)   
    incomplete dominance

    (d)  
    overdominance

    (e)   
    recessive epistatic
    • (a)  
    • complete dominance
  27. Mendel’s Second Law is
    the Law of

    (a)  
    Dominance

    (b)  
    Incomplete Dominance

    (c)   
    Independent Assortment

    (d)  
    Particulate Inheritance

    (e)   
    Segregation
    • (a)  
    • Independent Assortment
  28. In male human beings and
    other male mammals, pairing of X and Y chromosomes at meiosis is facilitated by
    the

    (a)  
    Barr body

    (b)  
    equal length of the chromosomes

    (c)   
    haplodiploidy

    (d)  
    pseudoautosomal regions
    near the telomeres

    (e)   
    sex-determining regions of the Y chromosome
    • (a)  
    • pseudoautosomal regions
    • near the telomeres
  29. A human being with the
    XXY combination of sex chromosomes exhibits

    (a)  
    a normal female phenotype

    (b)  
    a normal male phenotype

    (c)   
    Kleinfelter syndrome

    (d)  
    supermale syndrome

    (e)   
    Turner syndrome
    • (a)  
    • Kleinfelter syndrome
  30. In birds, the male is the  __________ 
    sex.

    (a)  
    autosomal

    (b)  
    dioecious

    (c)   
    homogametic

    (d)  
    monoecious

    (e)   
    pseudosexual
    • (a)  
    • homogametic
  31. In organisms with
    female/male sexuality, the female always

    (a)  
    carries the XX genotype

    (b)  
    carries the XY genotype

    (c)   
    is the heterogametic sex

    (d)  
    produces the larger gamete

    (e)   
    produces the smaller gamete
    • (a)  
    • produces the larger gamete
  32. Red-green color blindness
    in Homo sapiens is X-linked
    recessive.  A color-blind woman mates
    with a man who is not color-blind.  Children
    will be:

    (a)  
    color-blind females and color-blind males

    (b)  
    color-blind females and normal-sighted males

    (c)   
    normal-sighted females and
    color-blind males

    (d)  
    normal-sighted females and normal-sighted males

    (e)   
    only female, never male
    • (a)  
    • normal-sighted females and
    • color-blind males
  33. A person has the XY
    genotype but develops female.  This could
    be due

    (a)  
    only to androgen insensitivity syndrome

    (b)  
    only to mutation to SRY

    (c)   
    only to translocation of SRY to the X chromosome

    (d)  
    either to androgen
    insensitivity syndrome gene or mutation of SRY

    (e)   
    either nondisjunction in meiosis or translocation of SRY to the X
    chromosome
    • (a)  
    • either to androgen
    • insensitivity syndrome gene or mutation of SRY
  34. In Meiosis, homologous
    chromosomes synapse and crossing over occurs at

    (a)  
    Prophase I

    (b)  
    Metaphase I

    (c)   
    Prophase II

    (d)  
    Metaphase II

    (e)   
    Anaphase II
    • (a)  
    • Prophase I
  35. Sometime one gene affects
    more than one trait.  We refer to this as

    (a)  
    expressivity

    (b)   imprinting

    (c)    overdominance

    (d)   penetrance

    (e)    pleiotropy
    (a)   pleiotropy
  36. Codominant alleles at a
    locus are both expressed in individuals that are

    (a)  
    hemizygous

    (b)  
    heterogeneous

    (c)   
    heterozygous

    (d)  
    homogeneous

    (e)   
    homozygous
    • (a)  
    • heterozygous
  37. Two loci, G
    and H both contribute to carcass
    weight of Polled Hereford cattle at slaughter via enhanced endogenous growth
    hormone production.  The phenotypic
    effects of genotypes are as follows:

    G–H– = plus 4 pounds

      G–hh = plus 2 pounds

       ggH– = plus 2 pounds

      gghh = plus 0 pounds

    (a)  
    codominance

    (b)  
    duplicate additivity

    (c)   
    duplicate dominance

    (d)  
    duplicate recessive epistasis

    (e)   
    recessive epistasis
    • (a)  
    • duplicate dominance
  38. “Complementary epistasis”
    is another name for

    (a)  
    additive gene action

    (b)  
    codominance gene action

    (c)   
    duplicate recessive epitasis

    (d)  
    duplicate dominant epitasis

    (e)   
    recessive epitasis
    • (a)  
    • duplicate recessive epitasis
  39. In human pedigrees, it is
    sometimes observed that neither parent is affected by a trait but that ½ of
    sons and no daughters are affected.  Such
    a trait is

    (a)  
    autosomal dominant

    (b)  
    autosomal recessive

    (c)   
    X-linked dominant

    (d)  
    X-linked recessive

    (e)   
    Y-linked
    • (a)  
    • X-linked recessive
  40. In human pedigrees, an
    autosomal dominant trait

    (a)  
    appears more frequently in males but is not passed from father to son

    (b)  
    appears only in males and is always passed on from a father to all of his
    sons

    (c)   
    is passed on from a father to all of his daughters

    (d)  
    normally appears with equal frequency in both sexes and does
    not skip generations

    (e)   
    normally appears with equal frequency in both sexes and seem to skip
    generations
    • (a)  
    • normally appears with equal frequency in both sexes and does
    • not skip generations
  41. Monozygotic twins arise
    from

    (a)  
    conjugation of F+ and F- strains

    (b)  
    a single egg, fertilized by a single sperm

    (c)   
    the double fertilization of egg and polar nuclei

    (d)  
    the production of two girls (never involving boy)

    (e)   
    two separate eggs fertilized by two separate sperms
    • (a)  
    • a single egg, fertilized by a single sperm
  42. In a three-point
    testcross, the rarest recombinant genotypes indicate which gene is

    (a)  
    between the other two genes

    (b)  
    closest to a telomere

    (c)   
    dominant

    (d)  
    most distant from the centromere

    (e)   
    recessive
    • (a)  
    • between the other two genes
  43. Genetically linked genes
    always exhibit recombination frequencies of

    (a)  
    0%

    (b)  
    less than 50%

    (c)   
    50%

    (d)  
    greater than 50%

    (e)   
    100%
    • (a)  
    • less than 50%
  44. Physically linked genes
    are on the same

    (a)  
    centromere

    (b)  
    chromosome

    (c)   
    heterozygote

    (d)  
    kinetochore

    (e)   
    prokaryote
    • (a)  
    • chromosome
  45. Locus A and locus B are linked.  A doubly
    heterozygous individual (AaBb)
    individual has these genes in the cis
    configuration and a crossover occurs 40% of the time in meiosis.  Therefore, this individual will produce
    recombinant gametes in these frequencies.

    (a)  
    10% Ab and 10% aB

    (b)  
    20% Ab and 20% aB

    (c)   
    40% Ab and 40% aB

    (d)  
    10% AB and 10% ab

    (e)   
    20% AB and 20% ab
    • (a)  
    • 10% Ab and 10% aB
  46. In meiosis, in a diploid
    eukaryotic organism, when recombination takes place between genes (loci)
    located on the same chromosome via crossing over, we refer to it as

    (a)  
    transformational recombination

    (b)  
    intrachromosomal recombination

    (c)   
    transductional recombination

    (d)  
    interchromosomal recombination

    (e)   
    translocational recombination
    • (a)  
    • intrachromosomal recombination
  47. We recognize trans linkage as the same thing as

    (a)  
    cis linkage

    (b)  
    coupling phase linkage

    (c)   
    free recombination

    (d)  
    polycistronic transcription

    (e)   
    repulsion phase linkage
    • (a)  
    • repulsion phase linkage
  48. leu– bacteria
    are mixed in a flask with leu+
    bacteria, and soon all bacteria are leu+.  However, if the leu– cells are on
    one side of a U-tube and the leu+
    cells are on the other, the leu–
    cells do not become prototrophic.  This
    suggests gene transfer between mixed cells in the flask is via

    (a)  
    conjugation

    (b)  
    cosegregation

    (c)   
    transduction

    (d)  
    transformation

    (e)   
    translocation
    • (a)  
    • conjugation
  49. Transduction requires a/an

    (a)  
    bacteriophage

    (b)  
    pilus

    (c)   
    prototroph

    (d)  
    transformation

    (e)   
    uptake of a naked DNA molecule
    • (a)  
    • bacteriophage
  50. Bacterial mutants that
    require additional nutrients in their growth medium (beyond the simple sugar
    and inorganic nutrients in a minimal medium) are called

    (a)  
    autotrophs

    (b)  
    auxotrophs

    (c)   
    heterotrophs

    (d)  
    prophages

    (e)   
    prototrophs
    • (a)  
    • auxotrophs
  51. The bacterial chromosome
    is usually

    (a)  
    acrocentric

    (b)  
    circular

    (c)   
    linear

    (d)  
    metacentric

    (e)   
    telocentric
    circular
  52. An E. coli cell that has acquired bacterial chromosomal genes via
    conjugation is a/an  __________  cell.

    (a)  
    F+

    (b)  
    F’

    (c)   
    F–

    (d)  
    Hfr

    (e)   
    λ
    • (a)  
    • F’
  53. In an allotetraploid,
    duplicate dominant epistasis is common where 2 loci produce an enzyme that
    catalyzes a single chemical reaction and the phenotypic segregation from a
    dihybrid of  __________  is observed.

    (a)  
    1:1

    (b)  
    1:4:6:4:1

    (c)   
    3:1

    (d)  
    9:7

    (e)   
    15:1
    • (a)  
    • 15:1
  54. The “normal” chromosome
    has this constitution:  AB˜\\CDEFG where ˜ is the centromere.  A rearranged chromosome has the constitution
    ADC˜\\BEFG. 
    We would refer to the rearranged chromosome as a

    (a)  
    displaced duplication

    (b)  
    paracentric inversion

    (c)   
    pericentric inversion

    (d)  
    reciprocal translocation

    (e)   
    reverse duplication
    • (a)  
    • pericentric inversion
  55. The four basic types of
    chromosome rearrangements via meiosis in a diploid organism are

    (a)  
    deletions, conjugations, transductions, and transformations

    (b)  
    deletions, duplications, inversions, and translocations

    (c)   
    deletions, segregations, independent assortments, and transfusions

    (d)  
    deletions, transitions, transpositions, and transversions

    (e)   
    deletions, inductions, repressions, and transpositions
    • (a)  
    • deletions, duplications, inversions, and translocations
  56. Jimson weed normally has
    2n=24 chromosomes.  A mutant plant with
    23 chromosomes would be termed a

    (a)  
    haploid

    (b)  
    monosomic

    (c)   
    tetraploid

    (d)  
    triploid

    (e)   
    trisomic
    • (a)  
    • monosomic
  57. An autotetraploid
    organism derives all of its chromosomes

    (a)  
    from 4 different evolutionary progenitors

    (b)  
    from 2 different evolutionary progenitors

    (c)   
    from 1 single evolutionary progenitor

    (d)  
    from a haploid progenitor

    (e)   
    none of the above
    • (a)  
    • from 1 single evolutionary progenitor
  58. An allotetraploid evolves
    from

    (a)  
    1 species

    (b)  
    2 species

    (c)   
    3 species

    (d)  
    4 species

    (e)   
    none of the above
    • (a)  
    • 2 species
  59. One of Chargaff’s rules states that

    (a)  
    G=A

    (b)  
    G=C

    (c)   
    G=T

    (d)  
    G=U

    (e)   
    T=U
    • (a)  
    • G=C
  60. The complementary strands
    of the DNA double helix are bound together by

    (a)  
    covalent bonds

    (b)  
    hydrogen bonds

    (c)   
    ionic bonds

    (d)  
    metallic bonds

    (e)   
    van der Waals forces
    • (a)  
    • hydrogen bonds
  61. Within one DNA strand,
    nucleotides are connected via phosphodiester bonds between deoxyribose carbons
    in

    (a)  
    1’-2’ linkages

    (b)  
    2’-4’ linkages

    (c)   
    3’-5’ linkages

    (d)  
    4’-3’ linkages

    (e)   
    5’-5’ linkages
    • (a)  
    • 3’-5’ linkages
  62. An important difference
    between DNA and RNA is at the  __________  carbon in the sugar where DNA has a hydrogen
    and RNA has a hydroxyl group.

    (a)  
    1’

    (b)  
    2’

    (c)   
    3’

    (d)  
    4’

    (e)   
    5’
    2'
  63. The distance between base
    pairs along the axis of the DNA double helix is   

    (a)  
    0.34nm

    (b)  
    4.4μm

    (c)   
    6mm

    (d)  
    8m

    (e)   
    10bp
    • (a)  
    • 0.34nm
  64. Both DNA and RNA
    nucleotides have a hydroxyl group at the 
    __________  carbon of the
    five-carbon sugar.

    (a)  
    1’

    (b)  
    2’

    (c)   
    3’

    (d)  
    4’

    (e)   
    5’
    3'
  65. Telomeres stabilize
    the  __________  of eukaryotic chromosomes.

    (a)  
    centromeres

    (b)  
    chromatosomes

    (c)   
    ends

    (d)  
    enzymes

    (e)   
    nucleosomes
    • (a)  
    • ends
  66. The fundamental repeating
    unit of chromatin is the

    (a)  
    centromere

    (b)  
    chromatosome

    (c)   
    chromosome

    (d)  
    ribosome

    (e)   
    telomere
    • (a)  
    • chromatosome
  67. In a
    denaturation-renaturation experiment, DNA is

    (a)  
    converted from the A form to the B form

    (b)  
    cooled to separate strands, then heated to reanneal double strands

    (c)   
    cooled to anneal double strands, then heated to separate strands

    (d)  
    heated to separate strands, then cooled to reanneal double
    strands

    (e)   
    heated to anneal double strands, then cooled to separate strands
    • (a)  
    • heated to separate strands, then cooled to reanneal double
    • strands
  68. Transposition can involve
    exchange of DNA sequences and recombination, which often leads to chromosome

    (a)  
    acetylation

    (b)  
    condensation

    (c)   
    degradation

    (d)  
    rearrangements

    (e)   
    repair
    • (a)  
    • rearrangements
  69. In “nonreplicative
    transposition,” the copy number of a transposon in the genome

    (a)  
    goes to zero

    (b)  
    decreases

    (c)   
    remains the same

    (d)  
    increases by one

    (e)   
    none of the above
    • (a)  
    • remains the same
  70. The nature of replication was demonstrated in an elegant
    experiment by

    (a)  
    Beadle and Tatum

    (b)  
    Hersey and Chase

    (c)   
    Meselson and Stahl

    (d)  
    Srb and Horowitz

    (e)   
    Watson and Crick
    • (a)  
    • Meselson and Stahl
  71. Prior to binary fission, the E. coli chromosome is replicated

    (a)  
    from numerous origins of replication

    (b)  
    from the telomeres

    (c)   
    via reverse transcription

    (d)  
    via rolling circle replication

    (e)   
    via theta replication
    • (a)  
    • via theta replication
  72. DNA replication on the
    leading strand

    (a)   involves
    numerous Okazaki fragments

    (b)  
    involves numerous RNA primers

    (c)   
    is continuous

    (d)  
    is discontinuous

    (e)    proceeds 3’
    à 5’
    • (a)  
    • is continuous
  73. In E. coli replication, DNA ligase

    (a)   binds to
    the origin of replication initiating unwinding of DNA

    (b)  
    unwinds DNA after initiation of replication

    (c)   
    binds to single strands to prevent reannealing

    (d)  
    relieves torsion stress, stabilizing the
    replication bubble

    (e)   
    seals the nicks after Ozaki fragments have been generated
    • (a)  
    • seals the nicks after Ozaki fragments have been generated
  74. RNA synthesis proceeds

    (a)   3’ à 5’
    antiparallel to the DNA template strand

    (b)  
    3’ à 5’ parallel to the DNA template
    strand

    (c)   
    5’ à
    3’ antiparallel to the DNA template strand

    (d)  
    5’ à 3’ parallel to the DNA template
    strand

    (e)   
    via none of the above
    • (a)  
    • 5’ -> 3’ antiparallel to the DNA template strand
  75. In the DNA of a
    transcriptional unit, the promoter

    (a)  
    is trans-acting

    (b)  
    lies upstream of the coding region

    (c)   
    lies within the coding region

    (d)  
    lies downstream from the coding region

    (e)   
    lies within the terminator
    • (a)  
    • lies upstream of the coding region
  76. The genetic code is both a  __________ 
    code.

    (a)  
    binary and quaternary

    (b)  
    binary and triplet

    (c)   
    binary and triploid

    (d)  
    quaternary and quartet

    (e)   
    quaternary and triplet
    • (a)  
    • quaternary and triplet
  77. In eukaryotes, Slicer and
    Dicer participate in RNAi, a form of

    (a)  
    DNA replication

    (b)  
    capping the 5’ end of an mRNA

    (c)   
    exon-exon splicing

    (d)  
    gene silencing

    (e)   
    polyadenylation of the 3’ end of an RNA
    • (a)  
    • gene silencing
  78. In eukaryotes, much of mRNA processing
    involves linking of one exon to another at the

    (a)  
    chromatosome

    (b)  
    chromosome

    (c)   
    polysome

    (d)  
    ribosome

    (e)   
    spliceosome
    • (a)  
    • spliceosome
  79. In a double-stranded
    stretch of RNA that forms part of its secondary structure (e.g., in a hairpin),
    the following pair of complementary bases share two hydrogens:

    (a)  
    A and C

    (b)  
    A and G

    (c)   
    A and T

    (d)  
    A and U

    (e)   
    C and T
    • (a)  
    • A and U
  80. Identify the correct statement about the
    relative cellular abundance of mRNA, rRNA and tRNA.

    (a)  
    Because there are equal numbers of genes for the three major types of
    RNA, they are present in equal amounts.

    (b)  
    Most cells produce only one of the three major types of RNA, depending on
    cell type.

    (c)   
    Relatively few genes are transcribed into mRNA, which is why most RNA is
    rRNA and tRNA.

    (d)  
    There are many more genes that are transcribed into mRNA,
    nevertheless, most RNA is rRNA and tRNA.

    (e)   
    There are many more genes that are transcribed into mRNA, which is why
    most RNA is mRNA.
    • (a)  
    • There are many more genes that are transcribed into mRNA,
    • nevertheless, most RNA is rRNA and tRNA.
  81. In translation, the
    peptidyl transferase function of the ribosome is to

    (a)  
    charge tRNAs

    (b)  
    cleave the polypeptide from the last tRNA at termination

    (c)   
    form peptide bonds between amino acids

    (d)  
    move the ribosome along mRNA

    (e)   
    transfer the peptide from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
    • (a)  
    • form peptide bonds between amino acids
  82. Which of these RNA sequences
    could form a hairpin?

    (a)  
    5’-AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA-3’

    (b)  
    5’-AAAAAAUGCUGCAAAAAA-3’

    (c)   
    5’-AAAAAAUGCUGCCCCCCC-3’

    (d)  
    5’-AAAAAAUGCUGCGGGGGG-3’

    (e)   
    5’-AAAAAAUGCUGCUUUUUU-3’
    • (a)  
    • 5’-AAAAAAUGCUGCUUUUUU-3’
  83. In translation, during
    elongation, a charged tRNA enters the A site of a ribosome, a peptide bond is
    formed between amino acids in the A and P sites, and the ribosome  __________ 
    along the mRNA to the next codon.

    (a)  
    transduces

    (b)  
    transforms

    (c)   
    translocates

    (d)  
    transposes

    (e)   
    transubstantiates
    • (a)  
    • translocates
  84. The formation of a
    charged tRNA molecule is catalyzed by

    (a)  
    aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

    (b)  
    peptidyl transferase

    (c)   
    RNA polymerase holoenzyme

    (d)  
    rRNA in the ribosome

    (e)   
    the tRNA anticodon
    • (a)  
    • aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
  85. When codons that code for
    the same amino acid differ in their 3’ base, a single tRNA might bind both of
    them through  __________  base pairing

    (a)  
    precise W-C base pairing

    (b)  
    tweeter

    (c)   
    twitter

    (d)  
    wiggle

    (e)   
    wobble
    • (a)  
    • wobble
  86. When more than one
    peptide associate to form a multimer, these constitute the  __________ 
    structure of a protein.

    (a)  
    primary

    (b)  
    secondary

    (c)   
    tertiary

    (d)  
    quaternary

    (e)   
    binary
    • (a)  
    • quaternary
  87. .  If the next mRNA codon beyond the site
    occupied by tRNA Y is complementary
    to the anticodon of tRNA Z, then
    tRNA Z can move in to occupy that
    site, which is the  __________  site.

    (a)  
    aminoacyl

    (b)  
    exit

    (c)   
    peptidyl

    (d)  
    splice

    (e)   
    start
    • (a)  
    • aminoacyl
  88. Discoverers of the lac operon in E. coli (specifically) and principles of gene regulation
    (generally) were:

    (a)  
    Beadle & Tatum

    (b)  
    Darwin & Mendel

    (c)   
    Jacob & Monod

    (d)  
    Lennon & McCartney

    (e)   
    Meselson & Stahl
    • (a)  
    • Jacob & Monod
  89. A substrate for a
    metabolic pathway binds to a repressor protein, inactivating the repressor and
    allowing RNA polymerase to transcribe genes to catabolize the substrate.  Control of gene expression is

    (a)  
    negative inducible

    (b)  
    negative repressible

    (c)   
    positive inducible

    (d)  
    positive repressible

    (e)    positively
    irrepressible
    • (a)  
    • negative inducible
  90. Control of the E. coli lac operon is negative
    inducible.  A mutation to the operon’s operator allows expression of the lac
    operon genes, even in the absence of lactose, because

    (a)  
    RNA polymerase can no longer recognize the operator

    (b)  
    RNA polymerase can no longer recognize the promoter

    (c)   
    the regulator no longer recognizes the operator

    (d)  
    the regulator no longer recognizes the structural genes

    (e)   
    none of the above
    • (a)  
    • the regulator no longer recognizes the operator
  91. Control of the E. coli lac operon is negative
    inducible.  A constitutive mutation to the regulator gene produces a regulator
    protein that fails to repress expression of the lac operon genes, even in the absence of lactose, because

    (a)  
    the DNA-binding site of the regulator no longer recognizes the
    operator

    (a)  
    the DNA-binding site of the regulator no longer recognizes the promoter

    (b)  
    the DNA-binding site of the regulator no longer recognizes the structural
    lac operon genes

    (c)   
    the inducer-binding site of the regulator binds irreversibly to the
    inducer

    (d)  
    the inducer-binding site of the regulator no longer binds the inducer
    • (a)  
    • the DNA-binding site of the regulator no longer recognizes the
    • operator
  92. In eukaryotes, production
    of different proteins from the same gene is the result of

    (a)  
    action of the cAMP-CAP complex

    (b)  
    DNA methylation

    (c)   
    alternative splicing in mRNA processing

    (d)  
    differential RNA exonuclease activity

    (e)   
    histone acetylation
    • (a)  
    • alternative splicing in mRNA processing
  93. In eukaryotes, a DNA
    sequence that stimulates maximal transcription of a gene (and may be upstream,
    downstream, at a distance in either direction, or even within an intron of the
    gene itself) is called a/an

    (a)  
    enhancer

    (b)  
    insulator

    (c)   
    operator

    (d)  
    promoter

    (e)   
    silencer
    • (a)  
    • enhancer
  94. In eukaryotes, the
    following process is most often associated with down-regulation of gene
    expression:

    (a)  
    activation of transcription

    (b)  
    DNase hypersensitivity

    (c)   
    DNA methylation

    (d)  
    histone acetylation

    (e)   
    homologous recombination
    • (a)  
    • DNA methylation
  95. In the multicellular
    eukaryote, a mutation that is NOT transmitted to subsequent generations via
    sexual reproduction is always referred to as a/an  __________ 
    mutation.

    (a)  
    gain-of-function

    (b)  
    germ-line

    (c)   
    loss-of-function

    (d)  
    reverse

    (e)   
    somatic
    • (a)  
    • somatic
  96. A mutation back to
    wild-type is referred to as a/an

    (a)  
    insertion

    (b)  
    inversion

    (c)   
    reversion

    (d)  
    transition

    (e)   
    transversion
    • (a)  
    • reversion
  97. The simplest type of
    mutation is a single base substitution, a change in a single base pair of
    DNA.  When such a mutation does not change
    a codon specifying an amino acid to a codon specifying another amino acid or a
    stop codon, it is referred to as a/an  __________  mutation.

    (a)  
    antisense

    (b)  
    autonomous

    (c)   
    missense

    (d)  
    nonsense

    (e)   
    silent
    • (a)  
    • silent
  98. If a restriction enzyme cuts a linear DNA into 3 fragments,
    there are  __________  restriction sites in the DNA.

    (a)  
    2

    (b)  
    3

    (c)   
    4

    (d)  
    6

    (e)   
    2n=12
    2
  99. A product of recombinant
    technology, a transgene that combines the promoter of a gene from one organism
    with the protein-coding region of a gene from another organism is generally
    referred to as a  __________  gene.

    (a)  
    chimeric

    (b)  
    differentiation

    (c)   
    housekeeping

    (d)  
    regulatory

    (e)   
    structural
    • (a)  
    • chimeric
  100. During gel
    electrophoresis large DNA fragments will

    (a)  
    migrate more rapidly than small DNA fragments

    (b)  
    migrate more slowly than small DNA fragments

    (c)   
    migrate to the opposite pole from small DNA fragments

    (d)  
    stall upon encountering the size marker ladder

    (e)   
    none of the above
    • (a)  
    • migrate more slowly than small DNA fragments
  101. A “footprint” of DNA
    resistant to DNAse indicates a region of DNA bound by a/an

    (a)  
    aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

    (b)  
    regulatory protein

    (c)   
    ribosome

    (d)  
    rRNA

    (e)   
    tRNA
    • (a)  
    • regulatory protein
  102. For a physical map of a
    chromosome, distances are measured in units of

    (a)  
    base pairs

    (b)  
    centiMorgans

    (c)   
    contigs

    (d)  
    percent recombination

    (e)   
    RFLPs
    • (a)  
    • base pairs
  103. .  The following statement is FALSE:

    (a)  
    Antibodies are used for Northern blot analysis.

    (b)  
    Expression vectors go on from transcription to produce protein.

    (c)   
    Gene cloning in bacteria requires transformation or transduction of DNA
    into recipient cells.

    (d)  
    PCR amplification generates large numbers of linear DNA fragments.

    (e)   
    DNA molecules can be used as hybridization probes in Southern blot
    analysis.
    • (a)  
    • Antibodies are used for Northern blot analysis.
  104. A set of overlapping
    clones determined by analyzing overlapping genetic markers and restriction
    sites, and to be used in map-based sequencing is a/an

    (a)  
    contig

    (b)  
    EST

    (c)   
    RFLP

    (d)  
    SNP

    (e)   
    subclone
    • (a)  
    • contig
  105. A method in structural
    genomics that does not require assembly of contigs prior to sequencing is

    (a)  
    flow cytometry

    (b)  
    gel electrophoresis

    (c)   
    map-based sequencing

    (d)  
    restriction mapping

    (e)   
    whole genome shotgun sequencing
    • (a)  
    • whole genome shotgun sequencing
  106. Colinearity among related
    genomes is also called

    (a)  
    symmetry

    (b)  
    synapsis

    (c)   
    synchronicity

    (d)  
    synonimity

    (e)   
    synteny
    • (a)  
    • synteny
  107. One of the features of
    sequence information from a database of ESTs is that

    (a)  
    DNA synthesis stops at a specific site, so the base at that site can be
    determined

    (b)  
    chromosome locations of inactive genes are revealed

    (c)   
    entire protein sequences are revealed

    (d)  
    entire mRNA sequences are revealed

    (e)   
    pseudogenes and noncoding sequences are excluded
    • (a)  
    • pseudogenes and noncoding sequences are excluded
  108. Organelles in the
    eukaryotic cell are typically present

    (a)   in a
    single copy, with multiple copies of the organellar genome per organelle

    (b)   in a
    single copy, with only one copy of the organellar genome per organelle

    (c)   
    in multiple copies, with multiple copies of the organellar
    genome per organelle

    (d)   in
    multiple copies, with only one copy of the organellar genome per organelle

    (e)    only
    in the nucleus, except when the cell is dividing
    • (a)  
    • in multiple copies, with multiple copies of the organellar
    • genome per organelle
  109. In the course of
    evolution, complex proteins may be produced by recombining protein domains in a
    process known as

    (a)  
    exon shuffling

    (b)  
    gene imprinting

    (c)   
    intron silencing

    (d)  
    plasmid cloning

    (e)   
    slicing and dicing
    • (a)  
    • exon shuffling
  110. Programmed cell death in
    development is referred to as

    (a)  
    apoptosis

    (b)  
    denaturation

    (c)   
    necrosis

    (d)  
    panmixis

    (e)   
    totipotency
    • (a)  
    • apoptosis
  111. Narrow-sense heritability
    for IQ scores in a population has been estimated as 0.5.  If the mean IQ score in the population is
    100, what is the predicted IQ for a child whose parents both had IQ scores of
    150?  (The relevant equation is:            h2
    = R/S)

    (a)  
    100

    (b)  
    125

    (c)   
    150

    (d)  
    (0.5)2

    (e)   
    502
    • (a)  
    • 125
  112. A trait that is underlain by polygenes but
    which is measured in whole numbers (e.g., litter size) is known as a  __________ 
    trait.

    (a)  
    dominant

    (b)  
    Mendelian

    (c)   
    meristic

    (d)  
    mutable

    (e)   
    qualitative
    • (a)  
    • meristic
  113. Inbreeding always

    (a)  
    maximizes hybrid vigor

    (b)  
    increases heterozygosity

    (c)   
    maintains heterozygosity

    (d)  
    decreases heterozygosity

    (e)   
    optimizes fitness
    • (a)  
    • decreases heterozygosity
  114. The gene pool of a population harbors two alleles at the A locus, dominant allele A and recessive allele a. 
    The frequency of A is p=.25,
    and the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.  Therefore, the frequency of homozygous
    dominant genotypes in the population is

    (a)  
    .0625

    (b)  
    .375

    (c)   
    .4375

    (d)  
    .5625

    (e)   
    .75
    • (a)  
    • .0625
  115. The gene pool of a population is as in the previous
    problem.  The frequency of individuals
    exhibiting the dominant phenotype in the population is

    (a)  
    .0625

    (b)  
    .375

    (c)   
    .4375

    (d)  
    .5625

    (e)   
    .75
    • (a)  
    • .4375
  116. A breed of cattle harbors two alleles at a locus that
    determines hide color such that BB=black;
    Bb=brown; bb=white.  The frequency of
    the B allele in a herd is p=.9.  If a herd is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,
    then the frequency of brown cattle must be

    (a)  
    .01

    (b)  
    .10

    (c)   
    .18

    (d)  
    .81

    (e)   
    .99
    • (a)  
    • .18
  117. This organism is an
    animal with ~100 trillion cells and ~24000 genes spread out over 23 pairs of
    chromosomes:

    (a)  
    Arabidopsis thaliana

    (b)  
    Escherichia coli

    (c)   
    Caenorhabditis elegans

    (d)  
    Homo sapiens

    (e)   
    Saccharomyces cerevisiae
    • (a)  
    • Homo sapiens
  118. Modern biology recognizes
    that genetics of higher organisms is based on

    (a)  
    the pangenesis concept of acquired characteristics

    (b)   reproduction
    via the germ line

    (c)   
    preformation of the individual in the egg

    (d)  
    preformation of an individual in the sperm

    (e)   
    a “vital force”
    • (a)   reproduction
    • via the germ line
  119. Today the theory of
    “blending inheritance” has been replaced by that of

    (a)  
    acquired characteristics

    (b)  
    mutationism

    (c)    particulate
    inheritance

    (d)  
    preformationism

    (e)   
    spermism
    • (a)   particulate
    • inheritance
  120. __________  is recognized as the “father of Genetics.”

    (a)  
    Sir Francis Crick

    (b)  
    Charles Darwin

    (c)   
    Jean Baptiste Lamarck

    (d)   Gregor
    Mendel

    (e)   
    August Weismann
    • (a)   Gregor
    • Mendel
  121. The three essential
    elements of a eukaryotic chromosome are

    (a)  
    a centriole, a chloroplast, and a centromere

    (b)   a
    centromere, a pair of telomeres, and numerous origins of replication

    (c)   
    a centrosome, a pair of centrioles, and numerous origins of replication

    (d)  
    a cytoplasm, a nuclear envelope, and two centromeres

    (e)   
    a homunculus, a spermist, and two ovists
    • (a)   a
    • centromere, a pair of telomeres, and numerous origins of replication
  122. Diploid cells have

    (a)  
    one copy of the nuclear genome

    (b)  
    one pair of homologous chromosomes

    (c)   
    one set of chromosomes

    (d)  
    two chromosomes

    (e)    two
    sets of chromosomes
    • (a)   two
    • sets of chromosomes
  123. Which of the following
    events takes place in Meiosis II but not in Meiosis I?

    (a)  
    Crossing over

    (b)  
    Contraction of chromosomes

    (c)   
    Pairing of homologous chromosomes

    (d)  
    Separation of homologous chromosomes

    (e)    Separation
    of chromatids
    • (a)   Separation
    • of chromatids
  124. Pea plants are

    (a)  
    dioecious

    (b)   hermaphroditic

    (c)   
    heterotrophic

    (d)  
    monoecious

    (e)   
    prokaryotic
    (a)   hermaphroditic
  125. “Double fertilization”
    occurs in

    (a)  
    Archaea

    (b)  
    Homo sapiens

    (c)   
    nematodes

    (d)   plants

    (e)   
    prokaryotes
    (a)   plants
  126. Mitosis occurs in the
    following sequence of events

    (a)  
    interphase – prometaphase– prophase– metaphase – anaphase – telophase

    (b)   interphase
    – prophase – prometaphase – metaphase – anaphase – telophase

    (c)   
    telophase – anaphase – metaphase – prometaphase – prophase – interphase

    (d)  
    telophase – metaphase – anaphase – prometaphase – prophase – interphase

    (e)   
    telophase – prophase – prometaphase – metaphase – interphase – anaphase
    • (a)   interphase
    • – prophase – prometaphase – metaphase – anaphase – telophase
  127. That part of the
    chromosome that attaches to the spindle at prometaphase is the

    (a)  
    5’ cap

    (b)   centromere

    (c)   
    chromatid

    (d)  
    chiasma

    (e)   
    chloroplast
    (a)   centromere
  128. In male human beings, the
    primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis to produce

    (a)  
    1 polar body

    (b)  
    2 polar bodies

    (c)   
    1 sperm

    (d)  
    2 spermatids

    (e)    4
    spermatids
    • (a)   4
    • spermatids
  129. Plants of genotypes RR and Rr have red petals.  Plants
    of genotype rr have white
    petals.  A plant from a true-breeding red
    line is crossed with a plant from a true-breeding white line.  The F1 is then backcrossed to the
    true-breeding red line.  The proportion
    of backcross progeny that are red is

    (a)   1

    (b)  
    3/4

    (c)   
    1/2

    (d)  
    1/4

    (e)   
    0
    1
  130. In eggplant, the 1 purple
    : 2 violet : 1 white segregation in the F2 generation derived from a
    cross between purple (PP) and white
    (pp) parents is an example of

    (a)  
    complete dominance

    (b)  
    heterosis (or hybrid vigor)

    (c)    incomplete
    dominance (or additivity)

    (d)  
    Mendel’s 2nd Law

    (e)   
    results of a dihybrid cross
    • (a)   incomplete
    • dominance (or additivity)
  131. When, in a diploid
    eukaryote, dominance is complete at locus A,
    these genotypes will express the dominant phenotype:

    (a)  
    AA, Aa, and aa

    (b)   both
    AA and Aa

    (c)   
    both Aa and aa

    (d)  
    AA only

    (e)   
    Aa only
    • (a)   both
    • AA and Aa
  132. A 9:3:3:1 phenotypic
    segregation in the F2 indicates

    (a)   a
    dihybrid cross in the P generation for two traits, each with complete dominance

    (b)  
    a dihybrid cross in the P generation for a single trait with duplicate
    dominance

    (c)   
    a monohybrid cross in the P generation for two traits, each with
    additivity

    (d)  
    a monohybrid cross in the P generation for a single trait with complete
    dominance

    (e)   
    maternal inheritance
    • (a)   a
    • dihybrid cross in the P generation for two traits, each with complete dominance
  133. In a testcross between a dihybrid parent and
    a doubly homozygous recessive tester parent (two separate traits, no
    epistasis), if the two genes are not linked, one expects a phenotypic
    segregation in testcross progeny of

    (a)   1:1:1:1

    (b)  
    3:1

    (c)   
    9:3:3:1

    (d)  
    9:3:4

    (e)   
    9:7
    (a)   1:1:1:1
  134. A woman heterozygous at
    both of two loci produces 
    __________  kinds of eggs.

    (a)  
    1

    (b)  
    2

    (c)    4

    (d)  
    8

    (e)   
    16
    4
  135. A genotype rrYy in pea, when self-pollinated,
    will, in the next generation,

    (a)  
    breed true at the R locus and
    breed true at the Y locus

    (b)   breed
    true at the R locus and segregate at
    the Y locus

    (c)   
    segregate 9:3:3:1 for four different genotypes

    (d)  
    segregate at the R locus and
    breed true at the Y locus

    (e)   
    segregate at the R locus and
    segregate at the Y locus
    • (a)   breed
    • true at the R locus and segregate at
    • the Y locus
  136. A dihybrid F1
    plant with genotype AaBb, where the A and B loci are on
    separate chromosomes will, according to Mendel’s Second Law, will exhibit the
    following F2 genotypic segregation upon self-pollination:

    (a)  
    1:1

    (b)  
    1:1:1:1

    (c)    1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1

    (d)  
    3:1

    (e)   
    9:3:3:1
    (a)   1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1
  137. A monohybrid F1
    plant is heterozygous at the A locus
    and exhibits a higher level of the A
    trait than both of its homozygous parents. 
    Thus, we say that there is  __________ 
    gene action at the A locus.

    (a)  
    additive

    (b)  
    dominance

    (c)   
    recessive epistatic

    (d)  
    incomplete dominance

    (e)    overdominance
    (a)   overdominance
  138. In male human beings and
    other male mammals, pairing of X and Y chromosomes at meiosis is facilitated by
    the

    (a)  
    Barr body

    (b)  
    equal length of the chromosomes

    (c)   
    haplodiploidy

    (d)   pseudoautosomal
    regions near the telomeres

    (e)   
    sex-determining regions of the Y chromosome
    • (a)   pseudoautosomal
    • regions near the telomeres
  139. In human beings, the male is the  __________ 
    sex.

    (a)   heterogametic

    (b)  
    heterogeneous

    (c)   
    heteromorphic

    (d)  
    heterosexual

    (e)   
    heterozygous
    (a)   heterogametic
  140. In social insects like
    ants and bees, sex determination is via

    (a)  
    dioecy

    (b)   haplodiploidy

    (c)   
    monoecy

    (d)  
    a ZW system

    (e)   
    an XY system
    (a)   haplodiploidy
  141. Red-green color blindness
    in Homo sapiens is X-linked
    recessive.  A woman with normal color
    vision has a father who is color-blind. 
    The woman has a child with a man with normal color vision.  Which phenotype is NOT expected?

    (a)   color-blind
    female

    (b)  
    color-blind male

    (c)   
    noncolor-blind female

    (d)  
    noncolor-blind male
    • (a)   color-blind
    • female
  142. In snapdragons, the
    allele for red flowers is incompletely dominant over the allele for white
    flowers, and thus heterozygotes have pink flowers.  Thus, a cross between two pink-flowered
    plants should yield progeny that

    (a)  
    breed true pink

    (b)  
    segregate 3 pink : 1 white

    (c)   
    segregate 3 red : 1 white

    (d)   segregate
    1 red : 2 pink : 1 white

    (e)   
    segregate 9 red : 6 pink :1 white
    • (a)   segregate
    • 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white
  143. When the phenotype of a
    heterozygote at a single locus includes the phenotypes of both homozygotes, we
    refer to the intralocus interaction as

    (a)  
    additivity

    (b)   codominance

    (c)   
    dominance

    (d)  
    epitasis

    (e)   
    incomplete dominance
    (a)   codominance
  144. A human being with the
    XXY combination of sex chromosomes exhibits

    (a)  
    a normal female phenotype

    (b)  
    a normal male phenotype

    (c)    Kleinfelter
    syndrome

    (d)  
    supermale syndrome

    (e)   
    Turner syndrome
    • (a)   Kleinfelter
    • syndrome
  145. Genes come in multiple
    forms called

    (a)   alleles

    (b)  
    chromatids

    (c)   
    chromosomes

    (d)  
    genotypes

    (e)   
    loci
    (a)   alleles
  146. Expression of genetic
    information follows a pathway from

    (a)   DNA
    to RNA to protein to traits

    (b)  
    DNA to traits to protein to RNA

    (c)   
    protein to RNA to DNA to traits

    (d)  
    RNA to DNA to traits to protein

    (e)   
    traits to protein to RNA to DNA
    • (a)   DNA
    • to RNA to protein to traits
  147. Penetrance is the

    (a)  
    degree to which a character is expressed, and is always lethal when fully
    penetrant

    (b)  
    degree to which a character is expressed, and is never lethal when fully
    penetrant

    (c)   
    percentage of individuals having a particular genotype that
    exhibit an expected phenotype

    (d)  
    result of expression of autosomal genes in only one sex, usually the male

    (e)   
    same thing as incomplete dominance, and sometimes may be referred to as
    “additivity”
    • (a)  
    • percentage of individuals having a particular genotype that
    • exhibit an expected phenotype
  148. When alleles of two loci
    exhibit epistasis in conditioning the same trait, we typically refer to this as
    an  __________  interaction.

    (a)  
    additive

    (b)  
    interallelic

    (c)   
    interlocus

    (d)  
    intra-allelic

    (e)   
    intralocus
    • (a)  
    • interlocus
  149. Two loci, M
    and P, contribute equally to daily
    milk production by Holstein cattle.  The
    phenotypic effects of genotypes are as follows:

    MMPP = plus 4 pounds




    MMPp = MmPP =plus 3 pounds
    MMpp =MmPp = mmPP = plus 2 pounds
    Mmpp = mmPp =plus 1 pounds
    mmpp = plus 0 pounds

    We say that the
    interlocus gene action is:

    (a)  
    codominance

    (b)  
    duplicate additivity

    (c)   
    duplicate dominance

    (d)  
    duplicate recessive epistasis

    (e)   
    recessive epistasis
    • (a)  
    • duplicate additivity
  150. A multiple allelic series
    is a condition where more than two  ____a_______  exist
    for a single genetic  ____d______  .  (Use this list for both blanks.)

    (a)  
    alleles

    (b)  
    chromosome

    (c)   
    genotypes

    (d)  
    locus

    (e)   
    mutation
    • (a)  
    • alleles
    • (a)  
    • locus
  151. “Complementary epistasis”
    is another name for

    (a)  
    additive gene action

    (b)  
    codominance gene action

    (c)   
    duplicate recessive epitasis

    (d)  
    duplicate dominant epitasis

    (e)   
    recessive epitasis
    • (a)  
    • duplicate recessive epitasis
  152. In human pedigrees, it is
    sometimes observed that when both parents express a trait that ¼ of sons and ¼
    of daughters do not express the trait. 
    Such a trait is

    (a)  
    autosomal dominant

    (b)  
    autosomal recessive

    (c)   
    X-linked dominant

    (d)  
    X-linked recessive

    (e)   
    Y-linked
    • (a)  
    • autosomal dominant
  153. In human pedigrees, an
    autosomal dominant trait

    (a)  
    appears more frequently in males but is not passed from father to son

    (b)  
    appears only in males and is always passed on from a father to all of his
    sons

    (c)   
    is passed on from a father to all of his daughters

    (d)  
    normally appears with equal frequency in both sexes and does
    not skip generations

    (e)   
    normally appears with equal frequency in both sexes and seem to skip
    generations
    • (a)  
    • normally appears with equal frequency in both sexes and does
    • not skip generations
  154. .  Fraternal (dizygotic) twins arise from

    (a)  
    conjugation of  F+ and F-
    strains

    (b)  
    a single egg, fertilized by a single sperm

    (c)   
    the double fertilization of egg and polar nuclei

    (d)  
    the production of  two boys (never
    involving girl progeny)

    (e)   
    two separate eggs fertilized by two separate sperms
    • (a)  
    • two separate eggs fertilized by two separate sperms
  155. In human pedigrees, it is
    sometimes observed that unaffected parents produce ¼ affected sons and ¼
    affected daughters.  Such a trait is

    (a)  
    autosomal dominant

    (b)  
    autosomal recessive

    (c)   
    X-linked dominant

    (d)  
    X-linked recessive

    (e)   
    Y-linked
    • (a)  
    • autosomal recessive
  156. In a three-point
    testcross, the rarest recombinant genotypes indicate which gene is

    (a)  
    between the other two genes

    (b)  
    closest to a telomere

    (c)   
    dominant

    (d)  
    most distant from the centromere

    (e)   
    recessive
    • (a)  
    • between the other two genes
  157. When the frequency of
    double crossovers is less than we might otherwise predict, we refer to this as

    (a)  
    codominance

    (b)  
    coincidence

    (c)   
    epitasis

    (d)  
    interchromosomal recombination

    (e)   
    interference
    • (a)  
    • interference
  158. Genetic linkage breaks

    (a)  
    Mendel’s First Law of Segregation

    (b)  
    Mendel’s Second Law of Independent Assortment

    (c)   
    Mendel’s Principle of  Dominance

    (d)  
    Mendel’s Principle of Particulate Inheritance

    (e)   
    Mendel’s Vows as a Moravian Monk
    • (a)  
    • Mendel’s Second Law of Independent Assortment
  159. A geneticist suspects that locus C and locus D are linked.  She makes a
    cross between CCDD and ccdd individuals to produce a CcDd dihybrid F1
    progeny.  The F1 is then
    backcrossed to a ccdd individual
    (i.e., a testcross) and she observes progeny in these frequencies:

    40% CcDd
                                                                      10%Cddd
                                                                         10%ccDd
                                                                                  40%ccdd

    She concludes that the
    loci are linked and that the distance between them is

    (a)  
    10 cM

    (b)  
    20 cM

    (c)   
    40 cM

    (d)  
    50 cM

    (e)   
    80 cM
    • (a)  
    • 20 cM
  160. Physically linked genes are on the same

    (a)  
    centromere

    (b)  
    chromosome

    (c)   
    heterozygote

    (d)  
    kinetochore

    (e)   
    prokaryote
    • (a)  
    • chromosome
  161. In meiosis, a single
    crossover occurs between locus A and
    locus B 40% of the time.  Therefore, an AaBb individual will produce 
    __________  recombinant gametes.

    (a)  
    0%

    (b)  
    10%

    (c)   
    20%

    (d)  
    40%

    (e)   
    80%
    • (a)  
    • 20%
  162. Conjugation requires a/an

    (a)  
    bacteriophage

    (b)  
    pilus

    (c)   
    prototroph

    (d)  
    transformation

    (e)   
    uptake of a naked DNA molecule
    • (a)  
    • pilus
  163. AIDS is caused by a

    (a)  
    bacteriophage

    (b)  
    bacterium

    (c)   
    mycoplasma

    (d)  
    prion

    (e)   
    retrovirus
    • (a)  
    • retrovirus
  164. .  The haploid genome of a bacterium like E. coli is useful in genetic studies
    because all mutations are expressed directly. 
    And that is because, at a locus, a bacterium is generally

    (a)  
    hemizygous

    (b)  
    heterozygous

    (c)   
    heterogeneous

    (d)  
    homogeneous

    (e)   
    homozygous
    • (a)  
    • hemizygous
  165. The bacterial chromosome
    is usually

    (a)  
    acrocentric

    (b)  
    circular

    (c)   
    linear

    (d)  
    metacentric

    (e)   
    telocentric
    • (a)  
    • circular
  166. In an Hfr E. coli cell, the F factor is

    (a)  
    absent

    (b)  
    incorporated into a phage

    (c)   
    integrated into the bacterial chromosome

    (d)  
    present as a separate circular DNA with some bacterial genes

    (e)   
    present as a separate circular DNA without bacterial genes
    • (a)  
    • integrated into the bacterial chromosome
  167. Transduction requires
    a/an

    (a)  
    bacteriophage

    (b)  
    pilus

    (c)   
    prototroph

    (d)  
    transformation

    (e)   
    uptake of a naked DNA molecule
    • (a)  
    • bacteriophage
  168. In an allotetraploid,
    duplicate dominant epistasis is common where 2 loci produce an enzyme that
    catalyzes a single chemical reaction and the phenotypic segregation from a
    dihybrid of  __________  is observed.

    (a)  
    1:1

    (b)  
    1:4:6:4:1

    (c)   
    3:1

    (d)  
    9:7

    (e)   
    15:1
    • (a)  
    • 15:1
  169. The “normal” chromosome
    has this constitution:  AB˜CDEFG where ˜ is the centromere.  A rearranged chromosome has the constitution
    AB˜CFEDG.  We would refer to the rearranged chromosome
    as a

    (a)  
    displaced duplication

    (b)  
    paracentric inversion

    (c)   
    pericentric inversion

    (d)  
    reciprocal translocation

    (e)   
    reverse duplication
    • (a)  
    • paracentric inversion
  170. Allopolyploidization
    typically begins with

    (a)  
    asexual reproduction

    (b)  
    colchicine treatment

    (c)   
    interspecific hybridization

    (d)  
    mosaic formation

    (e)   
    unbalanced gametes
    • (a)  
    • interspecific hybridization
  171. Trisomy is the addition
    of  __________  chromosome(s) to a diploid.

    (a)  
    1

    (b)  
    2

    (c)   
    3

    (d)  
    4

    (e)   
    5
    1
  172. A hexaploid organism
    has  __________  sets of chromosomes:

    (a)  
    1

    (b)  
    3

    (c)   
    6

    (d)  
    12

    (e)   
    24
    6
  173. In  __________ploidy,
    all the chromosomes derive from one species.

    (a)  
    adeno

    (b)  
    allo

    (c)   
    amino

    (d)  
    auto

    (e)   
    auxo
    • (a)  
    • auto
  174. One of Chargaff’s rules
    states that

    (a)  
    G=A

    (b)   G=C

    (c)   
    G=T

    (d)  
    G=U

    (e)   
    T=U
    (a)   G=C
  175. The RNA bases cytosine
    and uracil are

    (a)  
    a purine and a pyrimidine, respectively

    (b)  
    a pyrimidine and a purine, respectively

    (c)   
    both purines

    (d)   both
    pyrimidines

    (e)   
    none of the above
    • (a)   both
    • pyrimidines
  176. Within one DNA strand,
    nucleotides are connected via phosphodiester bonds between deoxyribose carbons
    in

    (a)  
    1’-2’ linkages

    (b)  
    2’-4’ linkages

    (c)    3’-5’
    linkages

    (d)  
    4’-3’ linkages

    (e)   
    5’-5’ linkages
    • (a)   3’-5’
    • linkages
  177. In nucleotides, ribose
    and deoxyribose are alike in that the base is covalently bonded to the

       __________ 
    carbon.

    (a)   1’

    (b)  
    2’

    (c)   
    3’

    (d)  
    4’

    (e)   
    5’
    (a)   1’
  178. The distance between base
    pairs along the axis of the DNA double helix is   

    (a)   0.34nm

    (b)  
    4.4μm

    (c)   
    6mm

    (d)  
    8m

    (e)   
    10bp
    (a)   0.34nm
  179. In the eukaryote, a core
    of eight histone proteins together with the 145-147bp of DNA that wraps around
    the core is a

    (a)  
    centromere

    (b)   nucleosome

    (c)   
    regulatory element

    (d)  
    telomere

    (e)   
    transposable element
    (a)   nucleosome
  180. Telomeres stabilize
    the  __________  of eukaryotic chromosomes.

    (a)  
    centromeres

    (b)  
    chromatosomes

    (c)    ends

    (d)  
    enzymes

    (e)   
    nucleosomes
    (a)   ends
  181. In a DNA
    denaturation-renaturation experiment the first
    sequences to reanneal are

    (a)   highly
    repetitive DNA

    (b)  
    histones

    (c)   
    moderately repetitive DNA

    (d)  
    nonhistones

    (e)   
    single-copy DNA
    • (a)   highly
    • repetitive DNA
  182. A “mutable” recessive
    allele can revert to wild type at high frequency due to excision of a
    transposable element from a gene because reversion frequency depends

    (a)  
    both on the frequency of excision of the element and on the frequency
    with which the element inserts at another specific locus

    (b)   only
    on the frequency of excision of the element

    (c)   
    only on the frequency with which the element inserts at another specific
    locus

    (d)  
    on the frequency of excision of the element

    (e)   
    none of the above
    • (a)   only
    • on the frequency of excision of the element
  183. In “replicative
    transposition,” the copy number of a transposon in the genome

    (a)  
    goes to zero

    (b)  
    decreases

    (c)   
    remains the same

    (d)   increases
    by one

    (e)   
    none of the above
    • (a)   increases
    • by one
  184. In 1944, Avery, McLeod
    and McCarty were able to confirm the molecular identity of the “transforming
    principle” because it was destroyed by

    (a)  
    aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

    (b)  
    β-galactosidase

    (c)    DNase

    (d)  
    protease

    (e)   
    RNase
    (a)   DNase
  185. Prior to binary fission, the E. coli chromosome is replicated

    (a)  
    from numerous origins of replication

    (b)  
    from the telomeres

    (c)   
    via reverse transcription

    (d)  
    via rolling circle replication

    (e)    via
    theta replication
    • (a)   via
    • theta replication
  186. DNA replication on the
    lagging strand

    (a)  
    is continuous

    (b)  
    proceeds from the amino to carboxyl ends

    (c)   
    proceeds without RNA primers

    (d)   requires numerous RNA primers

    (e)   
    requires only one RNA primer
    (a)   requires numerous RNA primers
  187. In E. coli replication, DNA ligase

    (a)   binds to
    the origin of replication initiating unwinding of DNA

    (b)  
    unwinds DNA after initiation of replication

    (c)   
    binds to single strands to prevent reannealing

    (d)  
    relieves torsion stress, stabilizing the
    replication bubble

    (e)    seals
    the nicks after Ozaki fragments have been generated
    • (a)   seals
    • the nicks after Ozaki fragments have been generated
  188. In transcription, RNA
    polymerase “reads” the template DNA strand

    (a)  
    3’ à 5’

    (b)  
    5’ à 3’

    (c)   
    amino terminus à 3’carboxyl terminus

    (d)  
    carboxyl terminus à amino
    terminus

    (e)   
    via none of the above
    • (a)  
    • 3’ à 5’
  189. An up-to-date version of
    Beadle and Tatum’s famous hypothesis, that takes into account rRNA and tRNA
    genes, as well as mutimeric enzymes that are products of more than one gene, is
    the __________  hypothesis.

    (a)  
    gene-for-gene

    (b)  
    one gene – one enzyme

    (c)   
    one gene – one polypeptide

    (d)   one
    gene – one transcriptional unit

    (e)   
    RNA first
    • (a)   one
    • gene – one transcriptional unit
  190. Most mature eukaryotic mRNAs have, at their 5’ end, a

    (a)   cap

    (b)  
    transcription start site

    (c)   
    transcription stop site

    (d)  
    translation start site

    (e)   
    translation stop site
    (a)   cap
  191. In a double-stranded
    stretch of RNA that forms part of its secondary structure (e.g., in a hairpin),
    the following pair of complementary bases share two hydrogens:

    (a)  
    A and C

    (b)  
    A and G

    (c)   
    A and T

    (d)   A
    and U

    (e)   
    C and T
    • (a)   A
    • and U
  192. The protein-coding
    regions in a typical eukaryotic gene are referred to as

    (a)   exons

    (b)  
    introns

    (c)   
    operons

    (d)  
    replicons

    (e)   
    transposons
    (a)   exons
  193. In translation, the
    peptidyl transferase function of the ribosome is to

    (a)  
    charge tRNAs

    (b)  
    cleave the polypeptide from the last tRNA at termination

    (c)    form
    peptide bonds between amino acids

    (d)  
    move the ribosome along mRNA

    (e)   
    transfer the peptide from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
    • (a)   form
    • peptide bonds between amino acids
  194. The genetic code is both
    a  __________  code.

    (a)  
    binary and quaternary

    (b)  
    binary and triplet

    (c)   
    binary and triploid

    (d)  
    quaternary and quartet

    (e)    quaternary
    and triplet
    • (a)   quaternary
    • and triplet
  195. .  In translation, during elongation, a charged
    tRNA enters the A site of a ribosome, a peptide bond is formed between amino
    acids in the A and P sites, and the ribosome 
    __________  along the mRNA to the
    next codon.

    (a)  
    transduces

    (b)  
    transforms

    (c)    translocates

    (d)  
    transposes

    (e)   
    transubstantiates
    (a)   translocates
  196. In translation, a new
    peptide bond is formed between amino acids held by tRNAs located at the  __________ 
    sites in the ribosome.

    (a)  
    5’cap and 3’poly(A)

    (b)  
    E and P

    (c)   
    E and A

    (d)   P
    and A

    (e)   
    start and stop
    • (a)   P
    • and A
  197. The formation of a charged
    tRNA molecule is catalyzed by

    (a)   aminoacyl-tRNA
    synthetase

    (b)  
    peptidyl transferase

    (c)   
    RNA polymerase holoenzyme

    (d)  
    rRNA in the ribosome

    (e)   
    the tRNA anticodon
    • (a)   aminoacyl-tRNA
    • synthetase
  198. When codons that code for
    the same amino acid differ in their 3’ base, a single tRNA might bind both of
    them through  __________  base pairing

    (a)  
    precise W-C base pairing

    (b)  
    tweeter

    (c)   
    twitter

    (d)  
    wiggle

    (e)    wobble
    (a)   wobble
  199. A tRNA has the anticodon
    3' UAC 5'.  Thus, the codon in an mRNA
    that it will bind to is

    (a)  
    3' ATC 5'

    (b)  
    3' AUG 5'

    (c)   
    5' ATC 3'

    (d)   5'
    AUG 3'

    (e)   
    none of the above
    • (a)   5'
    • AUG 3'
  200. α-helices and β-sheets
    constitute the  __________  structure of a protein.

    (a)  
    primary

    (b)   secondary

    (c)   
    tertiary

    (d)  
    quaternary

    (e)   
    binary
    (a)   secondary
  201. The genetic code is both a 
    __________  code.

    (a)  
    binary and quaternary

    (b)  
    binary and triplet

    (c)   
    binary and triploid

    (d)  
    quaternary and quartet

    (e)    quaternary
    and triplet
    • (a)   quaternary
    • and triplet
  202. A substrate for a
    metabolic pathway binds to a repressor protein, inactivating the repressor and
    allowing RNA polymerase to transcribe genes to catabolize the substrate.  Control of gene expression is

    (a)   negative
    inducible

    (b)  
    negative repressible

    (c)   
    positive inducible

    (d)  
    positive repressible

    (e)    positively
    irrepressible
    • (a)   negative
    • inducible
  203. An example of a gene
    product encoded by a regulatory gene is

    (a)   a
    repressor protein

    (b)  
    an operator of an operon

    (c)   
    the amino acid tryptophan

    (d)  
    the enzyme β-galactosidase enzyme

    (e)   
    the sugar allolactose
    • (a)   a
    • repressor protein

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