Ultimate Trauma Practice Test

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Ultimate Trauma Practice Test
2013-05-07 05:53:52
EMT Ultimate Trauma Practice Test

Practice test for 27-36
Show Answers:

  1. The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:
    Your Concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.
  2. When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information regarding the:
  3. When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 MPH, the unrestrained occupant:
    Remains in motion until acted upon by an external force.
  4. Force acting over a distance defines the concept of:
  5. The energy of a moving object is called:
    Kinetic Energy
  6. When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy:
  7. Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct?
    The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury.
  8. By what mechanism is a person injured when he or she falls from a significant height?
    Potential Energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.
  9. Two of the MOST common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are:
    Falls and motor vehicle collisions.
  10. What types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts?
    Rotational and Rollover
  11. With regard to three collisions that occur during a motor vehicle crash, which of the following statements regarding the first collision is correct?
    It is the most dramatic part of the collision and may make extrication difficult.
  12. Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma?
    Deployment of the air bag.
  13. Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash?
    Deformed steering wheel.
  14. Which of the following injuries would MOST  likely occur as direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash?
    Aortic Rupture
  15. if on or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT should:
    Suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma.
  16. The driver of a sport utility vehicle lost control and struck a utility pole head-on. The driver was killed instantly. The passenger, a young female, is conscious and alert and has several small abrasions and lacerations to her left forearm. Treatment for the passenger should include:
    Transport to a trauma center.
  17. Air bags are designed to:
    Decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.
  18. When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped with an air bag that did not deploy upon impact, it is most important to:
    Remember That it could still deploy and seriously injure you (the EMT)
  19. When a driver is in a car equipped with an air bag, but is not wearing a seatbelt, he or she will MOST likely strike the ______ When the air bag deploys upon impact.
  20. While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-yr old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information , you should be most suspicious that the child has experienced:
    Neck and facial injuries.
  21. Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the EMT to:
    Identify contact points and predict potential injuries.
  22. The cervical spine is Most protected from whiplash-type injuries when the:
    Headrest is appropriately positioned.
  23. Passengers who are seated in the rear of a vehicle and are wearing only lap belts have a higher incidence of injuries to the:
    Thoracic and Lumbar spine
  24. Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during:
    Lateral Collisions
  25. A diver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will Most likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she:
    Is ejected or partially ejected.
  26. A small compact car was involved in a rollover crash. As you are approaching the vehicle, you note that the roof is significantly collapsed. The PT, a 29 y/o male, is complaining of severe pain in his neck and to the top of his head as well as numbness and tingling in his extremities. Witnesses who removed the patient from the vehicle state that he was wearing his seatbelt. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for this patient's condition?
    Compression of the head against the roof
  27. When evaluating the mechanism of injury of a car Vs. pedestrian collision, you should first:
    Approximate the speed of he vehicle that struck the pedestrian.
  28. A 15 y/o female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to:
    Stabilize her entire spine.
  29. Which of the following patients has experienced the MOST significant fall?
    A 4'6" patient who fell 13'.
  30. a 12 y/o male jumped approx. 12' from a tree & landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain?
    Energy transmission to the spine,
  31. Factors that should be considered when assessing a patient who has fallen include all of the following, EXCEPT:
    The speed of the fall.
  32. When assessing an elderly PT who fell, it is important to remember that:
    Osteoporosis can cause a fracture that may have resulted in the fall.
  33. Which of the following statements regarding low-energy penetrating injuries is correct?
    The area of injury is usually close to the path the object took through the body.
  34. Internal injuries caused by gunshot wounds are difficult to predict because:
    The bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body.
  35. The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as:
  36. A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation w/ a rival gang member. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control the obvious bleeding and then:
    Assess for an exit wound.
  37. A 40 y/o unrestrained female impacted the steering wheel of her vehicle w/ her chest when she hit a tree while traveling at 45 MPH. She is conscious and alert, but is experiencing significant chest pain and shortness of breath. Which of the following injuries did this patient likely NOT experience?
    Head injury
  38. If a person is standing near a building that explodes, which of the following injuries would he or she MOST likely experience as a result of the pressure wave?
    Stomach rupture
  39. During your assessment of a patient who experienced a blast injury, you note that he has a depressed area to the front of his skull. This injury MOST likely occurred:
    During the tertiary phase.
  40. When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that:
    Primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious.
  41. Signs of a pulmonary blast injury include:
    Coughing up blood.
  42. When treating a patient who experienced a pulmonary blast injury, you should:
    Avoid giving O2 under positive pressure.
  43. Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient w/ multisystem trauma?
    Rapid transport to a trauma center.
  44. Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22 y/o female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concern w/ the possibility of:
    Intracranial bleeding.
  45. A 30 y/o male sustained a stab wound to the neck when he was attacked outside a nightclub. During your assessment, you should be most alert for:
    Potential airway compromise
  46. While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest w/ a steel pipe, you note that his pulse is irregular. You should be MOST suspicious for:
    Bruising of the heart muscle.
  47. According to the Association of Air Medical Services (AAMS), you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if:
    Traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome.
  48. In contrast to a Level III trauma center, a Level I Trauma center must:
    Have general surgeons that are in-house 24 house a day.
  49. Your patient has a Glasgow Coma scale (GCS) score of 13, a systolic blood pressure of 80mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is:
  50. During your assessment of a patient w/ a head injury, you note that he opens his eyes when you pinch his trapezius muscle, is mumbling, and has his arms curled in toward his chest You should assign him a GCS score of:
  51. According to the American College of Surgeons, and adult trauma patient meets Level I criteria if he or she:
    Has a GCS score of > or = to 8 w/ a mechanism attributed to trauma.
  52. Which of the following body systems or components is the LEAST critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body?
    The filtering of blood cells in the spleen.
  53. The systemic veins function by:
    Returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
  54. The smaller vessels that carry blood away from the heart and connect the arteries to the capillaries are called the:
  55. Blood stasis, changes in the vessel wall, and certain medications affect the:
    Ability of the blood to effectively clot.
  56. As RBC's begin to clump together to form a clot, ______ reinforces the clumped RBS's.
  57. Hypoperfusion is another name for:
  58. Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as the:
    Circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs.
  59. Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for up to 2 hours?
    Skeletal muscle.
  60. An organ or tissue may be better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion if the:
    Body's temperature is considerably less than 98.6 F (37.0 C).
  61. Significant vital signs changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______of his or her total blood volume.
  62. What is the approximate blood volume of a 75-kg adult?
    5.25 L
  63. An infant w/ a total blood volume of 800mL would start showing signs of shock when as little as ______of blood is lost.
    100 mL
  64. The ability of a person's cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is MOST related to:
    How rapidly he or she bleeds.
  65. Hypovolemic shock occurs when:
    The body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss.
  66. The Severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT:
    Systolic blood pressure
  67. In which of the following situations would external bleeding be the MOST  difficult to control?
    Femoral artery laceration and a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
  68. External bleeding from a vein is relatively easy to control because:
    Veins are under a lower pressure.
  69. Which of the following statements regarding the clotting of blood is correct?
    A person taking aspirin will experience slower blood clotting.
  70. Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct?
    PT's w/ hemophilia may bleed spontaneously.
  71. A fractured femur can result in the loss of ____ or more of blood into the soft tissues of the thigh.
    1 L
  72. In older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding may be:
    Weakness or dizziness.
  73. Early Signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include:
    Pain and distention.
  74. A 67 y/o male presents w/ weakness, dizziness, and melena that began approx.. 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this PT is experiencing:
    Gastrointestinal bleeding.
  75. Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a PT presents w/:
  76. A 22 y/o male was kicked in the abdomen multiple times during an attack by a gang. He is conscious but restless & his pulse is rapid. Your assessment reveals a large area of bruising to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patients includes:
    Preparing for immediate transport.
  77. Following blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21 y/o female complains of left upper quadrant abdominal paid w/ referred pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be MOST suspicious of injury to the:
  78. In nontrauma PT, and early indicator of internal bleeding is:
    Dizziness upon standing.
  79. A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should:
    Assist the patient's ventilations
  80. A 39 y/o male accidentally cut his wrist while sharpening his hunting knife. He is conscious & alert w/ adequate breathing, but is bleeding significantly from the wound. You should:
    Control the bleeding w/ direct pressure.
  81. During transport of a 40 y/o female w/ acute abdominal pain, you note that she has stopped talking to you & has become extremely diaphoretic. You should:
    Repeat the primary assessment.
  82. A 39 y/o make sustained a large laceration to his leg during an accident w/ a chainsaw & is experiencing signs & symptoms of shock, You should:
    Follow appropriate standard precautions.
  83. Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by:
    Applying local direct pressure
  84. After applying a pressure dressing to a laceration on a PT's arm, you notice that blood is slowly beginning to saturate it. You should:
    Place additional dressings over the wound. .
  85. If direct pressure with a sterile dressing fails to immediately stop sever bleeding from an extremity, you should apply:
    A tourniquet proximal to the injury
  86. When using a stick and square knot as a tourniquet to control severe bleeding from an amputated arm, the EMT should:
    Stop twisting the stick when the bleeding stops.
  87. Whether you are using a commercial device or a stick & triangular bandage as a tourniquet, it is important to remember that:
    The tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released.
  88. Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a PT who has an open fracture of the forearm w/ external bleeding?
    Air Splint
  89. You arrive at the home of a 50 y/o female w/ severe epistaxis. As you are treating her, it is MOST important to recall that:
    The PT is at risk for vomiting and aspiration.
  90. A 43 y/o man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. His blood pressure is 190/110 mm Hg and his heart rate is 90 beats/min and bounding. Appropriate treatment for this PT includes:
    Pinching the PT's nostrils and having him lean forward.
  91. Bleeding from the nose following head trauma:
    Is a sign of a skull fracture and should not be stopped
  92. Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin?
  93. What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body?
  94. The germinal Layer of the epidermis contains pigment granules that are responsible for skin:
  95. Which of the following statements regarding the dermis is correct?
    The dermis contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings.
  96. The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a material that:
    Waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple.
  97. All of the following body structures are lined w/ mucous membranes, EXCEPT for the:
  98. Functions of the skin include all of the following, EXCEPT:
    The productions of key antibodies.
  99. When a person is exposed to a cold environment:
    Peripheral vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin.
  100. Which of the following processes occurs during the inflammation phase of the healing process?
    The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling.