shotgun questions.txt

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shotgun questions.txt
2013-05-15 23:31:06

shotgun questions - all
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  1. During a static takeoff, what power setting will the pilot flying set prior to brake release?
    25-30% torque.
  2. What airspeed is rotation to the takeoff attitude initiated?
    85 KIAS no wind
  3. You are departing runway 15L and winds are out of the east (left). What flight control inputs are required to counter the crosswind?
    Left aileron, right rudder
  4. What is the minimum airspeed and altitude required prior to the first turn after takeoff?
    140 KIAS, 400’ AGL (the 400 foot restriction does not apply to the VFR pattern)
  5. Does the 400’ restriction prior to the first turn after takeoff apply to the VFR pattern for example a closed pattern?
  6. What is normal climb speed range in the T-6?
    140-180 KIAS
  7. When may you advance the PCL to IDLE during engine start?
    Any time N1 is at or above 60%
  8. How can an AUTO engine start be manually aborted?
    Retard PCL to OFF, or reselect AUTO/RESET on the starter switch
  9. What does illumination of both the PMU FAIL and PMU STATUS annunciators indicate?
    PMU system is in manual mode (faults prevent the PMU from setting the requested power or respecting engine limits, or pilot switches PMU OFF)
  10. What does a PMU STATUS annunciation one minute after landing indicate?
    Fault conditions that are not serious enough to revert the system to manual are encountered in flight.
  11. What does a PMU STATUS annunciation in flight indicate?
    a fault in either of , or a mismatch between the weight-on-wheels switches; the PMU will not revert to ground mode upon landing.
  12. What does pulling the firewall shutoff handle accomplish?
    Cut off fuel flow and hydraulic fluid flow to the engine, and cut off bleed air flow and hydraulic flow from the engine.
  13. Can the valves closed by actuating the firewall shutoff handle be reset? How?
    Yes, by pushing the handle down.
  14. Describe what happens when the front seat ejection handle is pulled if the ISS is in BOTH and the rear seat is pinned?
    the rear seat will eject, followed by the front seat
  15. With the starter switch in AUTO or MAN(UAL), what happens when electrical power is applied to the aircraft?
    the prop will begin to rotate immediately upon power application.
  16. What is the minimum voltage required for a battery start?
    24.0 VDC (Local)
  17. What is the minimum landing gear strut extension?
    Nose: 2.5”, Main: 2.0”
  18. What propeller operating range is prohibited to prevent ground resonance?
    62-80% Np
  19. What is the weather required for restricted overhead?
  20. How are pattern entries from radar termination made during a restricted overhead status?
  21. Are pattern straight-ins allowed from outside downwind on a restricted overhead status?
  22. Can you breakout during a restricted overhead status? Why?
    No, VFR entry is closed and high breakouts are not permitted due to weather.
  23. What is the minimum weather to practice ELPs from Hi Key?
  24. What is the minimum weather for a Dual status?
  25. What is the minimum weather and visibility for Pattern Solo?
  26. After a stop which required maximum braking and if overheated brakes are expected, what should you do?
    Go to the hot brakes area.
  27. Can you set the parking brake after maximum breaking and suspected hot brakes?
  28. Is the T-6 permitted to engage a barrier?
  29. If a raised barrier is already in place and your current speed indicates you cannot stop short of it what should you do?
    Steer around it and depart the prepared surface if necessary.
  30. What are the four times we perform the emergency engine shutdown on the ground boldface?
    Prop strike, Departing the prepared surface, Chip light, Engine fire
  31. Should you raise the gear if you have a tire failure on takeoff and the takeoff is continued?
  32. Can you motor the engine with the canopy open?
  33. What forms serve as the official log of aircraft operation, servicing and maintenance?
    AFTO 781
  34. What is the minimum spacing for taxiing behind another aircraft?
    75’ staggered, 150’ directly behind in trail
  35. When will you accomplish an Operations Check?
    When reaching your final cruise altitude or established in the MOA, and approximately every 15 minutes thereafter.
  36. What effect will gyroscopic precession of the propeller have on the aircraft if the nose is pitched up?
    Right yaw
  37. What type of uncoordinated flight is caused by insufficient bank angle in relation to the turn rate of the aircraft?
  38. What power setting is needed to maintain level flight at 200 knots?
    50% torque (+ altitude)
  39. Describe the ideal energy level for maneuvering in the MOA.
    Near the middle of the altitude block at 180-200 KIAS.
  40. How many wheel brake applications remain after loss of normal hydraulic pressure?
    Unlimited – wheel brakes are independent
  41. What is the corrective action if brake pressure appears to fade during application or brakes are not responding as expected?
    Fully release brakes then re-apply (both crewmembers must release).
  42. How long should you wait before takeoff behind a larger type aircraft or helicopter?
    Two minutes
  43. When can you raise the landing gear on takeoff?
    once a positive rate of climb is established.
  44. Your aircraft appears unresponsive to rudder inputs and the slip ball moves opposite the direction you expect during rudder trim inputs. If you suspect ice in the rudder centering springs, what is the corrective action?
    Reduce airspeed to 170 KIAS or below, apply sufficient rudder pedal force to achieve one slip ball width deflection in each direction.
  45. How do you achieve maximum braking effectiveness?
    a steady application of brakes –or- a smooth, single application, increasing as airspeed decreases
  46. What is the runway condition reading or RCR for a dry runway? Wet? Icy?
    DRY 23, WET 12, ICY 5
  47. What is maximum abort speed?
    maximum speed at which an abort may be started and the aircraft stopped within the remaining runway length.
  48. What allowances or assumptions go into maximum abort speed?
    3-second reaction at max abort speed to recognize decision to abort and select idle power, and 3 second period to apply the brakes after idle power is selected.
  49. What is maximum braking speed?
    maximum speed from which the aircraft can be brought to a stop without exceeding the maximum design energy absorption capability of the brakes (3.96 million foot-pounds total).
  50. Where are the hot brakes zones located at SAFB?
    IFG pg G-18 all hammerheads, denoted by theta
  51. When taking off on Rwy 33R or 15L what altitude MSL must you remain at or below prior to crossing the inside downwind groundtrack?
    1500’ MSL
  52. When flying the SHEP I Dept, what altitude restriction must you be at or above by JULIETT?
    8,000’ MSL
  53. When flying the SHEP II Dept, what altitude restriction must you be at or above by KILO?
    8,000’ MSL
  54. Aircrews should use TO or UP flap settings for full-stop and touch-and-go landings when the crosswind (steady state or gust) exceeds how many knots?
    10 knots
  55. At what speed can you expect increased brake sensitivity, possibly leading to hot brakes or brake failure?
    80 kts
  56. If insufficient runway does not exist straight ahead, what should you do?
  57. What is the flat rated shaft horsepower output of the PT6A-68 engine?
    1100 SHP
  58. What are the two sections of the T-6’s engine?
    Gas generation section and the power turbine section
  59. What is the function of the reduction gearbox?
    To reduce the power turbine output of 30,000 RPM to propeller operation speed off 2000 RPM
  60. What is your primary reference in the traffic pattern?
    The runway
  61. What is the break zone for the T-6 overhead pattern?
    Approach end to 3000’ down the runway.
  62. What visual reference approximates proper spacing for a 30-degree bank final turn in calm winds?
    Landing runway placed halfway between fuel filler cap and the wingtip
  63. What is the minimum airspeed on inside downwind?
    120 KIAS
  64. 11-248 says to not start the final turn from the perch in four cases: what are those cases?
    • another aircraft in the final turn and not in sight,
    • a straight-in inside of 2 miles and not in sight,
    • an ELP inside Low Key and normal spacing cannot be maintained,
    • or if you cannot maintain normal pattern size and safe spacing,
    • and not properly configured by the perch point
  65. What speed do you fly the final turn and final with flaps set to TO? LDG? UP?
    TO = 115/105 KIAS; LDG = 110/100 KIAS; UP = 120/110 KIAS
  66. What is the maximum bank angle in the final turn?
    45 degrees
  67. How far down the runway should you plan to touch down with LDG or TO flaps?
    500-1000’ past the threshold.
  68. Add ½ the gust factor up to how many knots for final approach and touchdown speeds?
    10 knots
  69. What is your target touchdown speed with LDG flaps?
    80±5 KIAS
  70. What will you do if you encounter nosewheel shimmy during the landing roll?
    apply back stick pressure to relieve weight on the nose wheel, and then gently release pressure to reestablish nose wheel contact with the runway. If condition persists reapply back stick pressure.
  71. What is the minimum airspeed and bank angle for the closed pull-up?
    140 KIAS, 90? of bank.
  72. What will you do if you experience proposing on landing?
    immediately position controls to take off attitude to prevent the nose wheel from contacting the runway and simultaneously advance the PCL to MAX and GO-AROUND.
  73. True or False: You should raise the gear after experiencing a porpoise?
    F, leave the gear down
  74. What is the overhead pattern altitude for Hacker?
    2200’ MSL
  75. What is the straight-in pattern altitude for Hacker?
    1700’ MSL
  76. At what point do you descend to 1700’ on 17 at Hacker? On 35?
    • Point G
    • Point H
  77. What is the breakout altitude for Hacker?
    3200’ MSL
  78. What altitude is high key? Low key?
    • 3700’-4200’ MSL
    • 2700’ MSL
  79. If you encounter less than 1-G flight for more than 5 seconds but exceed no operating limits, what must you do prior to initiating any subsequent maneuvers?
    Recover to 1 G or greater flight for a minimum of 5 seconds.
  80. What power setting is used for entry into power-on stalls?
    30-60% torque
  81. What pitch setting is used for power-on stalls?
    15-40 degrees nose high
  82. What bank angle is used for power-on stalls?
    20-30 degrees in either direction
  83. When should you initiate recover from power-on stalls?
    When control effectiveness is lost (nose drops or an unplanned rolling motion takes place).
  84. When is recovery from traffic pattern stalls initiated?
    When you recognize an approach to stall indication (best approach to stall indications are stick shaker or natural aircraft buffet).
  85. What is your first indication of an approaching stall in the clean glide phase of a power-off ELP stall?
    the gear warning horn sounds (approximately 120 KIAS)
  86. What airspeed is slow flight flown at with LDG flaps?
    80-85 KIAS
  87. What is the correct procedure to recover from inverted flight?
    roll in the shortest direction to a level flight attitude.
  88. With normal airspeed and the aircraft responding in a normal sense, what is the procedure for recovering from a nose-high attitude?
    Adjust power to MAX, initiate a coordinated roll with back pressure to bring the nose of the aircraft down to the nearest horizon (inverted attitude may be reached). As nose approaches horizon, roll to an upright attitude.
  89. What is the duration of the emergency oxygen system supply?
    10 minutes, or until seat/pilot separation.
  90. What two ways can the emergency oxygen system be activated?
    automatically during ejection, or by pulling the green ring while in the cockpit.
  91. What pressure is the emergency oxygen cylinder charged to normally?
    1800 psi
  92. What position should the ISS mode selector be placed during crew entry to and exit from the cockpit?
  93. What is the minimum altitude AGL for controlled ejection? Uncontrolled?
    • 2000’
    • 6000’
  94. What airspeed is recommended by the checklist for ejection?
  95. What is the squawk for emergency?
  96. With the ISS in both, which seat will eject first?
  97. With ISS in both, does it matter who pulls the handle first?
  98. On the SHEP I and II Departures, what altitude do you climb to?
    14,000’ MSL
  99. When on the departures what radial/dme must you use before continuing on to SHEP I or SHEP II Depts?
  100. What is the squawk at Hacker?
  101. What is Bingo Fuel to return from Hacker?
  102. During the Clean Glide portion of Power-Off ELP stalls, how do you recover upon hearing the gear warning horn?
    Lowering the pitch attitude slightly below the normal glide picture and reestablish the glide once airspeed reaches 125 KIAS.
  103. During the gear-down portions of Power-Off ELP stalls between simulated high key and runway, how do you recover once an approach to stall indication is noted?
    Maintain the turn and recover by lowering the pitch attitude to put the prop arc on the horizon until airspeed is reestablished at 120 KIAS.
  104. What are the two types of Emergency Landing Patterns?
    Forced landing & Precautionary emergency landing
  105. What is a suitable landing area for the purposes of an ELP?
    Hard surface runway, taxiway, underrun, or overrun.
  106. What is the target airspeed, altitude and configuration for Low Key in the T-6?
    1500’ AGL, 120 KIAS, Gear down, Flaps TO (as required).
  107. What is your target airspeed, altitude, and configuration for Base Key in the T-6?
    600-800’ AGL, 120 KIAS, Gear down, Flaps LDG (as required)
  108. During a precautionary emergency landing, what correction should be made when you recognize a low energy state?
    add power to correct for low energy
  109. During a forced landing, what correction should be made when you recognize a low energy state?
    Delay gear or flap extension, intercept ELP at some point other than high key, and/or adjusting the pattern or ground track.
  110. When trying to lose excess altitude following a high-altitude power loss, how many feet of altitude can you expect to lose with a 360 degree turn at 30 degrees of bank?
  111. During an ELP, what is the minimum airspeed on final prior to beginning the transition to landing?
    110 KIAS
  112. What is the recommended minimum weather for a forced landing or precautionary emergency landing?
    2000-foot ceiling, 3 miles visibility
  113. What alternative does 11-248 recommend for a PEL situation with weather below 2000-3?
    normal overhead or instrument approach, as dictated by the weather.
  114. Move the high key position into the wind how many feet for every 10 knots of wind?
    1000 feet
  115. What power setting should you set for a PEL or practice ELP to simulate zero thrust?
    4-6% torque.
  116. Where do you aim to touchdown on the runway during emergency landing patterns?
    1/3 down the runway.
  117. The Dash-1 says not to set the boost pump and ignition switches to ON for what conditions?
    Engine malfunctions such as oil system, chip light, fire, or FOD.
  118. What should you do if the engine fails during a precautionary emergency landing?
    Transition to the Forced Landing.
  119. How does the Dash-1 depict the High Key position?
    2500-3000’ AGL (recommended), 1/3rd point on runway
  120. What is the maximum allowable airspeed in the T-6?
    316 KIAS/0.67 Mach
  121. What does the white triangle denote on the AOA indicator?
    Max range AOA (4.9 units)
  122. What is the operating maneuvering speed (Vo) for the T-6, and what is the significance of it?
    • 227 KIAS
    • Speed above which full or abrupt control movement can result in structural damage to the aircraft.
  123. When must weight and balance be checked to determine that gross weight and CG limitations are not exceeded?
    Solo pilot weight (including gear) exceeds 260 pounds, combined crew weight exceeds 500 pounds (with gear), when overwing refueling is accomplished above 1100 pounds, or when baggage weight exceeds 10 pounds.
  124. What is the maximum rate of descent at touchdown?
    780 feet per minute
  125. What are the oil pressure limitations?
    Normal 90-120 psi, Aerobatics/spins 40-130 psi, Aero/spins (IDLE) 15-40 psi (5 seconds).
  126. If you are in the MOA, who do you relay the #s to?
    SOF and RAPCON
  127. If you are in the Cooter’s pattern, who do you relay the #s to?
    Cooter only
  128. If outside Cooter’s pattern with an emergency what is the preferred recovery method?
    Straight in recovering to the center runway.
  129. If the intercom fails on the ground prior to takeoff what should you do?
    Return to parking for a spare.
  130. Intercom out signal for FCP to pull Emergency gear extension?
    Cycling of the landing gear handle and leaving it in the down position.
  131. True or False: If a birdstrike occurs on the prop but does NOT penetrate the front windscreen it is permissible to continue the mission?
  132. What signal is given to other crewmember to signal controlled ejection with an inoperative intercom?
    Display the pink pages then give AC a thumbs up when checklist complete
  133. What is the signal to be given for ejection with no intercom?
    3 “Martin-Baker face curtain” signals
  134. The Reduction Gear Box reduces shaft output speed from ______ RPM to a propeller operating speed of ______ RPM.
    Over 30,000, 2,000
  135. What does a red CHIP annunciator indicate?
    Contaminated oil
  136. T or F: the RGB is mechanically connected to the gas generator section of the engine?
  137. The propeller system is designed to maintain a constant speed of _____?
    2000 RPM
  138. At 100% indicated torque, the engine is producing approx _____ foot pounds of torque at the prop shaft?
  139. What are the three basic conditions of propeller pitch?
    Feathered, low pitch (flat or fine), and high pitch (coarse)
  140. Normally, propeller governing is automatically set by the ____ and ____.
    PMU and PIU
  141. If oil pressure is lost in the propeller system, what will the prop do?
  142. Power for the feather dump solenoid valve is provided through which circuit breaker?
  143. During an auto start or normal operations with the ignition set to NORM, the ____ PMU will energize and de-energize the igniters as required.
  144. What 781 symbol indicates that an unsatisfactory condition exists but is not sufficiently urgent or dangerous to warrant grounding the aircraft?
    Red diagonal ( / )
  145. What 781 symbol indicates that a required inspection has not been made or is overdue?
    Red dash ( -- )
  146. What do black initials in the status block of the 781H indicate?
    Discrepancy is corrected or there is nothing wrong
  147. What is the order of severity for the 781 symbols, beginning with the worst?
    X, -- , / , Initials
  148. How long is a preflight good for?
    • 48 hours, or until the end of the day if the aircraft flies
    • If you encounter complete electrical failure, fly over the RSU at _____ feet AGL and _____ KIAS.
    • 500, 200
  149. When departing Hacker on runway 17 what altitude must you cross Hollister?
    3300’ MSL
  150. What altitude must you remain at or below when crossing Hollister on arrival to Hacker 35?
    2,800’ MSL
  151. What does a red light or flare from the RSU indicate?
    Do Not Land
  152. What actions should be taken if you are lost?
    Climb to optimum altitude, slow to maximum endurance, contact ATC and squawk 7700.
  153. T/F Position of the Interseat sequencing system can be monitored from the FCP?
  154. Name all the systems that have to be visually or verbally confirmed from the FCP?
    Auxiliary battery, manual fuel balance L/R switch, environmental control system, parking brake position, emergency gear extension, and altimeter setting of front cockpit.
  155. How can the bleed air inflow be checked from the RCP?
    Pressing the G-suit test button.
  156. How can you confirm OBOGS operation from the RCP?
    Turning off the supply lever
  157. Accomplish a G-awareness turn on any sortie that may require more than how many Gs?
  158. At what airspeed is the Gx flown? A: 200-220; how many G’s?
    4; how many breathing cycles? A: 3-4
  159. For advanced aerobatics and formation training the G-awareness turns should be flown to G-loads of?
    4-5 Gs
  160. Do not shut down the engine in flight if it is producing usable torque unless?
    it is confirmed on fire, vibrations indicate impeding failure or not required for recovery to the selected emergency field.
  161. Do not restart the engine if what circumstances occur?
  162. Taxi how fast in a congested area?
    5-7 knots
  163. Taxi speed in an uncongested area should not exceed?
    15 knots
  164. Differential braking with the NWS engaged should be avoided to preclude?
    damage to the nose gear
  165. During the Over Speed Governor check a technique is to keep the control stick ______ to prevent the nose gear strut from compressing?
    neutral to slightly aft position
  166. Do not accomplish after landing checklist items until when?
    safe taxi speed and clear of the runway
  167. What is the primary source of power for the PMU?
    the PMA
  168. What sort of power does the PMA provide?
    32 VAC
  169. In ground mode, idle is _____ and approximately ______ in flight mode.
    60%, 67%
  170. Above ______ feet MSL the PMU raises N1 to maintain Np above 80% to avoid stress on the propeller during spins.
  171. Is the automatic shutdown feature provided by the PMU available in flight mode?
  172. The PMU will go offline when the IOAT exceeds _____?
  173. What is the purpose of the bob weight in the elevator control system?
    To provide feedback to the pilot at an increased level
  174. T or F: It is not necessary to pulse the trim at high airspeeds.
  175. What are the four factors that act as a function of the Trim Aid?
    Engine torque, indicated airspeed, pressure altitude, and pitch rate
  176. Lowering the speed brake at high airspeeds will produce a slight pitch in which direction?
  177. Does the elevator automatically trim during Speed brake operation?
  178. Can you normally extend the flaps and speed brake simultaneously?
  179. What are the four factors that effect glide performance?
    airspeed, aircraft configuration (gear and flaps), angle of bank, and coordinated or uncoordinated flight.
  180. Best glide speed in a clean configuration is approximately _____?
    125 KIAS
  181. At best glide, what can you expect your sink rate to be?
    1350 ft/min
  182. In an engine out situation, how can the flaps be lowered?
    Normally, after the landing gear has been extended using the emergency system.
  183. What power setting approximates the performance of an aircraft with a feathered prop?
  184. What is the margin of artificial stall warning during a power-off unaccelerated condition?
    5-10 knots above stall speed
  185. When does natural stall warning occur during power off conditions?
    3 knots above stall speed
  186. Above what torque setting might full right rudder and full right aileron not prevent a left roll off at stall?
  187. Does speed brake extension effect stall characteristics?
  188. What are the correct steps for stall recovery?
    Reduce angle of attack, Advance PCL, Roll wings level, Increase back pressure
  189. When conditions require a landing with minimum maneuvering or gradual airspeed changes, what type of approach should be flown?
  190. What are some conditions that may require a straight in approach?
    flight control malfunctions, electrical or pitot-static problems, structural damage, open access door, unlocked canopy.
  191. At what altitude are straight-ins normally flown?
    500 AGL
  192. Prior to what point do you want to be configured and on speed during a straight in?
    2 miles
  193. What items are located on the Aux Battery Bus?
    Standby Instruments, Standby instrument lights, UHF backup, Fire 1.
  194. What bus is the OBOGS on?
    Hot battery bus
  195. How many volts does the Starter Generator produce?
    28 VDC
  196. With loss of the Gen (bus tie closed) what equipment will be shed immediately?
    Air Conditioning
  197. What actions should be taken if you suspect hot brakes?
    Notify ground, park facing the wind in designated hot brakes area, leave the engine running until told to shut down, follow fire chief directions.
  198. What is considered a safe distance after egressing the aircraft?
    300 feet
  199. What action should be taken if OBOGS or regulator failure is suspected?
    consider activating emergency oxygen cylinder.
  200. If G-Loc or grey out occurs, what type of approach should be flown?
  201. Should you disconnect from oxygen equipment if a physiological mishap occurs?
  202. What is the duration limit of the OBOGS?
  203. Where does the OBOGS get the oxygen from?
    From conditioned bleed air by pressure swing absorption using a molecular sieve.
  204. If an OBOGS failure occurs, how is breathing ambient air possible through the mask?
    The anti-suffocation valve
  205. Where does the OBOGS get its power?
    The hot battery bus
  206. How long does the OBOGS sensor warm-up period last?
    Approx 3 minutes
  207. At what temperature in the OBOGS ducting will the OBOGS TEMP annunciator illuminate?
    200 F
  208. What action should be taken with the OBOGS if cockpit smoke and fumes are present, hypoxia symptoms occur, or a loss of cabin pressurization occurs?
    Gang load regulator
  209. Will the OBOGS be operative with one supply lever turned off and one turned on?
  210. T or F: When placed to MAX, the OBOGS will provide 100% oxygen.
  211. Power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits (except for the backup UHF control head and UHF transceiver) is supplied through which switch?
  212. How do you select cold mic from the front cockpit?
    Cannot – control is in rear cockpit
  213. With the ICS in cold, how may interphone communication be accomplished?
    The ICS KEY or ICS KEY/MUTE switch on either PCL
  214. Where is the ground crew headset jack located?
    Left side of aft fuselage
  215. How many UHF radios are on the aircraft?
  216. What are the different ways to control the UHF radio?
    RMU, backup UHF control head
  217. How many frequencies can be set into the UHF memory pages?
  218. How many frequencies will the NAV preset memory hold?
  219. What are the positions of the ELT switch?
    On and Arm
  220. Red chevrons will indicate the best unusual attitude recovery on the EADI if the pitch is?
    40-85 degrees nose low, 50-85 degrees nose high
  221. Where is the IDARS located?
    left avionics bay
  222. What does the green FDR MAINT annunciator indicate?
    IDARS memory is approx 80% full
  223. Where are the landing and taxi lights located?
    Landing light, left side. Taxi Light, right side
  224. Which side is the green navigation light located on?
    Right side
  225. When each cockpits lamp test is accomplished, does it illuminate the light in the gear handle for the other cockpit?
  226. Outside of the local area, where do we get guidance on lost communications?
  227. If lost comm is suspected on the ground, what signal should you look for from Cooter?
    flasing Green light
  228. In an RSU pattern what signal should you use for lost comm.?
    Wing rock on initial
  229. What should you squawk in case of lost comm.?
  230. What does a steady green light indicate to airborne aircraft?
    Cleared to land
  231. What does a steady red light mean while in the air?
    Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
  232. What does a flashing red light indicate?
    Ground: Taxi clear of landing area Air: Airport unsafe, do not land
  233. When must a visor be worn?
    During all phases of flight, specifically after the canopy closes.
  234. T or F: Solo students are allowed to put their ejection pin in while taxiing.
    F, they must be stopped.
  235. How much fuel is provided through the single point refueling?
    1100 pounds
  236. How much more fuel is available with over the wing refueling?
    100 pounds
  237. Within how many pounds does the auto balance system keep the wing tanks?
    20 pounds
  238. When does the red FUEL PX annunciator illuminate?
    When the low pressure switch indicates less than 10 psi fuel pressure
  239. How many pounds of fuel remain in a wing when the associated FUEL LO annunciator illuminates?
    110 pounds
  240. When will the FUEL BAL annunciator illuminate?
    If indicated fuel balance exceeds 30 pounds for 2 minutes, or a fuel probe failure
  241. What does FP FAIL indicate?
    Failure of a fuel probe
  242. Will automatic fuel balancing be available with fuel probe failure?
  243. What should you do if the FUEL PX annunciator illuminates and the boost pump activates during inverted flight?
    Cease inverted maneuvers and notify maintenance after the flight.
  244. When does FUEL PX illuminate?
    <10 psi in Motive flow supply line
  245. When does the L/R FUEL LO light illuminate?
    110# optical sensor
  246. Three times the boost pump light will illuminate?
    • 1. When switch is turned on
    • 2. Automatically by the low px switch as long as PCL is above idle
    • 3. Whenever starter is activated (automatically or manually)
  247. T/F When nonrated personnel occupy the rear seat the safety pin will be removed once clear of the chocks and before entering the active runway?
    F: nonrated personnel will not remove the seat safety pin (unless ejection fails with the ISS fails).
  248. What is the minimum taxi distance between aircraft in trail? Staggered? Night or Snow?
    • 150’
    • 75’
    • 300’
  249. What is the definition of recovery fuel?
    Fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing.
  250. What is the local recovery fuel?
  251. What is min fuel dual? Solo?
    • 150lbs
    • 200lbs
  252. What is emergency fuel?
    100lbs or less
  253. Minimum runway length for T-6 operations?
    4000 feet
  254. Minimum runway width for T-6 operations?
    75 feet
  255. OG/CCs may waive the length/width requirement for nontowered airfield low approaches to what?
  256. T-6 aircraft require how much distance between arresting cables located on or above the runway surface?
    4000 feet
  257. What is the engines shaft horsepower rating?
  258. How does air enter the engine?
    Through the rear
  259. What are the two engine sections?
    Gas generator and power turbine
  260. What is the capacity of the oil system?
    18 quarts (18.5 mod)
  261. Oil level must be serviced to MAX HOT within ___ minutes.
  262. The red OIL PX annunciator will illuminate when the oil pressure falls below:
    40 psi with engine above idle, 15 psi at idle
  263. What is the propeller operating speed?
    2000 rpm
  264. With the PMU functioning the mechanical overspeed governor limits Np to:
    below 106%
  265. The electronic governor will maintain Np below:
  266. If the PMU is off the mechanical overspeed governor will limit Np to:
  267. What is the position of the propeller if the engine fails and the PCL is out of cutoff?
    It will eventually feather
  268. The PMU receives its power from?
    the PMA
  269. N1 is _____ in ground mode and _________ in flight mode.
    60%, 67%
  270. Why would the PMU abort a start?
    Hot, hung, or no start.
  271. Prior to reaching High key maintain a minimum of ____ knots.
  272. High key is located ___ way down the runway at ______ feet agl.
    1/3, 3,000, 2,500 minimum
  273. The target altitude and airspeed for low key is:
    1500 feet agl 120 knots
  274. Base key is ____ feet agl.
  275. For no wind planning, the aircraft should glide ____ miles for every _____ feet of
    • altitude lost.
    • 2, 1,000
  276. Expect to lose ____feet for a 30? bank turn, _____ feet for a 45? bank turn, and _____
    • feet for a 60? bank turn.
    • 2,000, 1,500, 1,000
  277. Intercept final a minimum of ______ feet from the intended point of touchdown
  278. Maintain ____ knots on final until beginning the transition to landing.
  279. Do not slow below ___ knots until over a suitable landing area.
  280. What is the difference between a PEL and an SFL?
    Power is available for a PEL
  281. What is the recommended weather for a forced landing?
    2,000, 3
  282. What is the glide ratio for a high speed ELP?
  283. When should you switch to Eastside frequency?
    passing last row of T-6s or T-38s
  284. Is it acceptable to overshoot the extended runway centerline during VFR conditions
  285. What are the specs of the PMA?
  286. If the PMA fails where does the PMU receive power?
    28V Batt Buss
  287. What is the maximum crosswind component for T-6 full stops? Touch and Go’s? Solo/Formation Wing? Wet? Ice?
    • 25
    • 20
    • 15
    • 10
    • 5
  288. When must an IP acknowledge the students “gear clear” call prior to the student raising the gear?
    presolo contact sorties
  289. When the crosswind exceeds ____ knots, aircrews should use UP or TO flaps.
  290. LDG flaps should be used for full stop landings when landing distance is greater than or equal to _____ of runway length.
  291. On a low approach how low are you authorized to go before initiating a go-around?
    do not allow the aircraft to touch down
  292. When a restricted low approach is directed how low are you allowed to descend?
    500 AGL or as specified by the controller
  293. The T-6A has a ____ VDC _____amp starter generator.
    28, 300
  294. What is the voltage and amperage of the battery?
    24 volt 42 amp hour
  295. Describe how the battery and generator switches operate.
    When one switch is turned on it trips the other to off while power remains on
  296. What is the voltage and amperage of the auxiliary battery?
    24 volt 5 amp
  297. In an emergency situation the aux battery will power:
    standby instruments, lights, UHF backup, fire 1
  298. External power is distributed on what bus?
  299. What happens if the voltage output from the APU exceeds a nominal level?
    power is automatically disconnected from the aircraft
  300. What is the purpose of the bus tie switch?
    To tie/isolate the battery and generator buses
  301. What happens if the red BAT BUS annunciator and the BUS TIE annunciator are both illuminated?
    items on the battery bus will not be powered
  302. If the generator fails with the BUS TIE annunciator illuminated what happens?
    items on the generator bus will not be powered
  303. How long will the battery power the battery bus items?
    Approx 30 minutes
  304. What items does the generator power if only the GEN BUS is illuminated with the bus tie in NORM?
    battery and generator busses
  305. What is the maximum speed in the pattern?
    200 knots
  306. What is the minimum speed for a closed pull-up? MAX bank?
    140 knots, 90 degrees
  307. What is the torque setting for power on stalls?
  308. What is the pitch attitude for power on stalls?
    15-40 degrees
  309. What is the bank angle for power on stalls?
    20-30 degrees
  310. For ELP stalls set the torque to _____ and fly at _____ knots.
    4-6%, 125
  311. How much altitude does a power on stall require?
    300 feet
  312. What is the recovery picture for an ELP stall with the gear extended?
    prop arc on the horizon
  313. How much altitude will an ELP stall with the gear extended take?
    800 feet
  314. How much altitude will an ELP stall with gear and takeoff flaps extended take?
    900 feet
  315. If you get a stall indication in the traffic pattern, should you comply with normal groundtrack?
  316. What airspeed is needed to start traffic pattern stalls in the MOA?
    120 knots
  317. What power setting is used during traffic pattern stalls?
  318. What airspeed is used prior to initiating the landing attitude stall?
    100 knots
  319. What are the airspeeds and flap settings for slow flight?
    LDG 80-85 knots, T/O 85-90, UP 90-95
  320. Can the stick shaker be on during slow flight?
  321. The correct procedure to recover from inverted flight is?
    Roll in the shortest direction to the level-flight attitude
  322. Do not apply back-stick pressure during a nose low recovery unless:
    the wings are less than 90 degrees
  323. Should a nose low recovery involve max available g loading?
    only if altitude is critical
  324. What power setting is used for a nose high recovery?
  325. What should you do if the aircraft does not immediately respond in a nose high recovery?
    recover using OCF procedures
  326. What is the airspeed and torque setting for a stab demo?
    160 knots, 60%
  327. What is the pitch attitude for a stab demo?
    45 degrees
  328. When do you recover from a stab demo?
    80 knots or at first stick shaker
  329. What airspeed should you be at prior to decelerating for a spin?
    120 knots
  330. What is the pitch attitude and airspeed at spin entry?
    15-20 degrees nose high, approximately 80 knots
  331. How many fire detection systems are installed on the aircraft?
  332. Does flattening, denting, kinking, or twisting affect the fire detection system?
  333. Where does power for Fire 1 come from?
    Battery bus
  334. Where does power for Fire 2 come from?
    Generator Bus
  335. Pulling the EMERGENCY FIREWALL SHUTOFF HANDLE does what?
    Cuts off fuel flow and hydraulic flow to the engine and cuts off bleed air and hydraulic flow from the engine