RADT162_final

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jb4nto
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220033
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RADT162_final
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2013-05-18 01:46:38
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RADT162 Final
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  1. Which agency approved to incorporate venipuncture into the curriculum guide?
    A) ARRT
    B) ASRT
    C) ACR
    D) JRCERT
    B) ASRT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Which of the following concepts will define employment activities, education, and professional experience?
    A) scope of practice
    B) personal liability
    C) curriculum guides
    D) practice principles
    A) scope of practice
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Any radiographer who performs venipuncture and/or administers drugs through an IV line will NOT be subjected to malpractice lawsuits.
    False
  4. Arteries carry blood to the heart.
    False
  5. Small final branches of the artery are called ___.
    arterioles
  6. The blood vessels which exchange blood and tissue constituents are called ___.
    A) venule
    B) vein
    C) artery
    D) capillary
    D) capillary
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Which vessel is described as having tributaries?
    A) artery
    B) capillary
    C) vein
    D) venule
    C) vein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. The tunica intima layer of the blood vessel is called ___.
    A) middle coat
    B) outer coat
    C) internal coat
    D) lumen
    C) internal coat
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. The middle layer of the blood vessel is a layer of ___.
    A) Cobblestone cell's
    B) elastic tissue
    C) connective tissue
    D) visceral muscle
    D) visceral muscle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. The ___ vein ascends along the posteromedial surface of the forearm and winds anteriorly below the elbow.
    basilic
  11. Which vein will join the basilic below the elbow?
    A) basilic
    B) medial antebrachial
    C) superficial
    D) cephalic
    B) medial antebrachial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Which vein ascends along the anterolateral surface of the forearm and arm?
    A) cephalic
    B) basilic
    C) medial antebrachial
    D) superficial
    A) cephalic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. The ___ veins are located in the hand and join the cephalic vein.
    superficial
  14. Specific characteristics of contrast media are determined by the number of particular molecules and ___ attached to the iodine atom.
    A) type of side chains
    B) number of radicals
    C) types of ionizations
    D) total ionization
    A) type of side chains
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Which type of cation is used in an ionic monomer?
    A) meglumine
    B) carboxyl molecule
    C) phosphate
    D) sulfer
    A) meglumine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. The distrubution and movement of water between body compartments are called ___.
    A) edema
    B) hydrostasis
    C) osmolarity
    D) osmosis
    D) osmosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. The contrast agent Isovue is a non-ionic monomer.
    True
  18. The osmolality of human blood is ___ mOsm/kg.
    A) 600
    B) 1000
    C) 500
    D) 300
    D) 300
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Contrast medium with higher osmolality will have fewer adverse patient reactions.
    False
  20. What cation will produce a contrast medium with a higher viscosity?
    A) sodium
    B) sulfer
    C) meglumine
    D) carboxyl
    C) meglumine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Gadolinium is a non-paramagnetic atomic element.
    False
  22. Which type of patient will experience a three-fold likelihood of experiencing an adverse reaction to contrast media?
    A) arthritic
    B) asthmatic
    C) emphysemic
    D) choleric
    B) asthmatic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Severe contrast media reactions occur in approximately 1 of every ___ cases.
    A) 100,000
    B) 14,000
    C) 40,000
    D) 1,000
    B) 14,000
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Iodinated contrast media can cause the following adverse effects except:
    A) addictive
    B) osmolar
    C) allergic
    D) toxic
    A) addictive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Clinical manifestations of a toxic effect of contrast media includes: vomiting, nausea, seizures, ___.
    A) chest pain
    B) itching
    C) gastrointestinal edema
    D) urticaria
    C) gastrointestinal edema
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Vasovagal responses are treated by placing the patient in the Trendelenburg position.
    True
  27. The medications that are used to treat nonresponsive urticaria are:
    A) benedryl and epinephrine
    B) promethazine HCL and oxygen
    C) aminophylline and alupent
    D) oxygen and valium
    A) benedryl and epinephrine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. The most common mild anxiety-related cardiovascular response to contrast media is bradycardia.
    False
  29. An intermediate response, to contrast media, of the CNS includes aphasia and ___.
    amblyophia
  30. Atropine sulfate is the drug used in the treatment of hypotension and bradycardia.
    True
  31. Benedryl and ___ are the medications used for intermediate cutaneous responses to contrast media.
    epinephrine
  32. Respiratory responses which include sneezing, wheezing, coughing and rhinorrhea requires epinephrine for treatment.
    False
  33. Which of the following is not a common post-procedural protocol for contrast media administration?
    A) support fluid intake
    B) tell the patient to contact their physician
    C) monitor vital signs
    D) document patient weight
    D) document patient weight
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Microorganisms causing infectious diseases are classified as which of the following?
    A) pathogenic
    B) lytic
    C) nosocomial
    D) endogenous
    A) pathogenic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Which of the following is not a type of indirect disease transmission?
    A) aerosol
    B) fomite
    C) touching
    D) vector
    C) touching
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. The common cold is an example of an infection by which of the following?
    A) bacteria
    B) protozoa
    C) fungus
    D) virus
    D) virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Which term best describes the absolute removal of all life forms?
    A) sterilization
    B) antisepsis
    C) disinfection
    D) medical asepsis
    A) sterilization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. A health care worker is accidentally punctured with a contaminated needle. This type of transmission is known as which of the following?
    A) fomite
    B) vector
    C) iatrogenic
    D) nosocomial
    A) fomite
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Some pathogens aid in digestion and skin preservation.
    False
  40. What is the most common means of spreading infection?
    A) instruments improperly sterilized
    B) human hands
    C) improperly disposed of contaminated waste
    D) soiled linen
    B) human hands
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. What is the term for objects that have been in contact with pathogenic organisms?
    A) viruses
    B) pathogens
    C) microbes
    D) fomites
    D) fomites
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Since the radiographers are exposed to many pathogens during the course of the day, the radiographer who works when his or her resistance is low because of fatigue, stress, or a low-grade infection has increased susceptibility as a host.
    True
  43. The radiographer must use strict infection-control measures that include blood and body fluid precautions.
    A) for every patient who enters the radiology department
    B) for patients who have known communicable disease
    C) only for patients who have AIDS and hepatitis B
    D) for patients who seem ill
    A) for every patient who enters the radiology department
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Blood and body fluid precautions include:
    A) use of clean, disposable gloves for contact of the hands with blood or body fluids, a mask, and a gown.
    B) gown, gloves, mask and goggles for all patient care.
    C) use of clean, disposable gloves for sick persons.
    D) clean, disposable gloves as necessary.
    A) use of clean, disposable gloves for contact of the hands with blood or body fluids, a mask, and a gown.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. The most common means of spreading infection are:
    A) infected patients
    B) the human hands
    C) soiled instruments
    D) domestic animals
    B) the human hands
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. A patient who is known to have AIDS is to be your patient. Isolation precautions that you should take are:
    A) follow universal blood and body fluid precautions
    B) follow strict isolation procedure
    C) follow enteric precautions
    D) use airborne precautions
    A) follow universal blood and body fluid precautions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. When caring for a patient that you know to be infected with HIV who doesn't have AIDS, the imaging professional uses universal blood and body fluid precautions and...
    A) keeps all information concerning the patient confidential
    B) keeps the patient's chart in a place where it cannot be read by others
    C) shares the information with the radiographer in the next room who has no contact with the patient
    A) keeps all information concerning the patient confidential
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Only 16% of reported AIDS cases have involved contraction in the health care workplace.
    False
  49. According the Universal Precautions List, saliva, and sputum are considered noninfectious body fluids.
    True
  50. The most common method of spreading AIDS virus is by:
    A) indirect contact
    B) direct contact
    C) airborne contact
    D) vector contact
    B) direct contact
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Which of the following radiologic exams will not be a potential danger for contact with the patient's body fluids?
    A) paranasal sinuses
    B) barium enema
    C) vaginography
    D) upper GI
    A) paranasal sinuses
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. A patient's level of consciousness is evaluated using the:
    A) Valsalva test
    B) sphygmomanometer
    C) Glasgow coma test
    D) strabismometer
    C) Glasgow coma test
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Symptoms of a partially obstructed airway include labored, noisy breathing.
    True
  54. Respiratory failure may result from all of the following except:
    A) flatulence
    B) tongue
    C) coma
    D) vomitus
    A) flatulence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. The amount of time to determine pulselessness is:
    A) 5-10 seconds
    B) 10-20 seconds
    C) 1-3 seconds
    D) 3-5 seconds
    A) 5-10 seconds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. For adult cardiac compression, the ___ of the sternum is compressed.
    A) lower half
    B) middle
    C) upper half
    A) lower half
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. The manual resuscitation bag is used for mouth-to-mouth ventilation for patients with a communicable disease.
    a) True
  58. Which of the following is a strong alkalinizing agent prescribed following cardiac arrest?
    A) atropine
    B) calcium
    C) sodium bicarbonate
    D) epinephrine
    C) sodium bicarbonate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Dopamine should be delivered only via which of the following?
    A) intramuscular injection
    B) intraosseous injection
    C) endotracheal injection
    D) intravenous injection
    D) intravenous injection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Which drug is prescribed to convert a premature ventricular contraction to normal sinus rhythm?
    A) atropine
    B) epinephrine
    C) lidocaine
    D) sodium bicarbonate
    C) lidocaine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Which wave will trace the contraction of the ventricles?
    A) QRS complex
    B) Q
    C) T
    D) P
    A) QRS complex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. The sinus rhythm in which the heart rate ranges from 100-150 beats per minute?
    A) PVC
    B) sinus tachycardia
    C) sinus bradycardia
    D) ventricular fibrillation
    B) sinus tachycardia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Which condition will cause six PVCs to appear in a row?
    A) ventricular tachycardia
    B) ventricular fibrillation
    C) premature contraction
    D) sinus bradycardia
    A) ventricular tachycardia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. The asystole tracing is a straight line.
    True
  65. The resting stage for the ventricles is displayed as the _ wave.
    T
  66. Neglect or omission of reasonable care or caution is termed:
    A) libel
    B) negligence
    C) carelessness
    D) tort
    B) negligence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. For a radiographer or imaging professional to be found negligent in court, the civil proceedings must establish the following elements except:
    A) carelessness
    B) cause
    C) injury
    D) duty
    A) carelessness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. A radiographer or imaging professional's failure to perform proper venipuncture technique for contrast media administration would be considered failure of which of the four elements that contribute to negligent acts?
    A) cause
    B) injury
    C) duty
    D) breach of duty
    B) injury
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Which of the four elements that contribute to negligent acts would apply if the radiographer or imaging professional performs venipuncture and injects contrast media, and immediately leaves the room, the patient has a severe adverse reaction to the contrast media and falls off of the imaging table?
    A) breach
    B) duty
    C) cause
    D) injury
    C) cause
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. A radiographer who fails to act reasonably and prudently is considered to be negligent in the eyes of the law.
    True
  71. Ethical malpractice includes violations which fall below the standard of care.
    False
  72. The doctrine of informed consent will reassure patient ___.
    A) autonomy
    B) anxiety
    C) risk
    D) fears
    A) autonomy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. An informed consent must indicate the nature of the procedure, any risks complications and ___.
    A) bill for services
    B) alternatives
    C) benefits
    D) name of radiologist
    B) alternatives
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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