Patient Care

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ripmom30
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221839
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Patient Care
Updated:
2013-06-24 22:28:05
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study CCMA
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  1. Details regarding the health status of the patient's parents and siblings is known as:
    a. chief compliant
    b. social history
    c. past medical history
    d. family history
    d. family history
  2. All of the following are methods of disinfection EXCEPT:
    a. alcohol
    b. boiling
    c. antiseptics
    d. acids
    d. acids
  3. All of the following are common causes of breathing emergencies EXCEPT:
    a. choking
    b. obstruction
    c. strians
    d. asthma
    c. strains
  4. Which of the following illustrates an engineering control:
    a. sharps container
    b. hand washing
    c. lab coat
    d. all of the above
    a. sharps container
  5. When in doubt about whether a conscious victim is suffering from diabetic coma or insulin shock, FIRST:
    a. administer sugar
    b. administer fluids
    c. treat for shock
    d. lay the victim down
    a. administer sugar
  6. An examination method that requires the use of a stethoscope is:
    a. palpation
    b. manipulation
    c. auscultation
    d. percussion
    c. auscultation
  7. Shock caused by sudden blood or body fluid loss is:
    a. anaphylactic
    b. psychogenic
    c. neurogenic
    d. hypovolemic
    d. hypovolemic
  8. The normal transparency of freshly voided urine is:
    a. opaque
    b. turbid
    c. cloudy
    d. clear
    d. clear
  9. All of the following are common signs or symptoms of shock EXCEPT:
    a. nausea

    b. polyphagia
    c. tachycardia
    d. moist skin
    b. polyphagia
  10. All of the following are steps for proper instruments care EXCEPT:
    a. do not stack instruments to avoid entangling them
    b. keep instruments with differing finishes separate
    c. use the instrument only for the purpose for which it is designed
    d. keep the ratcheted instruments in a closed position
    a. do not stack instruments to avoid entangling them
  11. The first aid priority for an injured victim is to:
    a. create a patient
    b. initiate breathing
    c. stop bleeding
    d. immobilize injuries
    • c. stop bleeding
    • d. immobilize injuries
    • either one is fine
  12. All of the following are proper aseptic techniques EXCEPT:
    a. transfer forceps are held facing down
    b. bottles containing sterile solution not touch the sterile receptacle when poured
    c. lids are placed down on the table
    d. cover a sterile tray with a sterile towel if not used immediately
  13. A surgical wound that becomes infected and must be reopened is a:
    a. first intention wound
    b. second intention wound
    c. third intention wound
    d. fourth intention wound
    b. second intention wound
  14. A sterile cover placed over a wound to prevent contamination is the:
    a. dressing
    b. wrap
    c. cast
    d. bandage
    a. dressing
  15. A common sign of diabetes mellitus is:
    a. polycythemia
    b. hypoglycemia
    c. polyuria
    d. polycrotism
    c. polyuria
  16. The Ichihara test is associated with which of the following examinations?
    a. ontological
    b. ophthalmological
    c. gynecological
    d. orthopedic
    b. ophthalmological
  17. Measuring a body part is called:
    a. inspection
    b. palpation
    c. percussion
    d. menstruation
    c. percussion
  18. An instrument used to test hearing is a (n):
    a. stethoscope
    b. tuning fork
    c. ophthalmoscope
    d. otoscope
    b. tuning fork
  19. When rendering first aid to a choking infant. all of the following may be performed EXCEPT:
    a. back blows
    b. chest thrust
    c. open mouth
    d. finger sweep
    d. finger sweep
  20. The physical examination of urine includes:
    a. color
    b. transparency
    c. odor
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  21. Which of the following materials DOES NOT require the use of universal precautions?
    a. blood
    b. semen
    c. feces
    d. vaginal secretions
    c. feces
  22. Examination of the back may be performed when the patient is in all of the following positions EXCEPT:
    a. semi-fowlers
    b. sims
    c. trendelenburg
    d. fowlers
    c. trendelenburg
  23. Which of the following suture sizes is the largest?
    a. 00
    b. 000
    c. 0000
    d. 00000
  24. When performing CPR on an adult, chest compressions should be:
    a. 1/2 to 1 inches
    b. 1 to 1 1/2 inches
    c. 1 1/2 to 2 inches
    d. 2 to 2 1/2 inches
    c. 1 1/2 to 2 inches
  25. Which of the following may effect body temperature?
    a. age
    b. environment
    c. activity
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  26. Which of the following surgical procedures is used to remove abscesses?
    a. Incision and drainage
    b. Laceration repair
    c. Cyst removal
    d. Toenail resection
    a. Incision and drainage
  27. The compression to ventilation ration for adult one-rescuer CPR is:
    a. 15:1
    b. 15:2
    c. 30:1
    d. 30:2
    d. 30:2
  28. Treating all body fluids as if they are infected regardless of their pathogenicity is called:
    a. Employee-right-to-know
    b. MDSD
    c. OSHA
    d. Universal Precaution
    d. Universal Precaution
  29. All of the following are characteristics of the pulse EXCEPT:
    a. rate
    b. depth
    c. rhythm
    d. volume
    b. depth
  30. Process of cleaning or freeing materials from dirt is called:
    a. sanitization
    b. sterilization
    c. disinfection
    d. asepsis
    a. sanitization
  31. An instrument that uses a spinning force to separate solids of differing mass is a(n):
    a. spectrophotometer
    b. centrifuge
    c. autoclave
    d. seralyzer
    b. centrifuge
  32. The process of measuring range of motion of a joint is:
    a. arthrometry
    b. goniometry
    c. cystometry
    d. electromyography
    a. arthrometry
  33. The acronym PERLA is typically recorded in what part of the Review of Systems?
    a. head and neck
    b. cardiovascular
    c. respiratory
    d. urinary
    a. head and neck
  34. Which of the following represents hypotension?
    a. 130/84
    b. 120/80
    c. 142/90
    d. 90/58
    d. 90/58
  35. They typical pulse range for adult is:
    a. 50-70
    b. 60-80
    c. 70-90
    d. 60-100
    d. 60-100
  36. The position of choice for orthopnea is:
    a. lithotomy
    b. dorsal recumbent
    c. fowler's
    d. supine
    b. dorsal recumbent
  37. Initial examination of the breasts is usually performed when the patient is in which of the following positions?
    a. sitting
    b. dorsal recumbent
    c. prone
    d. supine
    a. sitting
  38. An agent that mechanically removes contaminants from objects is a(n):
    a. detergent
    b. disinfectant
    c. alcohol
    d. chemical
    b. disinfectant
  39. A normal adult respiratory rate is:
    a. 8-10/ min
    b. 14-16/ min
    c. 20-24/ min
    d. 26-28/ min
    b. 14-16/ min
  40. A trocar is used for:
    a. cutting
    b. dissecting
    c. grasping
    d. probing
    a. cutting
  41. Which of the following should you do when contacting a patient by phone about his/her test results?
    a. leave a detailed message on the answering machine if the patient is not at home
    b. leave a detailed message with whoever answers the phone if the patient isn't home
    c. leave a phone number for a return call
    d. leave a no message and call back at a later date
    c. leave a phone number for a return call
  42. Without compromising the results, a urinalysis specimen may be refrigerated for up to:
    a. 6 hours 
    b. 72 hours
    c. 24 hours
    d. 48 hours
    b. 72 hours
  43. Septic shock is called by:
    a. infection in the blood stream
    b. heart failure
    c. loss of body fluids and electrolytes
    d. an allergic reaction to a substance
    a. infection in the blood stream
  44. The appropriate cuff width for a child 1 to 4 years old is:
    a. 6cm
    b. 9cm
    c. 2.5cm
    d. 13cm
    a. 6cm
  45. The body temperature is lowest:
    a. in the evening
    b. 10 minutes after consuming a cold food or beverage
    c. in the afternoon
    d. in the morning
    d. in the morning
  46. When taking a tympanic temperature on an adult, you should:
    a. not move the ear at all 
    b. pull the ear downward 
    c. pull the ear upward and forward
    d. not move the ear at all
    c. pull the ear upward and forward
  47. A BP reading of 110/60mm of Hg is an average normal reading for a child who is:
    a. 6 years old
    b. 3 years old
    c. 10 years old
    d. 14 years old
    c. 10 years old
  48. A blood pressure cuff that is too small for the patient's arm will:
    a. have no effect on the results
    b. give an arbitrarily low results
    c. give an arbitrarily high results
    d. have an effect on certain patients only
    c. give an arbitrarily high results
  49. Which of the following describes the primary purpose of surgical asepsis?
    a. to prevent microorganisms from collection to the May stand
    b. to prevent microorganisms for causing inflammaiton
    c. to prevent microorganisms fromentering the body during an invasive procedure
    d. to prevent microorganisms from multiplying
    c. to prevent microorganisms fromentering the body during an invasive procedure
  50. CDC requires that autoclave results be:
    a. recorded 
    b. faxed in daily 
    c. mailed in monthly
    d. none of the above
    d. none of the above
  51. To open a sterile packet, you should:
    a. don latex gloves, then open the package
    b. don sterile gloves, then open the package
    c. open the flaps away from your body and let them drop to the table
    d. open the package with flaps toward you so you are less likely to drop the item
    c. open the flaps away from your body and let them drop to the table
  52. When helping a patient to walk with a cane or walker, you should check the:
    a. distance between the patient's feet
    b. screws and blots for tightness
    c. height of the wheelchair
    d. lenght of each step
    d. lenght of each step
  53. The cane is always help:
    a. on the patient's weaker side
    b. on the patient's stronger side
    c. in the dominant hand
    d. in the no dominant hand
    b. on the patient's stronger side
  54. When using a two-point gait with a cane, the patient will:
    a. place the opposite foot and cane forward at the same time
    b. place the strong foot and cane forward at the same time, and then the weaker foot
    c. place the weaker foot and cane forward at the same time, and then the stronger foot
    d. place the weaker foot forward, then the stronger foot, and then the cane
    b. place the strong foot and cane forward at the same time, and then the weaker foot
  55. The basic foundation of medical asepsis is:
    a. hand washing
    b. wearing goggles
    c. wearing a mask
    d. wearing gloves
    a. hand washing
  56. If there is an exposure incident, you should:
    a. ignore the situation
    b. report it at once to the supervisor
    c. call the doctor
    d. call 911
    b. report it at once to the supervisor
  57. You take the client's temperature in Celsius and it is 39.0. the closest value in Fahrenheit is:
    a. 98.6
    b. 99.7
    c. 100
    d. 102
    d. 102
  58. Double bagging is:
    a. using a bab inside a bag to transport a specimen
    b. placing a biohazard in a bag and that bag into another
    c. placing a normal waste in two bags
    d. none of the above
    a. using a bab inside a bag to transport a specimen
  59. Personal protective equipment (PPE) includes all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. eyewash
    b. face shields
    c. gloves
    d. gown
    a. eyewash
  60. Gloves are required while:
    a. transporting specimen to the lab
    b. performing a venipuncture
    c. performing a capillary puncture
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  61. The term "asepsis" means:
    a. contaminated
    b. needs oxygen
    c. free of pathogens
    d. needs sanitizing
    c. free of pathogens
  62. Which of the following procedures are covered by standard precautions?
    a. change gloves between patients
    b. dispose of needles in sharp container
    c. never recap needles
    d. perform hand hygiene every third time you change gloves
    a. change gloves between patients
  63. How long is it necessary to wash hands prior to assisting a new patient?
    a. 1 minute
    b. 6 minutes
    c. 2-3 minutes
    d. 5 minutes
    a. 1 minute
  64. Testing for occult blood is performed on what type of specimen?
    a. feces
    b. blood
    c. serum
    d. CSF
    a. feces
  65. The rule to calculate a woman's due date for delivery is:
    a. the rule of nine
    b. snellen rule
    c. naegle's rule
    d. clark's rule
    c. naegle's rule
  66. An exam that includes gloves, speculum, three glass slides, fixative, and sterile swabs with containers is ready for which type of examination?
    a. rectal
    b. pelvic
    c. gastrointestinal
    d. neurological
    b. pelvic
  67. Which of the following tests is NOT required for prenatal testing?
    a. syphilis
    b. blood group, RH factor
    c. antibody for rubella
    d. cardiac enzymes
    d. cardiac enzymes
  68. On the Snellen eye chart, the symbol on the top line can read by people with normal vision at a distance of:
    a. 100 feet
    b. 50 feet
    c. 30 feet
    d. 20 feet
    d. 20 feet
  69. An illuminated instrument used to examine the ear is an:
    a. ophthalmoscope
    b. anoscope
    c. otoscope
    d. cystoscope
    c. otoscope
  70. To measure intraocular pressure the instrument used is:
    a. ophthalmoscope
    b.  tonometer
    c.  probe
    d. otoscope
    b.  tonometer
  71. Ear irrigations are performed:
    a. daily
    b. as part of every physical examination
    c. to remove cerumen and foreign matter
    d. to relieve conjunctivitis
    c. to remove cerumen and foreign matter
  72. To reduce the risk of infection in a pediatric waiting room:
    a. only see well patients on a specific day
    b. make ill patients wait in the hallway
    c. place ill patients in an examination room at once
    d. spray the area with Lysol immediately
    d. spray the area with Lysol immediately
  73. To open a sterile packet you may do all EXCEPT:
    a. touch the outside with bare hands
    b. open the sterile packet away from you
    c. rewrap any unused packets
    d. touch the outside with sterile gloves only
    d. touch the outside with sterile gloves only
  74. Which forceps do you use to grasp foreign bodies?
    a. splinter forceps
    b. tissue forceps
    c. sponge forceps
    d. thumb forceps
    a. splinter forceps
  75. What is used to remove tissue for examination and biopsy to detect cancerous cells?
    a. speculum
    b. trocar
    c. punch
    d. probe
    c. punch
  76. Hyperthermia occurs when the body temperature reaches:
    a. 105 degrees F
    b. 95 degrees F
    c. 103 degrees F
    d. 104 degrees F
    d. 104 degrees F
  77. To change the magnification to a higher objective, you would use a:
    a. diaphragm
    b. stage
    c. revolving nosepiece
    d. condenser
    c. revolving nosepiece
  78. When using the microscope, which of the following is correct?
    a. 10X magnification is used with immersion oil
    b. lower the stage after removing the slide
    c. 40X setting is used for high dry power
    d. only use low with every objective
    a. 10X magnification is used with immersion oil
  79. To determine the kidney's ability to dilute and concentrate urine, on should measure:
    a. glucose
    b. ketones
    c. specific gravity
    d. blood
    c. specific gravity
  80. Turbidy of urine refers to:
    a. odor
    b. color
    c. cloudiness
    d. specific gravity
    c. cloudiness
  81. In which of the following radiology positions is the X-ray beam directed front to back?
    a. oblique
    b. lateral
    c. poster anterior (PA)
    d. antero posterior (AP)
    d. antero posterior (AP)
  82. Improper care of a spirometer may result in which of the following?
    a. coronary insufficiency
    b. cross-contamination or infection 
    c. coronary embolism
    d. thyroid efficiency
    b. cross-contamination or infection 
  83. Which of the following is considered a soft skill?
    a. critical thinking
    b. memorizing medical terminology
    c. labeling an anatomical diagram
    d. keying patient data into a computer
    a. critical thinking
  84. Which of the following is NOT appropriate dress for the office?
    a. name tag with "Medical Assistant" on it
    b. white socks
    c. sandals
    d. short nails
    c. sandals
  85. After an interview, which of the following should be done? 
    a. send a thank-you letter
    b. send copies of your resume

    c. make a thank-you phone call
    d. send a thank-you e-mail
    a. send a thank-you letter
  86. Which vaccine guards against whopping cough?
    a. DTP
    b. varicella
    c. tetanus
    d. CPV
    a. DTP
  87. How much time without food or drink is considered fasting?
    a. 4 to 6 hours
    b. 2 to 4 hours
    c. 6 to 7 hours
    d. 8 to 12 hours
    d. 8 to 12 hours
  88. The practice of medicine within each state is regulated by
    a. the Surgeon General of the United States
    b. the State itself
    c.  the American Medical Association
    d. the U.S. attorney general
    c.  the American Medical Association
  89. There are many degrees of felonies. Which is the most serious?
    a. first
    b. second
    c. third
    d. they are all equal
    a. first
  90. A condition that may cause urinary retention and weak stram of urine in men over the age 50 is
    a. syphilis
    b. benign prostatic hypertrophy
    c. renal calculi
    d. human papillomavirus
    b. benign prostatic hypertrophy

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