Microbiology II Test I

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ciera_r
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22208
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Microbiology II Test I
Updated:
2010-06-06 01:52:35
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Micro II Test virus
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Viruses
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  1. What microbe has a self-limiting nature?
    Virus
  2. What microbe causes diseases that disappear (or person recovers from) on their own within a few days?
    Virus
  3. A person getting well on their own within a few days describes which feature of a virus?
    Self-limiting nature
  4. What aspect of a host cell gives viruses their self limiting nature?
    Interferon
  5. True or False:

    Interferon has a high molecular weight.
    False
  6. True or False:

    Interferon has a low molecular weight.
    True
  7. What initiates production of an antiviral protein to protect a cell from viral invasion?
    Interferon
  8. True or False:

    Interferon is only found in certain cells.
    False

    Interferon is a normal component of all cells
  9. True or False:

    The amount of interferon increases with viral infection
    True
  10. What substance conveys a message of impending infection to surrounding cells?
    Interferon
  11. Viruses that share a common genome and relationships to the organism
    generally constitute

    A. None of these
    B. A viral species
    C. An infective state
    D. Viral family
    E. A viral group
    B. A viral species
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. This disease can produce a chronic progressive neurological
    complications affecting the brain resulting in death

    A. Smallpox
    B. Yellow Fever
    C. Measles
    C. Measles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Pediculosis is caused by

    A. Lice
    B. Cats
    C. Fungi
    D. Fleas
    E. Rats
    A. Lice
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Most cases of nongonococcal urethritis are caused by

    A. Chlamydia
    B. Neisseria
    C. E.coli
    D. Staphylococcus
    E. Bacillus
    A. Chlamydia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. A must feared childhood disease that killed 30 – 50% of its victims

    A. Tonsillitis
    B. Diphtheria
    C. None of these
    D. Croup
    E. Whooping cough
    B. Diphtheria
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. BRAIN PARENCHYMA'S DESTRUCTION LEADING TO THE CRIPPLING EFFECTS WAS TYPICALLY SEEN
    IN:

    A. RABIES
    B. SMALLPOX
    C. POLIO
    D. DENGUE
    E. EQUINE VIRUS
    C. Polio
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. THESELF LIMITING NATURE OF VIRAL DISEASES DEPENDS MAINLY ON THE ABILITY OF HUMAN
    CELLS TO PRODUCE:

    A. OPSONIN
    B. COMPLEMENT
    C. SPERM[DINE
    D. INTERFERON
    E. HISTONES
  18. D. Interferon
  19. GAMMA GLOBULINS ARE OFTEN GIVEN TO PREVENT:

    A. POLIO
    B. HEPATITIS 'D'
    C. HEPATITIS 'A'
    D. CHICKENPOX
    E. HEPATITIS `C'
    C. Hepatitis A
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. HEPATITIS _______ IS RECOGNIZED TO BE PARTICULARLY SERIOUS IN A PREGNANT WOMAN:
    A. C
    B. D
    C. B
    D. E
    E. A
    D. E
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. MONONUCLEOSIS CAUSING VIRUS ALSO CAUSES:

    A. KAPOSI'S SARCOMA
    B. CUNNHINGUS
    C. SHINGLES
    D. DENGUE FEVER
    E. BURKITTS LYMPHOMA
    E. Burkitts lymphoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. HUMAN IMMUNO-DEFICIENCY VIRUS HAS ALL EXCEPT

    A. AN ENVELOPE
    B. PROTEASE
    C. RIBONUCLEIC ACID
    D. COLLAGENASE
    E. REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE
    D. COLLAGENASE
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. WHICH VIRUS, OTHER THAN HIV HAS BEEN LINKED TO KAPOSI'S SARCOMA:

    A. VARICELLA
    B. EPM BARR
    C. RHABDOVIRUS
    D. CYTOMEGALO
    E. HERPESVIRUS 8
    E. HERPESVIRUS 8 (*CHECK)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION IDENTIFIES _______ IN THE DIAGNOSIS OF HIV POSITIVITY TESTING:

    A. REVERSE TRANSCRI PTASE
    B. DNA
    C. CAPSID
    D. RNA
    E. PROTEASE
    D. RNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. True or False:

    HEPATITIS 'B’ IS ASSOCIATED WITH 80% OF THE
    LIVER CANCER AND IS ALSO KNOWN AS SERUM HEPATITIS.
    True
  26. True or False:

    LIKE HEPATITIS ‘B’, HEPATITIS ‘C’ IS ALSO KNOWN FORMS ASSOCIATION WITH LIVER CANCER. HEPATITIS ‘C’ IS KNOWN FOR BEING PARENTERALLY TRANSMITTED
    True

    • *Possible association with liver cancer
    • *occasionally crosses placenta, but Hepatitis B is more likely to be parenterally transmitted
  27. True or False:

    RUBELLA (THE GERMAN MEASLES AGENT) IS A MEMBER OF THE GROUP ARBO OR TOGA-VIRUSES. , HOWEVER, RUBELLA IS NOT TRANSMITTED BY INSECTS AND IS DROPLET ROUTE TRANSMITTED.
    True
  28. True or False:

    DENGUE FEVER, AT ONE TIME, THREATENED THE CONSTRUCTION OF PANAMA CANAL.
    False

    *Yellow Fever threatened the construction of Panama Canal
  29. True or False:

    AMANTADINE PREVENTS INFLUENZA AND SEQUINAVIR TREATS AIDS.
    True
  30. True or False:

    ONLY ABOUT 1-2% OF THE NON-IMMUNE, TO POLIO, INDIVIDUALS WHO SUFFER FROM A POLIO VIRUS ATTACK ACTUALLY SHOW THE CRIPPLING EFFECT'S OF POLIO
    True
  31. True or False:

    ENDERS, WELLER AND ROBBINS ARE THE PEOPLE WHO DEVELOPED TECHNIQUES TO CULTURE THE POLIO VIRUS ON NON-NEURAL TISSUE. SALK AND SEBIN SUBSEQUENTLY DEVELOPED A KILLED AND A LIVE POLIO VACCINE, RESPECTIVELY.
    True

    *Non neural monkey kidney cells
  32. True or False:

    ECHO, COXSACIE, ADENO ARE ALL COMMON COLD CAUSING VIRUSES
    False

    • *Adenovirus causes Acute Respiratory Disease
    • *Other cold causing viruses- Coxacie, Echo, Rhino
  33. True or False:

    AFRICAN GREEN MONKEYS ARE THE RESERVOIRS FOR EBOLA
    False

    *Unknown reservoir
  34. True or False:

    MORBILLI MEASLES VIRUS CAN BE TRANSMITTED CONGENITALLY AND CAUSE DAMAGE TO THE
    FETUS.
    True

    *Rubella
  35. True or False:

    HIV IS A MEMBER OF RETROVIVIDAE AND IS TYPICAL FOR HAVING DOUBLE STRANDED DNA AND A REVERSE-TRANSCRIPTASE.
    False

    *ssRNA
  36. True or False:

    WESTERN BLOT TEST FOR THE DIAGNOSIS OF AIDS IS THE MOST SENSITIVE TESTS
    FOR AIDS. IT IDENTIFIES VIRAL PROTEINS.
    False

    • *2nd Best
    • *Best- PCR
  37. HERPES SIMPLEX - I

    A. KERATITIS AGENT
    B. CONGENITALLY TRANSMITTED OFTEN
    C. LINKED TO CERVICAL CANCER
    D. A VACCINE JUST BECAME AVAILABLE BUT NOT IN EXTENSIVE USE
    E. LINKED TO THE CANCER OF THE JAW
    A. Keratitis Agent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. HERPES SIMPLEX - II

    A. LINKED TO CERVICAL CANCER
    B. A VACCINE JUST BECAME AVAILABLE BUT NOT IN EXTENSIVE USE
    C. KERATITIS AGENT
    D. CONGENITALLY TRANSMITTED OFTEN
    E. LINKED TO THE CANCER OF THE JAW
    A. LINKED TO CERVICAL CANCER
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. VARICELLA

    A. CONGENITALLY TRANSMITTED OFTEN
    B. KERATITIS AGENT
    C. A VACCINE JUST BECAME AVAILABLE BUT NOT IN EXTENSIVE USE
    D. LINKED TO CERVICAL CANCER
    E. LINKED TO THE CANCER OF THE JAW
    C. A VACCINE JUST BECAME AVAILABLE BUT NOT IN EXTENSIVE USE

    *Vaccine developed in 1995
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. CYTOMEGALOVIRUS

    A. LINKED TO CERVICAL CANCER
    B. CONGENITALLY TRANSMITTED OFTEN
    C. A VACCINE JUST BECAME AVAILABLE BUT NOT IN EXTENSIVE USE
    D. KERATITIS AGENT
    E. LINKED TO THE CANCER OF THE JAW
    B. CONGENITALLY TRANSMITTED OFTEN
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. EPSTEIN BARR VIRUS

    A. A VACCINE JUST BECAME AVAILABLE BUT NOT IN EXTENSIVE USE
    B. KERATITIS AGENT
    C. LINKED TO THE CANCER OF THE JAW
    D. LINKED TO CERVICAL CANCER
    E. CONGENITALLY TRANSMITTED OFTEN
    C. LINKED TO THE CANCER OF THE JAW

    *Because it causes Burkitt's Lymphoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. EBOLA

    A. DEADLY HEMORRHAGIC FEVER IN AFRICA
    B. MAX THEILER DEVELOPED A VACCINE
    C. 2ND ATTACK IS OFTEN DEADLY
    D. PEARLY CATARACT
    E. A RARE HEMORRHAGIC CONDITION IN GERMANY
    A. DEADLY HEMORRHAGIC FEVER IN AFRICA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. 42. DENGUE FEVER

    A. DEADLY HEMORRHAGIC FEVER IN AFRICA
    B. MAX THEILER DEVELOPED A VACCINE
    C. A RARE HEMORRHAGIC CONDITION IN GERMANY
    D. PEARLY CATARACT
    E. 2ND ATTACK IS OFTEN DEADLY
    E. 2ND ATTACK IS OFTEN DEADLY

    *hemorrhagic form
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. YELLOW FEVER

    A. A RARE HEMORRHAGIC CONDITION IN GERMANY
    B. DEADLY HEMORRHAGIC FEVER IN AFRICA
    C. PEARLY CATARACT
    D. 2ND ATTACK IS OFTEN DEADLY
    E. MAX THEILER DEVELOPED A VACCINE
    E. MAX THEILER DEVELOPED A VACCINE
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. MARBURG VIRUS

    A. A RARE HEMORRHAGIC CONDITION IN GERMANY
    B. DEADLY HEMORRHAGIC FEVER IN AFRICA
    C. PEARLY CATARACT
    D. MAX THEILER DEVELOPED A VACCINE
    E. 2ND ATTACK IS OFTEN DEADLY
    A. A RARE HEMORRHAGIC CONDITION IN GERMANY
  46. RUBELLA

    A. A RARE HEMORRHAGIC CONDITION IN GERMANY
    B. DEADLY HEMORRHAGIC FEVER IN AFRICA
    C. PEARLY CATARACT
    D. MAX THEILER DEVELOPED A VACCINE
    E. 2ND ATTACK IS OFTEN DEADLY
    • C. PEARLY CATARACT
    • *In babies
  47. True or False:

    Interferon is species specific
    True!
  48. True or False:

    Interferon is virus specific
    False
  49. An enhanced amount of Interferon is is produced in response to all of the following EXCEPT:

    A. dsRNA
    B. Endotoxins
    C. Parasitic Infections
    D. Viral Infection
    E. Bacterial Infections
    E. Bacterial Infections
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. True or False:

    Interferon is now being prepared by E. coli and chlamydia
    FALSE

    *E. coli & Yeast (saccharmomyces)
  51. Interferon is used in the treatment of all of the following EXCEPT:

    A. Cancers
    B. Hepatitis
    C. Chlamydia
    D. Warts
    E. Hairy Cell Leukemia
    C. Chlamydia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. What activates host cell gene for interferon?

    A. Viral replication of dsRNA
    B. Viral replication of ssDNA
    C. Viral replication of ssRNA
    D. Viral replication of dsDNA
    E. Endocytosis of virus
    A. Viral replication of dsRNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. When interferon binds to a neighboring cell, it stimulates the production of which of the following? (choose 2)

    A. Antiviral Protein
    B. Lysosomes
    C. Interferon
    D. Antibodies
    E. T Cells
    • A. Antiviral Protein
    • C. Interferon
  54. Antiviral protein

    A. Disables viral membrane
    B. Blocks viral replication
    C. Denatures viral RNA
    D. Denatures viral DNA
    B. Blocks viral replication
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. What type of Interferon activates tumor destruction & killing of infected cells?

    A. Gamma-Interferon
    B. Alpha-Interferon
    C. Beta-Interferon
    A. Gamma-Interferon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Which of the following is a type II interferon?

    A. Gamma
    B. Alpha
    C. Beta
    A. Gamma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. Which type of interferon is derived from Leukocytes?

    A. Beta
    B. Alpha
    C. Gamma
    C. Gamma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Which of the following is NOT a factor in the self limiting nature of viruses?

    A. Antiviral drug medications
    B. Interferon
    C. Humoral immunity
    A. Antiviral drug medications
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Which of the following immunizations is not lifelong?

    A. Mumps
    B. Hepatitis B
    C. Poliomyelitis
    D. Rubella
    E. Measles (rubeola)
    B. Hepatitis B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Which of the following immunizations does not include a Live virus?

    A. Smallpox
    B. Rabies
    C. Measles
    D. Mumps
    E. Rubella
    B. Rabies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Which of the following vaccines is not injected intramuscularly?

    A. Influenza
    B. Hepatitis B
    C. Hepatitis A
    D. Poliomyelitis
    E. Rubella
    E. Rubella
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Which of the following is not a neurotropic disease?

    A. West Nile Fever
    B. Rabies
    C. Molluscum contagiosum
    D. Polio
    C. Molluscum contagiosum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. True or False:

    Polio is a picorna virus.
    True
  64. Polio is transmitted by all of the following EXCEPT:

    A. Feces
    B. Water
    C. Close Contact
    D. Food
    E. Air
    A. Feces
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Polio is diagnosed in all of the following ways EXCEPT:

    A. Feces
    B. Immunofluorescent Antibody Test (IFAT)
    C. Throat
    D. Antibodies in blood
    B. Immunofluorescent Antibody Test (IFAT)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. True or False:

    The only way to test for polio is by testing antibodies in the blood
    False

    *Also test feces & throat
  67. The most serious stage of Polio is:

    A. Viremic
    B. Alimentary
    C. Neurologic
    D. Lymphatic
    E. Entry
    C. Neurologic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. What is the correct order for the stages of polio?

    A. Entry, Viremic, Alimentary, Lymphatic, Neurologic
    B. Entry, Alimentary, Lymphatic, Viremic, Neurologic
    C. Neurologic, Viremic, Entry, Lymphatic, Alimentary
    D. Entry, Viremic, Lymphatic, Alimentary, Neurologic
    E. Entry, Lymphatic, Alimentary, Viremic, Neurologic
    B. Entry, Alimentary, Lymphatic, Viremic, Neurologic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Which of the following does NOT increase the chance of severity of polio?

    A. Race
    B. Physical Exhaustion
    C. Radiation
    D. Use of steroids
    E. Pregnancy
    A. Race
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. Who developed the killed vaccine for polio in 1955?

    A. Pasteur
    B. Salk
    C. Sebin
    D. Robbins
    E. Weller
    B. Salk
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Who developed the live attenuated vaccine for polio in 1963?

    A. Sebin
    B. Robbins
    C. Pasteur
    D. Weller
    E. Salk
    E. Salk
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. True or False:

    The Live attenuated vaccine is more effective, but also has higher risk.
    True
  73. Which of the following diseases is Zoonotic?

    A. Mononucleosis
    B. Rabies
    C. Hepatitis B
    D. Polio
    B. Rabies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Who created the rabies vaccine?

    A. Weller
    B. Robbins
    C. Pasteur
    D. Salk
    E. Sebin
    C. Pasteur
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. True or False:

    An animal can be determined to have rabies by the discovery of negri bodies in the cerebellum.
    True
  76. How is a patient tested for rabies?

    A. Immunofluorescent Antibody Test (IFAT)
    B. Antibodies in blood
    C. Feces
    D. Throat
    A. Immunofluorescent Antibody Test (IFAT)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. True or False:

    Rabies is a picorna virus.
    False

    *Rhabdo virus
  78. True or False:

    Rabies is a RNA virus
    True
  79. Which of the following is the major domestic carrier of rabies?

    A. Cats
    B. Cows
    C. Dogs
    D. Elephants
    E. Horses
    A. Cats
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. True or False:

    Once rabies symptoms appear, it is too late to vaccinate.
    True
  81. Who created the first artificial vaccine?

    A. Salk
    B. Robbins
    C. Sebin
    D. Weller
    E. Pasteur
    E. Pasteur
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. The first artificial vaccine was to prevent which of the following viruses?

    A. Influenza
    B. Rabies
    C. Hepatitis A
    D. Polio
    E. Mumps
    B. Rabies

    *Louis Pasteur & 9 y/o boy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Which of the following is the smallest virus?

    A. Polio
    B. Measles
    C. Ebola
    D. Shingles
    E. Rabies
    A. Polio
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. True or False:

    The herpesvirus is a dsDNA virus.
    True
  85. Which of the following is NOT enveloped?

    A. Yellow fever
    B. Chicken Pox
    C. Polio
    D. Rubella
    E. Rabies
    C. Polio
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Which of the following is NOT enveloped?

    A. Herpesviridae
    B. Flaviviridae
    C. Togaviridae
    D. Picornaviridae
    E. Rhabdoviridae
    D. Picornaviridae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. Polio

    A. Herpesviridae
    B. Picornaviridae
    C. Togaviridae
    D. Rhabdoviridae
    E. Flaviviridae
    B. Picornaviridae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. Hepatitis A

    A. Togaviridae
    B. Flaviviridae
    C. Rhabdoviridae
    D. Herpesviridae
    E. Picornaviridae
    E. Picornaviridae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. Rubella

    A. Togaviridae
    B. Rhabdoviridae
    C. Picornaviridae
    D. Herpesviridae
    E. Flaviviridae
    A. Togaviridae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. German measles

    A. Picornaviridae
    B. Flaviviridae
    C. Togaviridae
    D. Rhabdoviridae
    E. Herpesviridae
    C. Togaviridae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. Equine Encephalitis

    A. Picornaviridae
    B. Togaviridae
    C. Flaviviridae
    D. Rhabdoviridae
    E. Herpesviridae
    B. Togaviridae OR D. Flaviviridae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. Yellow Fever

    A. Flaviviridae
    B. Picornaviridae
    C. Togaviridae
    D. Rhabdoviridae
    E. Herpesviridae
    A. Flaviviridae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. Rabies

    A. Togaviridae
    B. Picornaviridae
    C. Herpesviridae
    D. Flaviviridae
    E. Rhabdoviridae
    E. Rhabdoviridae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Chicken Pox

    A. Rhabdoviridae
    B. Togaviridae
    C. Flaviviridae
    D. Picornaviridae
    E. Herpesviridae
    E. Herpesviridae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Which of the following is NOT a RNA virus?

    A. Picornaviridae
    B. Rhabdoviridae
    C. Togaviridae
    D. Flaviviridae
    E. Herpesviridae
    E. Herpesviridae

    *dsDNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Which of the following is NOT a strain of encephalitis?

    A. SLE
    B. VEE
    C. BEE
    D. EEE
    E. WEE
    A. BEE
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. True or False:

    Encephalitis infects horses more often than humans.
    True
  98. True or False:

    The encephalitis virus is known for frequently changing hosts.
    • True
    • *mosquitoes-birds-mosquitoes-horses-humans-mosquitoes
  99. True or False:

    The roseola virus is known for frequently changing hosts.
    False

    *Encephalitis
  100. The SLE strain cycles and becomes a major problem about every how many years?

    A. 5
    B. 15
    C. 4
    D. 10
    E. 2
    D. 10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. True or False:

    Encephalitis is associated with blood clots of the lung.
    True
  102. Which strain of encephalitis is most serious?

    A. SLE
    B. BEE
    C. EEE
    D. VEE
    E. WEE
    C. EEE
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. West Nile Fever

    A. Arbovirus
    B. Rhabdoviridae
    C. Togaviridae
    D. Flaviviridae
    E. Picornaviridae
    A. Arbovirus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. True or False:

    Only viruses are responsible for neurotropic diseases.
    False

    *Prions
  105. Which of the following is NOT associated with Prions?

    A. Molluscum contagiosum
    B. Alzheimers
    C. KURU
    D. Bovine Spongiferous Encephalitis
    A. Molluscum contagiosum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. Which of the following is not a herpes virus?

    A. Chicken Pox
    B. Cytomegalo
    C. Epstein Barr
    D. Measles
    E. Varicella
    D. Measles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. True or False:

    Herpes viruses are ssDNA.
    False

    *dsDNA
  108. What is known as the creeping virus?

    A. Flaviviridae
    B. Picornaviridae
    C. Herpesviridae
    D. Togaviridae
    E. Rhabdoviridae
    C. Herpesviridae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. What "hits above the belt"?

    A. Epstein Barr
    B. Shingles
    C. Herpetic Whitlow
    D. Herpes simplex I
    E. Herpes simplex II
    D. Herpes simplex I
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. True or False:

    97% of people have Type I herpes by Adulthood.
    False

    *80%
  111. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Herpes Simplex II?

    A. Encephalitis
    B. Keratitis
    C. Fever Blisters
    D. Malaise
    E. Cold Sores
    D. Malaise
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. What "hits below the belt?"

    A. Herpes simplex II
    B. Shingles
    C. Epstein Barr
    D. Herpes simplex I
    E. Herpetic Whitlow
    A. Herpes simplex II
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Which of the following is sexually transmitted?

    A. Herpes simplex I
    B. Herpes simplex II
    B. Herpes simplex II
  114. True or False:

    1/4 million new cases of genital herpes are reported every year.
    • False
    • *1/2 million
  115. True or False:

    More than 20 million people in the US have genital herpes
    True
  116. True or False:

    Acyclovir is used to cure genital herpes.
    • False
    • *Only helps heal lesions
  117. Which of the following is linked to cervical cancer?

    A. Herpes simplex II
    B. Neonatal Herpes
    C. Genital herpes
    D. Herpes simplex I
    D. Herpes simplex II
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. True or False:

    Neonatal herpes is congenital.
    • False
    • *Acquired in utero
  119. Mouth

    A. Keratoconjuctivitis
    B. Gingivostomatitis
    C. Herpes Labialis
    D. Exzema Herpeticum
    E. Herpetic Whitlow
    F. Herpes Gladiatorium
    B. Gingivostomatitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. Fever Blisters

    A. Herpetic Whitlow
    B. Gingivostomatitis
    C. Herpes Labialis
    D. Herpes Gladiatorium
    E. Keratoconjuctivitis
    F. Exzema Herpeticum
    C. Herpes Labialis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. More common with herpes simplex II

    A. Herpetic Whitlow
    B. Herpes Gladiatorium
    C. Keratoconjuctivitis
    D. Herpes Labialis
    E. Gingivostomatitis
    F. Exzema Herpeticum
    D. Herpes Labialis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. Eye

    A. Gingivostomatitis
    B. Herpes Gladiatorium
    C. Herpes Labialis
    D. Herpetic Whitlow
    E. Keratoconjuctivitis
    F. Exzema Herpeticum
    E. Keratoconjuctivitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. Skin

    A. Exzema Herpeticum
    B. Herpes Labialis
    C. Herpetic Whitlow
    D. Herpes Gladiatorium
    E. Gingivostomatitis
    F. Keratoconjuctivitis
    A. Exzema Herpeticum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. Skin Injuries of wrestlers

    A. Keratoconjuctivitis
    B. Exzema Herpeticum
    C. Herpes Labialis
    D. Herpetic Whitlow
    E. Gingivostomatitis
    F. Herpes Gladiatorium
    F. Herpes Gladiatorium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. Very painful finger infection

    A. Herpes Gladiatorium
    B. Exzema Herpeticum
    C. Gingivostomatitis
    D. Herpes Labialis
    E. Herpetic Whitlow
    F. Keratoconjuctivitis
    E. Herpetic Whitlow
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. True or False:

    Chicken pox virus enters through the eyes and lower respiratory tract.
    • False
    • *eyes & upper respiratory tract
  127. True of False:

    Chicken pox is most common in children age 5-9 years old
    True
  128. True or False:

    Chicken pox is caused by varicella zoster.
    True
  129. True or False:

    Chicken pox produces lesions along nerve roots.
    • False
    • *Shingles
  130. What is seen "around the belt?"

    A. Herpetic Whitlow
    B. Herpes simplex II
    C. Herpes simplex I
    D. Epstein Barr
    E. Shingles
    E. Shingles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. True or False:

    A person that gets chicken pox receives lifelong immunity, but a person can get shingles more than once.
    True
  132. Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor for reactivation of shingles?

    A. Asthma
    B. Spinal Cord Trauma
    C. Heavy Metal Poisoning
    D. Immunosuppression Lymphatic Cancers
    A. Asthma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. True or False:

    80% of the population test positive for cytomegalo virus & Herpes Simplex I.
    True
  134. Which of the following gives symptoms similar to mono?

    A. Burkitt's Lymphoma
    B. Shingles
    C. Herpes simplex I
    D. Cytomegalo virus
    D. Cytomegalo virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. AIDS was misdiagnosed as which of the following at first?

    A. Cytomegalo virus
    B. Herpes simplex I
    C. Burkitt's Lymphoma
    D. Shingles
    A. Cytomegalo virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. Which of the following can cause severe birth defects in a fetus?

    A. Shingles
    B. Burkitt's Lymphoma
    C. Herpes simplex I
    D. Cytomegalo virus
    D. Cytomegalo virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. Which of the following is NOT a symptom associated with neonatal herpes?

    A. Poor Appetite
    B. Skin Lesions
    C. Hypoactivity
    D. Myalgia
    E. Respiratory problems
    D. Myalgia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. Which of the following can include neurological damage?

    A. Herpes simplex I
    B. Shingles
    C. Burkitt's Lymphoma
    D. Cytomegalo virus
    E. Neonatal Herpes
    E. Neonatal Herpes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. Which of the following causes Burkitt's Lymphoma, Mononucleosis, & Hairy Leukoplakia?

    A. Epstein Barr Virus
    B. Neonatal Herpes
    C. Cytomegalo virus
    D. Herpes simplex I
    E. Shingles
    A. Epstein Barr Virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. Tumor of the jaw and viscera

    A. Burkitt's Lymphoma
    B. Cytomegalo virus
    C. Neonatal Herpes
    D. Epstein Barr Virus
    E. Herpes simplex I
    A. Burkitt's Lymphoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. Which of the following is found in Africa where malaria is endemic?

    A. Burkitt's Lymphoma
    B. Epstein Barr Virus
    C. Cytomegalo virus
    D. Herpes simplex I
    E. Neonatal Herpes
    A. Burkitt's Lymphoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. True of False:

    Influenza has an affinity for mucus membranes.
    True
  143. True or False:

    Influenza is an Orthomyxo virus.
    True
  144. Which of the following is worst?

    A. Influenza A
    B. Influenza B
    A. Influenza A
  145. True or False:

    Influenza is highly changeable.
    True
  146. What is the most common cause of morbidity?

    A. Chicken Pox
    B. Hanta virus
    C. Herpes simplex I
    D. Influenza
    E. SARS
    D. Influenza
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. Which of the following diseases was a serious problem in China in 2002?

    A. SARS
    B. Hanta virus
    C. Chicken Pox
    D. Influenza
    E. Herpes simplex I
    A. SARS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. True or False:

    SARS is caused by orthomyxovirus.
    • False
    • *coronavirus
  149. Which of the following states did NOT have a problem with Hanta virus?

    A. CO
    B. NM
    C. AZ
    D. UT
    E. TX
    E. TX
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. Muerto Canyon virus

    A. ARD
    B. RSV
    C. Hanta virus
    D. SARS
    E. Influenza
    C. Hanta virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. What is the carrier of Hanta virus?

    A. fleas
    B. cats
    C. racoon
    D. rodents
    E. lice
    D. rodents
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. Which of the following is transmitted by dried excreta?

    A. RSV
    B. SARS
    C. Influenza
    D. ARD
    E. Hanta virus
    E. Hanta virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. Associated with indian reservations

    A. RSV
    B. Influenza
    C. Hanta virus
    D. ARD
    E. SARS
    C. Hanta virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. True or False:

    ARD is a orthomyxovirus.
    • False
    • *Adenovirus
  155. Which of the following causes devil's grip? (choose 2)

    A. Echo virus
    B. Coxacie
    C. Rhinovirus
    D. Adenovirus
    E. coronovirus
    • A. Echo virus
    • B. Coxacie
  156. True or False:

    Small pox is a dsDNA virus.
    True
  157. True or False:

    The small pox virus is one of the smallest viruses known.
    • False
    • *one of the largest
  158. Which of the following is a orthopoxvirus?

    A. Warts
    B. Hanta virus
    C. Molluscum contagiosum
    D. Small pox
    E. Influenza
    D. Small pox
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. Lady Montague introduced variolation of what disease to Europe.

    A. Rabies
    B. Molluscum contagiosum
    C. Polio
    D. Encephalitis
    E. Small pox
    E. Small pox
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  160. Who developed a vaccine for smallpox using a cowpox associated vaccine in 1798?

    A. Sebin
    B. Waterhouse
    C. Jenner
    D. Salk
    E. Pasteur
    C. Jenner
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. Who introduced the idea of a small pox vaccine in the US?

    A. Pasteur
    B. Sebin
    C. Jenner
    D. Salk
    E. Waterhouse
    C. Jenner
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  162. True or False:

    Small pox can also be neurotropic.
    True
  163. Which of the following is NOT a neurotropic disorder?

    A. Polio
    B. Encephalitis
    C. Rabies
    D. Smallpox
    E. None of the Above
    E. None of the Above
  164. Which of the following causes pearly white/pink painless tumor-like outgrowth?

    A. Encephalitis
    B. Molluscum contagiosum
    C. Polio
    D. Rabies
    E. Small pox
    B. Molluscum contagiosum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. Which of the following is associated with AIDS?

    A. Rabies
    B. Polio
    C. Small pox
    D. Molluscum contagiosum
    E. Encephalitis
    D. Molluscum contagiosum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  166. True or False:

    Molluscum contagiosum is very similar to orthopoxvirus.
    False
  167. Condyloma Acuminata

    A. RSV
    B. Chicken pox lesion
    C. Small pox lesion
    D. Genital Warts
    E. Shingles lesion
    D. Genital Warts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. Which of the following could be the most common STD (possibly more common that chlamydia)?

    A. Genital Herpes
    B. Genital Warts
    C. Herpes Simplex II
    B. Genital Warts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  169. Which of the following is NOT used to diagnose genital warts?

    A. ELISA
    B. Immunofluoresence
    C. PCR
    C. PCR
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. Which of the following is NOT a type of measles?

    A. Roseola
    B. Rubella
    C. Rubeola
    A. Roseola
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. Koplikspots are associated with which disease?

    A. Smallpox
    B. Rubeola
    C. Roseola
    D. Polio
    E. Mumps
    B. Rubeola
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. Subacute scelrosing panerycehalitis is associated with what disease?

    A. Polio
    B. Mumps
    C. Roseola
    D. Rubeola
    E. Smallpox
    D. Rubeola
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  173. Which of the following does NOT have a vesicular rash?

    A. Small pox
    B. Chicken Pox
    C. Rubeola
    C. Rubeola
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. True or False:

    Rubella is a RNA virus.
    True
  175. True or False:

    Rubella can be a congenital disease.
    True
  176. True or False:

    A woman should wait at least 1 year before getting pregnant after getting the rubella vaccine.
    • False
    • *3 months
  177. Paramyxovirus

    A. Smallpox
    B. Rubeola
    C. Mumps
    D. Roseola
    E. Polio
    C. Mumps
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  178. True or False:

    Mumps is similar to rubeola virus and is associated with spring time outbreaks.
    True
  179. True or False:

    Mumps are transmitted via animal excreta.
    • False
    • *saliva droplets
  180. The swelling of the parotid gland is a hallmark of what disease?

    A. Rubeola
    B. Mumps
    C. Polio
    D. Roseola
    E. Smallpox
    B. Mumps
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  181. Can cause sterility

    A. Smallpox
    B. Polio
    C. Rubeola
    D. Mumps
    E. Roseola
    D. Mumps
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  182. linked to juvenile diabetes

    A. Smallpox
    B. Roseola
    C. Rubeola
    D. Polio
    E. Mumps
    E. Mumps
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  183. People who have had a bone marrow transplant are susceptible to what disease?

    A. Smallpox
    B. Rubeola
    C. Mumps
    D. Rotavirus
    E. Roseola
    D. Rotavirus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  184. True or False:

    The 3rd leading cause of death in children is reovirus.
    True
  185. True or False:

    Rotavirus is more common in the spring.
    • False
    • *winter
  186. True or False:

    The rotavirus is a dsDNA virus.
    • False
    • *dsRNA
  187. Enteritis agent

    A. Smallpox
    B. Rotavirus
    C. Rubeola
    D. Roseola
    E. Mumps
    B. Rotavirus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  188. nosocomial transmission (hospital acquired)

    A. Roseola
    B. Rotavirus
    C. Rubeola
    D. Smallpox
    E. Mumps
    B. Rotavirus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  189. What is a carrier of Hepatitis A?

    A. cats
    B. bats
    C. lice
    D. rats
    E. shellfish
    E. shellfish
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  190. Hepatitis A is caused by:

    A. Hepatitis A virus
    B. Unknown
    C. Hepatitis B virus
    D. Hepatitis D virus
    E. Hepatitis E virus
    F. Hepatitis C virus
    G. B & D
    A. Hepatitis A virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  191. Hepatitis B is caused by

    A. Unknown
    B. Hepatitis D virus
    C. Hepatitis E virus
    D. Hepatitis B virus
    E. Hepatitis C virus
    F. Hepatitis A virus
    G. B & D
    D. Hepatitis B virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  192. Hepatitis C is caused by

    A. Unknown
    B. Hepatitis B virus
    C. Hepatitis D virus
    D. B & D
    E. Hepatitis E virus
    F. Hepatitis C virus
    G. Hepatitis A virus
    A. Unknown
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  193. Hepatitis D is caused by:

    A. Hepatitis C virus
    B. Hepatitis D virus
    C. B & D
    D. Hepatitis B virus
    E. Hepatitis E virus
    F. Unknown
    G. Hepatitis A virus
    C. B & D
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  194. Hepatitis E is caused by:

    A. Hepatitis A virus
    B. Hepatitis B virus
    C. B & D
    D. Hepatitis D virus
    E. Unknown
    F. Hepatitis E virus
    G. Hepatitis C virus
    F. Hepatitis E virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  195. Infectious hepatitis

    A. Hepatitis A
    B. Hepatitis D
    C. Hepatitis E
    D. Hepatitis B
    E. Hepatitis C
    A. Hepatitis A
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  196. Epidemic Hepatitis

    A. Hepatitis B
    B. Hepatitis C
    C. Hepatitis A
    D. Hepatitis E
    E. Hepatitis D
    C. Hepatitis A
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  197. Short term hepatitis

    A. Hepatitis B
    B. Hepatitis D
    C. Hepatitis A
    D. Hepatitis E
    E. Hepatitis C
    C. Hepatitis A
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  198. Serum hepatitis

    A. Hepatitis D
    B. Hepatitis C
    C. Hepatitis A
    D. Hepatitis E
    E. Hepatitis B
    E. Hepatitis B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  199. post transfusion hepatitis

    A. Hepatitis B
    B. Hepatitis E
    C. Hepatitis D
    D. Hepatitis C
    E. Hepatitis A
    D. Hepatitis C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  200. Delta hepatitis

    A. Hepatitis C
    B. Hepatitis D
    C. Hepatitis A
    D. Hepatitis E
    E. Hepatitis B
    B. Hepatitis D
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  201. Enterically transmitted hepatitis

    A. Hepatitis C
    B. Hepatitis D
    C. Hepatitis A
    D. Hepatitis E
    E. Hepatitis B
    D. Hepatitis E
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. non-A, non-B, non-C hepatitis

    A. Hepatitis E
    B. Hepatitis B
    C. Hepatitis D
    D. Hepatitis C
    E. Hepatitis A
    A. Hepatitis E
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  203. non-A, non-B hepatitis

    A. Hepatitis C
    B. Hepatitis A
    C. Hepatitis D
    D. Hepatitis B
    E. Hepatitis E
    A. Hepatitis C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  204. Which of the following is NOT a RNA virus?

    A. Hepatitis B
    B. Hepatitis D
    C. Hepatitis A
    D. Hepatitis E
    E. Hepatitis C
    A. Hepatitis B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  205. Which of the following are transmitted by the fecal-oral route? (choose 2)

    A. Hepatitis D
    B. Hepatitis A
    C. Hepatitis E
    D. Hepatitis C
    E. Hepatitis B
    B. Hepatitis A & E. Hepatitis E
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  206. Which of the following can cross the placenta? (choose 3)

    A. Hepatitis A
    B. Hepatitis B
    C. Hepatitis C
    D. Hepatitis D
    E. Hepatitis E
    • B. Hepatitis B
    • C. Hepatitis C
    • D. Hepatitis D
  207. Which of the following do NOT have a carrier state? (choose 2)

    A. Hepatitis A
    B. Hepatitis B
    C. Hepatitis C
    D. Hepatitis D
    E. Hepatitis E
    • A. Hepatitis A
    • E. Hepatitis E
  208. Which of the following do NOT cause chronic liver disease? (choose 2)

    A. Hepatitis A
    B. Hepatitis B
    C. Hepatitis C
    D. Hepatitis D
    E. Hepatitis E
    • A. Hepatitis A
    • E. Hepatitis E
  209. Which of the following have an available vaccine? (choose 2)

    A. Hepatitis A
    B. Hepatitis B
    C. Hepatitis C
    D. Hepatitis D
    E. Hepatitis E
    • A. Hepatitis A
    • B. Hepatitis B
  210. Which of the following is NOT a respiratory virus?

    A. SARS
    B. ARD
    C. Influenza
    D. RSV
    E. Roseola
    F. Hanta Virus
    E. Roseola
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  211. Which of the following is NOT a skin associated virus?

    A. Hanta Virus
    B. Papillomas
    C. Molluscum contagiosum
    D. Small pox
    E. Condyloma Acuminata
    A. Hanta Virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  212. Which of the following is NOT a neurotropic disease?

    A. KURU
    B. West Nile
    C. Encephalitis
    D. Shingles
    E. Rabies
    D. Shingles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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