MEDA 137

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MEDA 137
2010-06-06 19:10:02

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  1. What color does a positive contrast medium show up as on the film?
  2. What color does a negative contrast medium show up as on the film?
  3. What is does Hct mean?
  4. What does Hgb mean?
  5. What does ESR mean?
    Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
  6. What does ASO mean?
    Antistreptolysin O; used to detect recent streptococcal infection
  7. What does CRP mean?
    C-Reactive Protein; positive when inflammatory conditions with tissue destruction are present; monitors progess of RA, rheumatic fever, malignancy, faster reaction than ESR
  8. What does KOH mean?
    Potassium Hydroxide; helps visualize fungal appearance
  9. What is a mammography?
    A radiographic examination of the breasts used to detect many forms of breast disease, such as benign breast masses, breast calcifications, fibrocystic breast disease, and particularly breast cancer
  10. What is an anteroposterior (AP) view?
    The x-rays are directed from the front toward the back of the body. The patient is positioned with the anterior (front) side of the body facing the radiograph tube and the posterior (back) side facing the radiographic film
  11. What is a posteroanterior (PA) view?
    The x-rays are directed from the back toward the front of the body. The patient is positioned with the posterior (back) side of the body facing the radiograph tube and the anterior (front) side of the body facing the radiographic film
  12. What is a lateral view?
    The x-ray beam passes from one side of the body to the opposite side
  13. What is a right lateral (RL) view?
    The right side of the body is positioned next to the radiographic film, and the x-rays are directed through the body from the left to the right side
  14. What is a left lateral (LL) view?
    The left side of the body is positioned next to the radiographic film, and the x-rays are directed through the body from the right to the left side
  15. What is an oblique view?
    The body is positioned at an angle or in a semilateral position
  16. What is a supine position?
    The patient is positioned on the back with the face upward
  17. What is a proe position?
    The patient is positioned on the abdomen with the head turned to one side
  18. What type of specimen is necessary for a Mono test?
  19. Which cholesterol is the "good" cholesterol
    High-density lipoprotein (HDL)

    • Notes:
    • removes excess cholesterol from the cells and carries it to the liver to be excreted. Since HDL removes excess cholesterol from the walls of the blood vessels, it is protective and beneficial to the body; a high HDL cholesterol level has been shown to reduce the risk of heart disease, whereas a low level of HDL cholesterol (less than 40 mg/dL) is a risk factor for coronary disease
  20. What does polyuria mean?
    Excessive increase in urine output
  21. What does oliguria mean?
    Decrease in urine output
  22. What does micturation or micturition mean?
    The act of urination (voiding)
  23. What does anuira mean?
    Failure of the kidneys to produce urine
  24. What does diuresis mean?
    Secretion and passage of increased amounts of urine
  25. What does dysuria mean?
    Difficult or painful urination
  26. What does enuresis mean?
    Involuntary urination
  27. What does hematuria mean?
    Blood in the urine
  28. What does nocturia mean?
    Excessive (voluntary) night time urination
  29. What does pyuria mean?
    Pus in the urine
  30. What does retention mean?
    Incomplete empyting of the bladder
  31. What does urgency mean?
    Immediate need to urinate
  32. What does incontinence mean?
    Inability to retain urine (involuntary urination)
  33. Where are nephrons?
    Inside kidneys
  34. What happens in the glomerulus?
    Filtration of urine
  35. What are the tubules?
    Where urine passes through to and from different structures
  36. What is filtrate?
    The first step of urination process
  37. What is bladder catherization?
    Involves the passing of a sterile tube through the urethra and into the bladder to remove urine
  38. What is suprapubic aspiration?
    Involves the passing of a sterile needle through the abdominal wall into the bladder to remove urine
  39. How do you setup and operate a centrifuge?
    You prepare your tubes and place them inside the centrifuge while making sure that the centrifuge is balanced by placing the same amount of tubes opposite of one another
  40. What is a FBS (Fasting Blood Sugar) test?
    Collecting a fasting blood sample and measuring the amount of glucose in it; that patient should not have anything to eat or drink except water for 12 hours prior to the test; normal ranges between 70 and 110 mg of glucose per 100 ml of blood; often performed on diabetic patients to evaluate their progress and regulate treatment and on patients as a routine screening test to detect diabetes mellitus
  41. What is a 2-hour Postprandial Blood Sugar (PPBS) test?
    Used to screen for diabetes mellitus and to monitor the effects of insulin dosage in patients with diabetes
  42. When is a Ziehl Nielsen stain used?
    To stain for AFB (Acid Fast Bacteria)
  43. Why is antibiotic sensitivity testing performed?
    Sensitivity testing enables the physician to decide which antibiotics would most likely be effective against the infectious disease in question
  44. What is the purpose of a lab report?
    The purpose of a laboratory report is to relay the results of the lab tests to the physician
  45. What is the purpose of a lab requisition?
    The purpose of a requisition is provide the outside laboratory with essential information necessary for accurate testing, reporting of results, and billing
  46. What does ABN mean?
    Advanced Beneficiary Notice

    • Notes:
    • Limited coverage tests – If test is NOT listed, doesn’t have limitations and will be paid by Medicare and it does not need an ABN; if test IS listed it does have limitations and Medicare may not pay for it so it DOES need an ABN

    The diagnosis codes listed does not need an ABN, Medicare will pay for it; the diagnosis codes not listed needs an ABN

    If test is listed check diagnosis code
  47. How does hemolysis make the serum or plasma appear?
    Makes the serum or plasma appear red or pink
  48. What tests does hemolysis affect?
    Hemolysis affects removal of serum because the red blood cells have ruptured and released hemoglobin into the serum which makes it unsuitable for laboratory tests because the results would be inaccurate. Include K, Mg, Fe
  49. What tests might you find in a lipid panel?
    • Total cholesterole
    • LDL
    • HDL
    • Triglycerides
    • CRF (Cardiac risk factor; based on age, gender, & other tests)
  50. What is the function of the bladder?
    To store and expel urine; a hollow, muscular sac that can hold approximately 500 ml of urine
  51. What antigens and antibodies are present on the cells and in the plasma of Type A blood?
    Has A antigen on blood cells and anti-B in the blood stream
  52. What antigens and antibodies are present on the cells and in the plasma of Type B blood?
    has B antigens on blood cells, and anti-A in the blood stream
  53. What antigens and antibodies are present on the cells and in the plasma of Type AB blood?
    Has A and B antigens on blood cells, but has no ABO antibodies in blood stream
  54. What antigens and antibodies are present on the cells and in the plasma of Type O blood?
    Has no ABO antigens in the blood stream but has anti-A and anti-B in the blood stream
  55. Which blood cell antigen is so important when a woman is pregnant?
    Rh antibodies are important when a woman is pregnant
  56. Why is a PKU (Phenylketonuria) test done?
    To screen for the presence of certain metabolic and endocrine diesases in a newborn; the earlier the screening is done the better chances to prevent adverse effects; causes brain damage that is irreversible due to build up of phenylketones; also called Guthrie test
  57. What is the specific gravity of distilled water?
  58. What is a heterophile test?
    Het is an antibody produced by the body when infected by EBV (Epstein Barr Virus) also known as the "kissing disease"
  59. When is a depression slide used?
    To view a specimen in its natural state; provides motility
  60. What is serology?
    The study of antigen and antibody reactions; antigen is a substance that is capable of stimulating the formation of antibodies in an individual; antibody is a substance that is capable of combining with an antigen, resulting in an antigen-antibody reaction; tests include Hepatitis, Syphilis, Mononucleosis, Rheumatoid Factor, Antistreptolysin O, C-Reactive, Cold Agglutinins, ABO and Rh Blood typing, Rh Antibody Titer
  61. What type of specimen is used to look for a trichomonas infection?
    Vaginal discharge
  62. What types of casts are mentioned in the book?
    Hyaline – colorless, transparent, low refractive index

    Red Blood Cell – yellow-orange color, high refractive index

    White Blood Cell – neutrophils in hyaline matrix, high refractive index

    Epithelial Cell – renal tubular epithelial cells in hyaline matrix, high refractive index

    Granular – opaque granules in matrix

    Waxy – sharp, refractile outlines; irregular “broken-off” ends; absence of differentiated structures

    Fatty – fat globules in transparent matrix

    Broad – larger diameter than other casts

    Mixed – combination of any of the above
  63. How might you describe squamous epithelial cells?
    Large, clear, flat cells with an irregular shape; they contain a small nucleus and come from the urethra, bladder, and vagina; they are normally present in small amounts in the urine; also it is a thin, flat layer of cells, about 10 layers thick of the cervix
  64. What is another name for the occult blood test?
    FOBT - Fecal Occult Blood Test
  65. What can a fasting patient eat or drink?
  66. When is a Pap smear done?
    The American Cancer Society recommends a woman have her first Pap test beginning within 3 years of having vaginal intercourse or at 21 years of age, whichever is earlier. Screening should then be performed every year with the direct smear Pap test or every 2 years with the liquid-based Pap test. Beginning at age 30, women who have tested negative for three or more consecutive Pap tests may be screened every 2 to 3 years
  67. How do patients cleanse for a urinalysis specimen collection?
    Female – Spread labia apart to expose the opening, use 1st wipe to clean one side of the labia with a front to back swipe; use 2nd wipe to clean the other side; use 3rd wipe to clean over the opening; throw away each wipe after each use

    Male – Wipe each side of penis with two separate wipes; wipe over the opening with a new wipe
  68. What anticoagulant is present in the lavendar tube?
    EDTA; used to obtain whole blood or serum
  69. What anticoagulant is present in the green tube?
    Heparin; used to collect blood specimens to perform blood gas determinations and pH assays
  70. What anticoagulant is present in gray tubes?
    Sodium fluoride/potassium oxalate; used to obtain whole blood or plasma; common for glucose tolerance test
  71. What is specific gravity measuring?
    Measures concentration of dissolved substances and is usually between 1.010 and 1.025
  72. What is artherosclerosis?
    A disease where plaque builds up in the arteries; triglycerides measures patients with suspected atherosclerosis
  73. How many milliliters of blood is normally lost in the stool each day?
    About 3 ml; an occult blood test shows a positive reaction when it reaches a level of 5 ml or more
  74. Why are occult blood tests done?
    To screen for colon cancer and other conditions including hemorrhoids, diverticulosis, polyps, colitis, and upper gastrointestinal ulcers
  75. What is Chlamydia?
    Caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis; a gram-negative intracellular bacterium; it grows and multiplies in the cytoplasma of the host cell; most frequently reported and fastest spreading sexually transmitted disease in the US
  76. What is Candida albicans?
    A yeast-like fungus normally found in the intestinal tract and is a frequent contaminant of the vagina; however, it usually does not produce symptoms indicating a vaginal infection
  77. What is ultrasound?
    Uses high-frequency sound waves for the study of soft tissue structures; frequently used in the diagnosis of conditions of the abdominal and pelvic organs, particularly the liver, gallbladder, spleen, pancreas, kidneys, uterus, and ovaries.

    Ultrasound of the heart is called echocardiogram and determines the size, shape, and position of the heart
  78. What analyte is often present in the urine in abnormal amounts when a person has uncontrolled diabetes?
  79. Who assigns the diagnosis for laboratory testing?
    The physician
  80. What methodology does a MRI use?
    Used for imaging tissues of high fat and water content that cannot be seen with other radiologic techniques. MRI assists in the diagnosis of intracranial and spinal lesions and cardiovascular and soft tissue abnormalities, such as herniated discs and joint disease; MRI allows to see through bone and view fluid-filled soft tissue in great detail; a strong magnetic field and ordinary radiowaves produce computer-processed images of internal body structures
  81. What tests might be present in an electrolyte panel?
    • Carbon Dixoide
    • Chloride
    • Potassium
    • Sodium

    Screen for electrolyte or acid-base imbalance and monitor effect of treatment on disease or condition that causes electrolyte imbalance

    This profile also is used to evaluate patient taking medication that can cause electrolyte imbalance
  82. What is serum?
    Serum is obtained from clotted blood by allowing the specimen to stand and then centrifuging it; serum has no anticoagulant; after centrifuging it the layers include serum and clotted cells
  83. What is plasma?
    Plasma is obtained from whole blood that has been centrifuged; plasma has anticoagulant; after centrifuging it the layers include plasma, buffy coat, and cells
  84. How should a sputum sample be collected?
    It should be collected in the morning when you wakeup, the patient should be instructed to cough deeply to allow for that sputum to come up, if the patient is unable to cough it up they may be given some kind of mist to help them cough up the sputum; once the sputum is collected it should be placed into a container with substance that promotes growth of bacteria or fungi
  85. Review the 24-hour urine collection procedure.
    A 3000 ml container is used to collect the specimen and it should be kept refrigerated or placed in an ice chest and some containers may contain a preservative; alcohol and drugs should be avoided during and prior to this collection; in the morning void your first urine in the toilet and note the date and time, your next void and each one after that should be collected into the container for the rest of the day, the next morning wake up at the same time and void your last amount of urine into the container and return the container to the doctor’s office
  86. Is Hepatitis A a bloodborne pathogen?
    No, Hepatitis A is spread through feces; Hep B is a bloodborne pathogen
  87. Nitrites?
    Remember that nitrites are NOT always present in a urine specimen when bacteria is present. Only certain types of bacteria cause the nitrite to be positive.

    Nitrite in the urine indicates the presence of a pathogen in the (normally sterile) urinary tract, which results in UTI. The pathogen possesses the ability to convert nitrate, which normally occurs in the urine, to nitrite, which is normally absent
  88. Why is a quantitative hCG done?
    To measure the amount of hCG actually present in the blood
  89. How do you read a spun microhematocrit?
    Place the capillary tube into the reader, line up the bottom of the red cells on the 0 line and slide the tube until the top of the plasma or the meniscus intersects with the 100 line and then read straight across at the top of the red cells
  90. What causes strep throat?
    Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus known as Streptococcus pyogenes
  91. What does PSA stand for?
    Prostate Specific Antigen
  92. ESR – is this a good test to do weekly to monitor the progression of a disease or efficacy of a treatment?
    If the physician is aware of the disease that is causing the inflammation then yes it would be good to do weekly tests to monitor the progression of the disease. However, it the disease is unknown it wouldn’t be a good idea because generally an ESR is a nonspecific test, it tells you there IS inflammation but doesn’t tell you where and what is causing it
  93. When is a bleeding time done? (Why might it be ordered, and with which other test?)
    A bleeding time is a test to see if platelets are working as they should. Platelets are little particles found in the blood that are needed to help blood clot.

    A bleeding time may be done if you are taking an anticoagulant drug or if you have signs or symptoms of a bleeding disorder such as nosebleeds, bleeding gums, bruising, heavy menstrual periods, or blood in the stool and/or urine or may be ordered before an invasive medical procedure such as surgery, to ensure normal clotting ability. It might be ordered to see how well the coagulation factors. PTT or INR may be other tests with this bleeding time
  94. Are clinical chemistry tests generally done on cells or the liquid portion of the blood?
    Genearlly the liquid portion (plasma or serum) of the blood
  95. What are the “normal” results for a urinalysis specimen (the dipstick portion)?
    Specific Gravity – no “abnormal” values; indicates how concentrated the urine is

    pH – typical but not “abnormal” pH values

    Protein – normally no detectable quantities

    Glucose – normally not present in urine

    Ketones – not normally found in urine

    Blood – not found in urine

    Leukocytes – normally, a few white blood cells are present in urine but still comes up as negative

    Nitrite – not found in urine

    Bilirubin – not normally present in the urine

    Urobilinogen – normally present in urine in low concentrations
  96. What is a glucose tolerance test?
    Provides more detailed information about the ability of the body to metabolize glucose by assessing the insulin response to a glucose load; used to assist in the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, hypoglycemia, and liver and adrenocortical dysfunction; provides a more thorough analysis of glucose use than either the FBS or 2-hour PPBS test
  97. When might a C-diff test be ordered?
    A C. difficile toxin test may be ordered when a hospitalized patient has frequent loose stools, abdominal pain, fever, and/or nausea during or following a course of antibiotics or following a recent gastrointestinal surgery. It may be ordered when an outpatient develops these symptoms within 6-8 weeks after taking antibiotics, several days after chemotherapy, or when a patient has a chronic gastrointestinal disorder that the doctor suspects is being worsened by a C. difficile infection. The C. difficile toxin test may be ordered to help diagnose the cause of frequent diarrhea when no other discernable cause (such as parasites or pathogenic bacteria) has been detected