Phlebotomy

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ripmom30
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222557
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Phlebotomy
Updated:
2013-06-14 14:43:14
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blood
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Study CCMA
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  1. The main duty of a phlebotomist is to:
    a. interpret laboratory values
    b. evaluate blood specimens
    c. process blood specimens
    d. collect blood specimens
    d. collect blood specimens
  2. Which of the following blood tests aids in the evaluation of the digestive system?
    a. albumin
    b. bilirubin
    c. hemoglobin
    d. uric acid
    b. bilirubin
  3. Serum differs from plasma because serum does not contain:
    a. electrolytes
    b. fibrinogen
    c. nutrients
    d. water
    b. fibrinogen
  4. A postprandial specimen collection should occur:
    a. after a blood transfusion
    b. before the next dose of medication
    c. early in the morning
    d. at a specific time after eating
    d. at a specific time after eating
  5. The causative agent for scarlet fever and rheumatic fever is:
    a. streptococcus
    b. staphylococcus
    c. neisseria
    d. chlamydia
    d. no additives
  6. If gray, green and lavender tubes are needed, the correct order of draw is:
    a. green, lavender, gray
    b. gray, lavender, green
    c. lavender, gray, green
    d. gray, green, lavender
    a. green, lavender, gray
  7. A vein most frequently used for venipuncture is:
    a. cephalic vein
    b. dorsal arch vein
    c. median cubital vein
    d. saphenous vein
    c. median cubital vein
  8. The most important step in performing a venipuncture is:
    a. removing the tourniquet before taking the needle out
    b. drawing the correct amount blood
    c. inserting the needle in the vein properly
    d. identifying the patient
    d. identifying the patient
  9. The most important step in performing a venipuncture is:
    a. removing the tourniquet before taking the needle out
    b. drawing the correct amount blood
    c. inserting the needle in the vein properly
    d. identifying the patient
    b. it increases blood flow to the area
  10. Hemolysis occurs due to:
    a. allowing alcohol to air dry prior specimen
    b. forcing syringe-drawn specimes into evacuated tubes
    c. gently massaging a dermal puncture site
    d. mixing the collection tube too slowly
    b. forcing syringe-drawn specimes into evacuated tubes
  11. Specimens for tests that are ordered STAT must be:
    a. verified with the laboratory manager prior to collection
    b. collected by the physician
    c. delivered to the laboratory immediately
    d. collected last when drawing several patients
    c. delivered to the laboratory immediately
  12. Which of the following procedures would help diagnose an infection with a blood parasite?
    a. blood cultures
    b. blood smear
    c. bleeding time
    d. cold agglutinins
    a. blood cultures
  13. The angle used to take a blood smear is:
    a. 10 degrees
    b. 20 degrees
    c. 30 degrees
    d. 40 degrees
    d. 40 degrees
  14. Special blood collection procedures for which  most phlebotomists are trained include all of these EXCEPT:
    a. collection of blood cultures
    b. glucose tolerance collection
    c. neonatal blood screening collection
    d. collection of units from blood bank donors
    b. glucose tolerance collection
  15. Levels of laboratory testing complexity were established by:
    a. CAP
    b. CLIA
    c. CLSI
    d. COLA
    b. CLIA
  16. The best urine specimens to use for general health assessment is the:
    a. 24-hour collection
    b. clean-catch specimen
    c. first morning void
    d. random void
    d. random void
  17. A micro hematocrit test is used to screen for:
    a. a anemia
    b. diabetes
    c. occult blood
    d. strep infection
    a. a anemia
  18. Bacteria require which of the following to grow?
    a. disinfectants
    b. cool temperatures
    c. moisture
    d. light
    c. moisture
  19. Which of the following is an opportunistic infection associated with AIDS?
    a. cold
    b. measles
    c. pneumocystis carinii
    d. whooping cough
    c. pneumocystis carinii
  20. Which of the following best describes how a tube with anticoagulants is identified?
    a. size of the tube
    b. tube topper color
    c. test name on label
    d. laboratory use
    b. tube topper color
  21. Arterial bleeding is:
    a. slow and bright red
    b. rapid and bright red
    c. rapid and dark red
    d. slow and dark red
    b. rapid and bright red
  22. The federal regulations for clinical laboratories specifying guidelines for quality control, qualified personnned and quality assurance is:
    a. OSHA
    b. DEA
    c. CDC
    d. CLIA 1988
    d. CLIA 1988
  23. Which of the following answers is a correct safety rule in the laboratory?
    a. it is unnecessary to supervise new lab personnel
    b. hands must be throughly washed frequently
    c. eating and drinking are accepted in the lab
    d. gloves are unnecessary when working with patient's samples
    b.hands must be throughly washed frequently
  24. The system of scientific measurement used in medical facilities is:
    a. The English system
    b. The Apothecary system
    c. The Metric system
    d. The House hold sytem
    c. The Metric system
  25. When using the microscope, which of the following is correct?
    a. 10x magnification is used with immersion oil
    b. lower stage after removing the slide
    c. 40x setting is used for high dry power
    d. only use low with every objective
    a. 10x magnification is used with immersion oil
  26. The phlebotomist has the greatest impact on which phase of laboratory testing?
    a. the post analytical phase
    b. the pre analytical phase
    c. result reporting
    d. has no impact on lab testing
    d. has no impact on lab testing
  27. The documentation of all clinical laboratory tests and results is important so:
    a. the physician can use the results
    b. any interested party in the facility can see the results
    c. results are available for billing purposes
    d. lab director can monitor the amount of work load
    a. the physician can use the results
  28. Which of the following is the usual site for capillary puncture in infants?
    a. fingertip
    b. earlobe
    c. heel
    d. toe
    c. heel
  29. Which of the following is caused by a virus?
    a. candidiasis
    b. malaria
    c. herpes zoster
    d. gonorrhea
    c. herpes zoster
  30. An organism that can live with or without oxygen in its environment is:
    a. a facultative anaerobic
    b. aerobic
    c. gram positive
    d. gram negative
    b. aerobic
  31. Material for a CSF specimen is collected from what area?
    a. spinal column
    b. mouth
    c. throat
    d. pharynx
    a. spinal column
  32. Invasion of the body by any pathogen is called:
    a. contagion
    b. infection
    c. epidemic
    d. pandemic
    b. infection
  33. Cocci occurring in chains are:
    a. micrococci
    b. diplococcic
    c. streptococci
    d. staphylococci
    c. streptococci
  34. The test that checks for the susceptibility of an organism to specific antibiotic is the:
    a. culture test
    b. sensitivity test
    c. isolation test
    d. inoculation test
    b. sensitivity test
  35. After a Gram stain, what color do gram-negative organisms stain?
    a. blue
    b. black
    c. violet
    d. pink
    d. pink
  36. Staphylococcus aureus is:
    a. gram-negative bacilli
    b. gram-positive cocci
    c. gram-negative diplococcic
    d. acid-fast bacilli
    b. gram-positive cocci
  37. The causative agent for scarlet fever and rheumatic fever is:
    a. streptococcus
    b. staphylococcus
    c. neisseria
    d. chlamydia
    a. streptococcus
  38. The study of ova and parasites is known as:
    a. cytology
    b. serology
    c. mycology
    d. parasitology
    d. parasitology
  39. Pregnancy test detects pregnancy by the presence of:
    a. hetrophile antibodies
    b. human chorionic gonadotropins
    c. febrile agglutination
    d. anti Rh antibodies
    b. human chorionic gonadotropins
  40. In a normal microscopic urine results there can be:
    a. nothing to report
    b. a few epithelial cells, occasional WBCs, rare RBCs
    c. so many cells that they are difficult to count
    d. only many RBCs
    b. a few epithelial cells, occasional WBCs, rare RBCs
  41. The presence of many RBCs in a urine microscopic examination is referred to as:
    a. hematuria
    b. pyuria
    c. polyuria
    d. albuminuria
    a. hematuria
  42. How many types of white blood cells are there?
    a. 1
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
    d. 5
  43. Which of the following is NOT a plasma protein?
    a. albumin
    b. prothrombin
    c. urea
    d. fibrinogen
    c. urea

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