DC 3rd Prep

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Roger4355
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DC 3rd Prep
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2013-08-21 14:16:26
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DC 3rd Prep
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DC 3rd Prep Course
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  1. _______________ are necessary for complete combustion

    A.  Forced draft. turbulance and heat

    B.  Fuel oil, air, time and mixture

    C.  Time, Temperature, mixture and     atomization

    D.  Time, Temperature and draft
    C.  Time, Temp, Mix and Atomization
  2. Downcomer tubes are found _____________.

    A.  on the superheater drain

    B.  in the chimney to sample gases of 
         combustion

    C.  in a firetube boiler

    D.  in a watertube boiler
    D.  in a watertube boiler
  3. To cut a boiler in on a line equipped with hand-operated main steam stop valves, the steam pressure on the incoming boiler should be _________.

    A.  slightly lower than line pressure
    B.  slightly higher than line pressure
    C.  equil to line pressure
    D.  no diffrent; pressure will equalize
    A.  slightly lower than line pressure
  4. A gas pressure regulator is used to control the __________________.

    A.  gases of cumbustion
    B.  gas pressure at the burner
    C.  air-fuel ratio
    D.  gas flow to the burner
    B.  gas pressure at the burner
  5. After replacing a gauge glass but before placing it in service, it is necessary to _____________.

    A.  open the try cock and check the water

    B.  crack open the steam valve and warm
         the gauge glass

    C.  crack open the water valve and warm
         the gauge glass

    D.  tighten the packing gland nuts
    B.  crack open the steam valve and warm the gauge glass.
  6. Waterwalls should be blown down _________.

    A.  daily
    B.  weekly
    C.  when the furnace is cool
    D.  once every six months
    C.  when the furnace is cool
  7. As the steam pressure in the boiler increases, there is a corresponding increase in the ____________.

    A.  BHP
    B.  water level
    C.  volume of steam
    D.  temperature of steam and water
    D.  temperature of steam and water
  8. An economizer located in the path of the gases of combustion increases boiler efficiency approximately 1% for each _____°F rise in feedwater temperature.

    A.  5
    B.  10
    C.  15
    D.  20
    B.  10
  9. A dry pipe separator __________________.

    A.  delivers higher quality steam to the
         header.

    B.  distributes feedwater the length of the
         drum.

    C.  prevents water hammer

    D.  agitates the water in the steam and
         water.
    A.  delivers higher quality steam to the header.
  10. A tempreature reading of 80°C is equil to _______°F.

    A.  52
    B.  148
    C.  168
    D.  176
    D.  176


    °F=(1.8x80)+32    °F =176°F
  11. A steam pressure gauge is protected against excessive temperature by a ______________.

    A.  steam trap
    B.  siphon
    C.  separator
    D.  Hartford Loop
    B. siphon
  12. A hole is drilled in the end of a staybolt _________.

    A.  for expansion and contraction
    B.  to warn of a corroded stay
    C.  to add strength
    D.  no holes are ever drilled in a staybolt
    B.  to warn of a corroded stay
  13. Combustion efficiency can be increased when air is ______________.

    A.  filtered
    B.  mixed with CO2
    C.  preheated
    D.  dried
    C.  preheated
  14. A ____________ allows condensate to pass through, but stops steam.

    A.  steam trap
    B.  siphon
    C.  check valve
    D.  bypass
    A.  steam trap
  15. The viscosity of fuel oil is the measurement of the _____ in the fuel oil.

    A.  BTU content
    B.  fire point
    C.  flash point
    D.  internal resistance to flow
    D.  internal resistance to flow
  16. A scotch marine boiler is easily identified because it ________________.

    A.  has a brick setting
    B.  has a cylindrical internal furnace
    C.  is externally fired
    D.  has waterwalls
    B.  has a cylindrical internal furnace
  17. A boiler has a steaming capacity of 34,500 lb of steam per hour.  The evaporation rate is 10 lbs per square foot of heating surface per hour.  What is the boiler heating surface?

    A.  100
    B.  1000
    C.  3450
    D.  6900
    C.  3450

  18. The evaporation of 34.5 lb of water from and at 212°F is a standard for _______________.

    A.  calibrationg a calorimeter
    B.  1 BHP
    C.  the number of BTU in 1 lb of coal
    D.  performing an evaporation test
    B.  1 BHP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Compared to #6 oil, #4 oil has _____ Btu per gallon.

    A. more
    B. Less
    C. the same
    D. more if heated
    B. less
  20. A valve that requires five 360° tuns of the hand wheel to change from fully open to fully closed is a _____________.

    A.  quick-opening
    B.  blowdown
    C.  slow-opening
    D.  ball
    C.  slow-opening
  21. Sensible heat is ______________.

    A.  heat that can be measured with a
         thermometer

    B.  970.3 BTU

    C.  heat that cannot be measured

    D.  heat that changes a substance's state
         but not its temperature
    A.  heat that can be measured with a thermometer
  22. A Ringleman test is used to determine ______________.


    A.  CO2 in gases of combustion
    B.  smoke density
    C.  flame failure
    D.  steam quality
    B. smoke density
  23. A steam pressure gauge  must have a range of at least ____.

    A.  the working pressure of the boiler
    B.  1-1/2 times the working pressure of the boiler
    C.  the MAWP
    D.  1½ times the MAWP
    B. 1-1/2 times the working pressure of the boiler
  24. Compared to #6 oil, #4 oil has _____ BTU per gallon.

    A.  more
    B.  less
    C.  the same
    D.  more if heated
    B.  less
  25. An accumulation test is used to determine ____________.

    A.  furnace volume
    B.  heating surface
    C.  safety valve capacity
    D.  the evaporation rate
    C.  safety valve capacity
  26. In a watertube boiler, heat and gases of combustion pass _________.

    A.  through the casing
    B.  through the tubes
    C.  around the tubes
    D.  through and around the tubes
    C.  around the tubes
  27. A sudden rise in chimney temperature with no increase in load indicates _____________.

    A.  a damper is stuck closed
    B.  the boiler needs cleaning
    C.  there is a broken baffle
    D.  there is too much air
    C.  there is a broken baffle
  28. On boilers that have both quick-closing and screw-type blowdown vales, the quick-closing valve must be located _______________.

    A.  after the screw-type valve
    B.  at the NOWL
    C.  closest to the boiler and followed by
         the screw-type valve
    D.  on the bottom blowdown tank
    C.  closest to the boiler and followed by the screw-type valve
  29. A scotch marine boiler is  a _____________ boiler.

    A.  watertube
    B.  cast iron
    C.  cast iron firetube
    D.  firetube
    D.  firetube
  30. Automatic combustion controls on a boiler control ____________________.

    A. water and fuel ratio
    B.  fuel and air ratio
    C.  steam ans air ratio
    D.  chemical to firing ratio
    B.  fuel and air ratio
  31. A boiler generates 1800 lb of steam/hour.  The steam pressure is 150 psi and steam contains 1194 BTU/lb.  The feedwater temperature is 205°F.  What is the developed boiler horsepower? 1C

    A.  87
    B.  55
    C.  66
    D.  106
    B.  55









      






  32. _________ is always necessary in the combustion process.

    A.  Nitrogen
    B.  Hydrogen
    C.  Oxygen
    D.  Methane
    C.  Oxygen
  33. Staybolts are most commenly found on _______. 

    A.  feedwater heaters
    B.  firetube boilers
    C.  superheater headers
    D.  all modern watertube boilers
    B.  firetube boilers
  34. Pyrometers measure _____________.

    A.  air duct velocity
    B.  draft
    C.  superheater flow
    D.  temperature
    D. temperature
  35. __________ boilers can operate at higher pressures than firetube boilers.

    A.  HRT
    B.  Scotch marine
    C.  Vertical firetube
    D.  watertube
    D.  watertube
  36. Boilers should be warmed up slowly when starting up to _________ .

    A. eliminate water hammer
    B. allow uniform expansion of drums and tubes
    C. maintain a steady water level
    D. prevent an explosion
    B. allow uniform expansion of drums and tubes
  37. Waterwall tubes ____.

    A. act as stays on tube sheets
    B. allow blowdown while the boiler is operating
    C. help control water circulation
    D. increase boiler heating surface
    D. increase boiler heating surface
  38. A manometer is read in _______.

    A. inches of water
    B. PSIG
    C. PSIA
    D. None of the above
    A. inches of water
  39. The low water fuel cutoff can be tested by ________.

    A. lifting the lever or handle
    B. securing the burner
    C. allowing the water level to drop
    D. opening the fuel valve
    C. allowing the water level to drop
  40. The minimum size manhole is _______.

    A. 11"x11"
    B. 12"x12"
    C. 11"x13"
    D. 11"x15"
    D. 11"x15"
  41. Boiler waterwalls should be blown down _______.

    A. daily
    B. weekly
    C. when the firebox is cool but the boiler still has pressure
    D. every six months
    C. when the firebox is cool but the boiler still has pressure
  42. If steam comes out of the bottom try cock, the boiler operator must__________.

    A. secure the fires to the boiler, allow the boiler to cool slowly, and notify the chief engineer
    B. bypass the try cocks and feed by hand
    C. leave the boiler alone; this is normal
    D. start up a new feedwater pump
    A. secure the fires to the boiler, allow the boiler to cool slowly, and notify the chief engineer
  43. On the feedwater line, the valve closest to the boiler shell is a ______ valve.
     
    A. check
    B. stop
    C. blowdown
    D. make up
    B. stop
  44. Draft is measured with a _______.

    A. pyrometer
    B. hydrometer
    C. manometer
    D. potentiometer
    C. manometer
  45. The amount of excess air in gasses of combustion is normally determined by the analysis of _________.

    A. CO2
    B. O2
    C. CO
    D. O
    B. O2
  46. Economizers are used in large plants so that ________.

    A. the dew point can be lowered
    B. impure feedwater can be used
    C. higher flu gas temps can be maintained
    D. heat from the gasses of combustion can be reclaimed
    D. heat from the gasses of combustion can be reclaimed
  47. Pressure atomizing burners atomize fuel oil using _________.

    A. steam pressure
    B. air pressure
    C. a rotary cup
    D. none of the above
    D. none of the above
  48. waterwall tubes protect the refractory and _____________.

    A. increase the boiler heating surface
    B. act as stays for tube sheets
    C. allow the operator blowdown while steaming
    D. help control water circulation

    elp co
    A. increase the boiler heating surface
  49. Viscosity is the internal resistance to fluid flow. No. 6 fuel oil has _______ viscosity.

    A. no
    B. a high
    C. a medium
    D. a low
    B. a high
  50. At 0 psi, ______ BTU are necessary to change 1lb of water at 212F into steam.

    A. 144
    B. 180
    C. 970.3
    D. 1200
    C. 970.3
  51. _____ is the difference in pressure between two points of measurement.

    A. Draft
    B. Feedwater
    C. Condensate
    D. Carryover
    A. Draft
  52. When taking a boiler off-line, a vacuum is prevented by _________.

    A. opening the air cock.
    B. blowing down
    C. dumping the boiler at once
    D. popping the safety valve
    A. opening the air cock
  53. Fuel oil with a high viscosity _______.

    A. is hard to pump
    B. is easy to pump
    C. is not used in boilers
    D. limits the firing rate
    A. is hard to pump
  54. ____ % of the steam generated in a boiler is used for the steam atomizing burner.

    A. Four
    B. Eight
    C. Twelve
    D. Sixteen
    A. Four
  55. A boiler generates 60,000 lb of steam/hr. The pressure is 150 psi. and steam contains 1195 BTU/lb. The feedwater temp is 195*F. What is the equivalent evaporation produced?

    A. 98,898 lb/hr
    B. 55,575 lb/hr
    C. 75,666 lb/hr
    D. 63,815 lb/hr
    • D. 63,815 lb/hr
    • Equiv. Evap.=
    •           
  56. Bituminous coal has a _____ content

    A. high volatile
    B. high hydrogen
    C. high fixed carbon
    D. high ash
    A. high volatile
  57. What is the pressure in PSI at the base of a column of water 250' high and 8'wide?

    A.98
    B.75
    C.108
    D.125
    • C.108
    • 1' of water = .433 psi therefore
    • .433x250'=108psi
  58. Baffles are used in the steam and water drum of water tube boilers to _________.

    A. provide better circulation
    B. prevent water carryover with the steam
    C. prevent fluctuations of the water level
    D. clean the steam
    B. prevent water carryover with the steam
  59. Draft is carefully controlled to _________.

    A. maintain at least 15% CO on gasses of combustion
    B. completely burn fuel supplied to the burner
    C. prevent the boiler from overheating
    D. maintain high levels of excess air in gasses of combustion
    B. completely burn fuel supplied to the burner
  60. a stop and check valve is installed in the _______.

    A. main steam header
    B. outlet superheater
    C. blowdown line
    D. feedwater line
    D. feedwater line
  61. viscosity of fuel oil is a _______.

    A. method of finding flash point
    B. measure of internal resistance to flow
    C. method of finding the fire point
    D. method of determining heating value
    B. measure of internal resistance to flow
  62. A water column _________.

    A. dampens fluctuating water level
    B. must be equipped with ball checks
    C. prevents foaming in the guage glass
    D. is used on all boilers
    A. Dampens fluctuating water level
  63. In order to reduce the viscosity of a fuel oil its  ________ 

    A. temperature must be reduced
    B. temperature must be increased
    C. pressure must be reduced
    D. pressure must be increased
    B. temperature must be increased
  64. The fyrite analyzer can be used to measure ___________.

    A. sulfur dioxide
    B. flyash
    C. oxygen
    D. pounds of steam per hour
    C. oxygen
  65. Sewer lines are protected from the __________ when blowing down a boiler.

    A. steam trap
    B. expansion tank
    C. blowdown tank
    D. compression tank
    C.blowdown tank
  66. How many gallons can be pumped into a cylinder 72" in diameter and 20' long?

    A. 3842
    B. 4238
    C. 5666
    D. 2332
    B. 4238

    • =
  67. Oxygen in feedwater causes ______.

    A. priming
    B. foaming
    C. pitting
    D. scale
    C. pitting
  68. Extra-heavy steel pipe is required on a boiler bottom blowdown line when the pressure is above _______ psi.

    A. 100
    B. 125
    C. 150
    D. 175
    B. 125
  69. In a balanced draft system, the pressure in the furnace is approximately _____.

    A. +0.1" of water
    B. -1.0" of water
    C. atmospheric
    D. atmospheric + guage
    C. atmospheric
  70. The furnace of an HRT boiler is _________.
    A. within the boiler shell
    B. constructed without refractory
    C. protected from excessive heat
    D. outside of the boiler shell
    D. outside of the boiler shell
  71. If the firing rate increases on a boiler equipped with a convection type superheater, the superheater temperature will _______.
    A. increase
    B. decrease
    C. stay constant
    D. none of the above
    A. increase
  72. What is the output in pounds per hour of a boiler rated at 750hp?
    A. 22,875 lb/hr
    B. 45,290 lb/hr
    C. 25,875 lb/hr
    D. 38,275 lb/hr
    • C. 25,875 lb/hr
    • 1BHP = the evaporation of 34.5lbs per hour at 212F
    • 750x34.5= 25,875
  73. The safety valve setting on the steam and water drum is _____ the superheater safety valve.
    A. lower than
    B. higher than
    C. the same as
    D. none of the above
    B. higher than
  74. A watertube boiler has 250 tubes that are 20' long and 3" in diameter. If the boiler produces 1 BHP for every 10sq/ft  of heating surface the maximum BHP it will produce is ________ BHP.
    A. 125
    B. 392
    C. 750
    D. 1500
    B. 392




  75. The pour point of a fuel oil is _________.
    A. the lowest temperature at which oil will flow
    B. its internal resistance to flow
    C. only used with lubricating oil
    D. the same as its fire point
    A. the lowest temperature at which oil will flow
  76. A boiler produces steam containing 1,198.7 BTU/lb. The feedwater temperature is 190F. What is the factor of evaporation?
    A. 2.14
    B. 1.07
    C. .76
    D. 11
    • B.1.07









  77. _________ is carrying over of particles of water with the steam.
    A. Pitting
    B. Flashing
    C. Splashing
    D. Priming
    D. Priming
  78. To correct a low water condition __________.
    A. decrease feedwater
    B. increase firing rate
    C. lower firing rate and increase feedwater
    D. secure fires
     D. secure fires
  79. Heat absorbed by water when changing from liquid to steam at the boiling point ______.
    A. sensible heat
    B. latent heat
    C. specific heat
    D. superheat
    B. Latent heat
  80. According to ASME code, a high pressure boiler having more than 500 sq/ft of heating surface shall have _________.
    A. one safety valve of the proper size
    B. one safety valve with a rupture disc
    C. two lever type safety valves
    D. two or more safety valves
    D. two or more safety valves
  81. An evaporation test should be performed _______ to check the low water fuel cut off control.
    A. daily
    B. weekly
    C. monthly
    D. yearly
    C. monthly
  82. The purpose of a vent on the open feedwater heater is to ___________.
    A. prevent flooding
    B. prevent pressure increase
    C. remove oxygen and non-condensable gasses
    D. add make up water
    C. remove oxygen and non-condensable gasses
  83. The steam line going to the soot blowers is connected to the main _________.
    A. steam header
    B. steam drum
    C. auxilary line
    D. pressure reducing station
    B. steam drum
  84. Overheating of tubes in a water tube boiler is caused by_____ on the ________ of the tubes.
    A. scale; inside
    B. scale; putside
    C. soot; inside
    D. soot; outside
    A. scale;inside
  85. If the burner is firing and no water is in the gauge glass, the best procedure to follow is ________.
    A. blow down the low water fuel cutoff
    B. check the water level with the try cocks
    C. shut down the burner and secure the boiler
    D. add water to the boiler
    C. shut down the burner and secure the boiler
  86. A continuous blowdown line is located _____.
    A. at the NOWL
    B. in the mud drum
    C. in the flash tank
    D. in the steam and water drum well below the NOWL
    D. in the steam and water drum well below the NOWL
  87. When testing the safety valve by hand _____.
    A. there should be no pressure in the boiler
    B. notify the boiler inspector
    C. the boiler should be at least 75% of popping pressure before testing
    D. first secure the fires
    C. the boiler should be at least 75% of popping pressure before testing
  88. An open feedwater heater is located ______.
    A. above the feedwater pump on the discharge side
    B. above the feedwater pump on the suction side
    C. in the boiler room
    D.between the feedwater pump and the boiler
    B. above the feedwater pump on the suction side
  89. The maximum size bottom blowdown valves on boilers is_______.
    A. 1"
    B. 1-1/2"
    C. 2"
    D. 2-1/2"
    D. 2-1/2"
  90. When taking over a shift, the first thing to do is check the  _______.
    A. water level in each boiler
    B. fuel supply
    C. flame condition
    D. feedwater pumps
    A. water level in each boiler
  91. Before using soot blowers on a boiler ____.
    A. drain the sootblower lines
    B. drain the superheater lines
    C. decrease the draft
    D. secure all the burners
    A. drain the sootblower lines
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. A globe valve installed on the feedwater line between the feedwater pump and boiler has pressure from the feedwater pump _____ the valve disc.
    A. under
    B. on top of
    C. discharge side of
    D. none of the above
    A. under
  93. The feedwater stop valve is found between the ________.
    A. boiler and check valve
    B. check valve and feedwater pump
    C. boiler and feedwater pump
    D. boiler and main steam header
    A. boiler and check valve
  94. Balanced draft is ______.
    A. forced draft
    B. induced draft
    C. below atmospheric pressure at the flue outlet
    D. constant furnace pressure slightly below atmospheric pressure
    D. constant furnace pressure slightly below atmospheric pressure
  95. A dearating feedwater  heater removes noncondensable gasses such as air, free oxygen, and co2from the feedwater that can cause ________.
    A. corrosion
    B. foaming
    C. carryover
    D. pumps to become vapor bound
    A. corrosion
  96. A scotch marine boiler has _________.
    A. an internal furnace
    B. an external furnace
    C. a brick setting
    D. water tubes
    A. an internal furnace
  97. Baffles in a boiler are designed to direct gasses of combustion for close contact with _______.
    A. boiler drums
    B. boiler heating surface
    C. blowdown lines
    D. mud drums
    B. boiler heating surface
  98. A feedwater pump woll become steambound if the __________.
    A. steam pressure gets too high
    B. water temp in the open feedwater heater gets too high
    C. water temp in the closed feedwater heater is too high
    D. water level in the open feedwater heater is too high
    B. water temp on the open feedwater heater is too high
  99. Baffles are placed between the tubes of the boiler to _______.
    A. direct the travels of gasses of combustion
    B. braces the tubes
    C. prevent bending of the tubes
    D. maintain pressure in the furnace
    A. direct the travels of gasses of combustion
  100. The orsat analyzer is used to determine the _________.
    A. required chimney temps
    B. combustion efficiency
    C. steam quality in the boiler
    D. heating value of the fuel
    B. combustion efficiency
  101. The surface blowdown on a steam boiler is located ___________.
    A. at the lowest visible part of the gauge glass
    B. on the mud drum
    C. at the highest part of the steam and water drum
    D. at the NOWL
    D. at the NOWL
  102. A boiler generates 100,000 lbs of steam/hr with a factor of evaporation of 1.04. What is its HP?
    A. 3,415.5 bhp
    B. 2998 bhp
    C. 3014.5 bhp
    D. 2014.8 bhp
    C. 3014.5 bhp

     





    DBHP=3014.5
  103. Most furnace explosions are caused by ____.
    A. failure to purge the furnace at start up
    B. over purging the furnace at start up
    C. mechanical failures
    D. damaged refractory
    A. failure to purge the furnace at start up
  104. _____ combustion is when all fuel is burned up using only the theoretical amount of air.
    A. Theoretical
    B. Secondary
    C. Complete
    D. Perfect
    D. Perfect
  105. A steam pressure gauge has a siphon between the boiler and the pressure gauge to ________.
    A. allow for expansion and contraction
    B. prevent water from entering the pressure gauge
    C. protect the pressure from high steam pressure
    D. prevent steam from entering the pressure gauge
    D. prevent steam from entering the pressure gauge
  106. An automatic feedwater regulator regulator ________.
    A. warns of high or low water
    B. maintains a constant water level
    C. shuts the burner off in the event of low water
    D. adds city water makeup automatically
    B. maintains a constant water level
  107. According to ASME code, the suggested range of a boiler pressure gauge is _______.
    A. 1-1/2 to 2 times the safety valve setting
    B. 2 times the MAWP
    C. not more than 6% above the MAWP
    D. gauge pressure plus atmospheric pressure
    A. 1-1/2 times the safety valve setting
  108. Before draining a boiler _____.
    A. allow the setting to cool
    B. call the inspector
    C. open blowdown valves with 10psi to 12psi on the boiler
    D. use surface blowdown first
    A. allow setting to cool
  109. A thermostatic steam trap can be used ___.
    A. only on low pressure systems
    B. on high or low pressure systems
    C. only on high pressure systems
    D. on non-return condensate systems
    B. on high or low pressure systems
  110. A thermostatic steam trap opens when the ______.
    A. bucket rises
    B. steam enters the trap
    C. bellows contract
    D. ball
    C. bellows contract
  111. Three types of draft used in power plants are _____.
    A. natural, forced and induced
    B. natural, forced and gravity
    C. natural, flow and induced
    D. natural, induced and gravity
    A. natural, forced and induced
  112. An automatic non-return valve is found on the ________.
    A. discharge side of the feedwater pump
    B. inlet line to the open feedwater heater
    C. boiler main steam line, between the main stop valve and the header
    D. boiler main steam line between the boiler and the main stop valve
    D. boiler main steam line between the boiler and the main stop valve
  113. A broken baffle on a watertube boiler would cause ______.
    A. tube to leak
    B. increase in steam pressure
    C. increase in chimney temperature
    D. carryover
    C. increase in chimney temperature
  114. When making a hydrostatic test on a boiler, the safety valves must be _______.
    A. kept free to pop at set pressure
    B. set at 1-1/2 times the MAWP
    C. plugged at the discharge end
    D. gagged or removed, and the openings must be blank flanged
    D. gagged or removed, and the openings must be blank flanged
  115. If the steam valve to the gauge glass is closed or the top line is clogged, the gauge glass will be _______.
    A. full
    B. half full
    C. three quarters full
    D. empty
    A. full
  116. The frequency of performing a bottom blowdown is determined by ______.
    A. steaming capacity
    B. boiler water analysis
    C. operating routine
    D. operator on shift
    B. boiler water analysis
  117. A boiler is producing 40,000 lb of steam/hr at a pressure of 100psi and a steam temperature of 500F. The steam produced is _________ steam.
    A. supersaturated
    B. desuperheated
    C. superheated
    D. saturated
    C. superheated
  118. The function of the fuel oil burner is to ____.
    A. preheat the fuel oil
    B. pump the fuel oil into the fire box
    C. atomize the fuel oil completely
    D. pump fuel oil back into the fuel oil tank
    C. Atomize the fuel oil completely
  119. A deposit of scale or mud in an HRT boiler could cause _________.
    A. a bag to develop
    B. a draft loss
    C. overheating of the breeching
    D. lowering of the chimney temperature
    A. a bag to develop
  120. When a quick opening valve is used as a blowdown, it is located ______.
    A. before the flash tank
    B. between the slow opening valve and the blowdown tank
    C. between the boiler and the slow opening valve
    D. on the continuous blowdown line
    C. between the boiler and the slow opening valve
  121. Overheating of tubes on a boiler can be caused by ________.
    A. rapid circulation of water
    B. scale on tubes
    C. high water level
    D. low firing rate
    B. scale on tubes
  122. An orsat analyser measures ______ in gasses of combustion.
    A. carbon dioxide
    B. oxygen
    C. carbon monoxide
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  123. Feedwater is treated chemically before it enters the boiler to _____.
    A. prevent foaming
    B. eliminate blowing down the boiler
    C. change the scale forming salts to a sludge that will stick to the heating surface, making cleaning easier
    D. change the scale forming salts to non-adhering sludge
    D. change the scale forming salts to non-adhering sludge
  124. A bottom blow down on a boiler is performed to _______.
    A. remove surface scum
    B. test for water level
    C. test safety valves
    D. discharge sludge and sediment
    D. Discharge sludge and sediment
  125. The first step when using a soot blower is  ___________.
    A. open the steam line drain
    B. warm up the steam lines slowly
    C. turn soot blower elements slowly
    D. actuate steam turbine blades
    A. open the steam line drain
  126. combustion requires __________.
    A. fuel, oxygen and carbon dioxide
    B. fuel, oxygen and heat
    C. fuel, oxygen and draft
    D. fuel, oxygen and carbon monoxide
    B. fuel, oxygen and heat
  127. Boilers in a battery, equipped with _______ must have two main steam stop valves and a free blowing drain between them.
    A. common blowdown lines
    B. manhole openings
    C. handhole openings
    D. continuous blowdown lines
    B. manhole openings
  128. If a boiler evaporates 50,000 lb of steam/hr and is evaporating 10lb of steam/sq ft.of heating surface, the heating surface of the boiler is ______sq ft.
    A. 50
    B. 500
    C. 5000
    D. 50,000
    C. 5000
  129. A ___________ is an electric output device that converts electrical energy into a linear mechanical force.
    A. pushbutton
    B.  limit switch
    C.  motor
    D.  solenoid
    D.  solenoid
  130. A ___________ is a control device that uses a small current to energize or de-energize  the load connected to it.
    A.  voltage regulator
    B.  contactor
    C.  limit switch
    D.  light switch
    B.  contactor
  131. ______________ contacts may be added to a contractor to form an electrical holding circuit.
    A.  normally closed
    B.  auxiliary
    C.  heavy duty
    D.  all of the above
    B.  auxiliary
  132. A second start pushbutton added into a control circuit is connected in ___________ with the first pushbutton.
    A.  random order
    B.  parallel
    C.  a wye-configuration
    D.  none of the above
    B.  parallel
  133. A ______________ prevents both the high and low contacts of a contractor from being closed at the same time.
    A.  knife switch
    B.  mechanical interlock
    C.  overload relay
    D.  heater unit
    B.  mechanical interlock
  134. ____________ current is unwanted current induced in the metal structure of a device due to a rate of change in the induced magnetic field.
    A.  stray
    B.  eddy
    C.  full load
    D.  starting
    B.  eddy
  135. A __________ control circuit includes a holding circuit interlock (memory).
    A.  two-wire
    B.  jogging
    C.  three-wire
    D.  interlocking
    C.  three-wire
  136. Selection of thermal overload heaters or the setting of an electronic overload is based on the _________ rating shown on the motor nameplate.
    A.  full-load current
    B.  locked rotor current
    C.  voltage
    D.  frequency
    A.  full-load current
  137. Magnetic motor starters include __________ that detects excessive current passing through a motor.
    A.  auxiliary contacts
    B.  power contacts
    C.  overload relays
    D.  resistors
    C.  overload relays
  138. A transformer that steps 240v down to 120v has a power ratio of _____________.
    A.  1:4
    B.  2:1
    C.  1:1
    D   4:1
    C.  1:1
  139. A ___________ connection has each coil end connected end to end from a closed loop.
    A.  delta
    B.  wye
    C.  series
    D.  parallel
    A.  delta
  140. The _____________ is the link between the power delivered to a building and the start of the local distribution system throughout a building.
    A.  disconnector
    B.  transformer
    C.  switchboard
    D.  circuit breaker
    C.  switchboard
  141. A __________ is a wall mounted distribution cabinet containing over current and short circuit protection for lighting and appliance branch circuits.
    A.  outlet box
    B.  panelboard
    C.  receptacle box
    D.  disconnect
    B.  Panelboard
  142. Fuses are connected in _____ with a circuit to protect it from over currents.
    A.  series
    B.  series/parallel
    C.  parallel
    D.  none of the above
    A.  series
  143. In a transformer, a marking of X1 or X2 indicates the ___________ voltage side.
    A.  high
    B.  low
    C.  parallel
    D.  none of the above
    B.  low
  144. A __________ is a reusable OCPD that opens a circuit automatically at a predetermined over current.
    A.  fuse
    B.  current sensing relay
    C.  circuit breaker
    D.  non of the above
    C.  circuit breaker
  145. The power capacity of a transformer is rated in __________.
    A.  KW
    B.  voltes
    C.  KV
    D.  VA
    D.  VA
  146. Switchboards are rated as to the maximum voltage and ___________ they can handle.
    A.  ohms
    B.  heat
    C.  watts
    D.  amps
    D.  amps
  147. In a delta system phase current is ___________ as (than) line current.
    A.  higher
    B.  equal to
    C.  lower
    D.  same
    C.  lower
  148. The most common contact block includes ___________.
    A.  one NO contact
    B.  one NC contact
    C.  one NO and one NC contact
    D.  two NO and two NC contacs
    C.  one NO and one NC contact
  149. A ____________ switch detects a set amount of force and activates electrical contacts when the set amount of force is reached.
    A.  pressure
    B.  limit
    C.  selector
    D.  foot
    A.  pressure
  150. A ___________ temperature-sensitive device that changes its electrical resistance witha  change in temperature.
    A.  thermocouple
    B.  thermistor
    C.  bimetallic sensor
    D.  capiliary tube
    B.  thermistor
  151. A __________ control is used in the level control application in which a small distance exists between when a motor must turn on and when a motor must turn off.
    A.  one-level
    B.  two-level
    C.  low pressure
    D.  high pressure
    B.  two-level
  152. A ________device includes an electronic circuit that provides communication and diagnostic capabilities of the device.
    A.  solid-state
    B.  automatic
    C.  two-level
    D.  smart
    D.  smart
  153. _________ is the unbalance that occurs when power lines are out-of phase.
    A.  phase unbalance
    B.  cycle variance
    C.  voltage unbalance
    D.  sine wave alteration
    A.  phase unbalance
  154. ______________is the maximum condition of voltage unbalance.
    A.  no voltage
    B.  single phasing
    C.  voltage surge
    D.  voltage dip
    B. single phasing
  155. Protection against __________ is required on all motors that are used in personnel transportation equipment such as escalators.
    A.  overcycling
    B.  overloading
    C.  grounding
    D.  improper phase sequence
    D. improper phase sequence
  156. ___________ results in the burning and opening of the first turns of the motor windings.
    A.  high-altitude operation
    B.  single phasing
    C.  voltage surge
    D.  voltage unbalance
    C.  voltage surge
  157. A motor operates satisfactorily with a maximum voltage variation of + or - _________% from the voltage rating listed on the motor nameplate.
    A.  2
    B.  10
    C.  5
    D.  15
    B.  10
  158. The longer a motor takes to accelerate, the ________
    A.  faster the motor runs
    B.  higher the temperature rise in the motor
    C.  lower the temperature rise in the motor
    D.  more efficient the motor operates
    B.  higher the temperature rise in the motor
  159. Even blackening on all motor winding occurs from a _____________ condition.
    A.  voltage surge
    B.  overloading
    C.  phase loss
    D.  phase unbalance
    B.  overloading
  160. A ____________ is a device that detects insulation deterioration by measuring high resistance values under test voltage conditions.
    A.  ohmmeter
    B.  voltmeter
    C.  megohmmeter
    D.  ammeter
    C.  megohmmeter
  161. A _________ test creates electrical stress on internal insulation cracks to reveal aging or damaged not found during other motor insulation tests.
    A.  insulation step voltage
    B.  insulation spot
    C.  dielectric absorbtion
    D.  Megohmmeter
    A.  insulation step voltage
  162. Does the current lead or lag the applied voltage in a capacitive circuit?
    Leads in a capacitor (reactive)
  163. In a three phase wye-connected system phase current and line current are in what relation?
    Same
  164. In a delta connection, phase current is higher or lower than the line current?
    A.  higher
    B.  lower
    B.  Lower
  165. How many degrees are the voltages out of phase in a three phase circuit?
    120 degrees
  166. Which set of windings of a transformer are connected to the load?
    Secondary
  167. In a step-up transformer which is higher voltage?
    A.  Primary
    B.  Secondary
    B.  Secondary
  168. Which is an isolation transformer?
    No electric connection between primary and secondary.
  169. What is the tagged or orange wire of the three phase transformer known as?
    High leg
  170. What type of current is produced in all generators?
    AC
  171. How do you change the direction of rotation on a three phase motor?
    switch tiny two leads
  172. How do you change the rotation of a split phase motor?
    change run or start winding
  173. What principle do all three phase motors operate on?
    Rotating Electric Field
  174. What is a centrifugal switch?  What motors use centrifugal switches?
    • Disconnects
    • small single phase motors have @70% run
  175. What are the three basic types of split phase motors?
    • Capacitor start motor
    • resistive start
    • cap start/cap run motor
  176. What is the difference between the start and run windings in a resistive start induction run motor?
    wire size.   smaller wire is start winding
  177. in three phase wye-connected system the line voltage is higher than the phase voltage by what factor?
    the square root of 3... 1.732
  178. A boiler operating at 125 psi the diameter of the steam and water drum head is 3'. The total force acting on the drum head is ____LBS.

    A. 127
    B.1272
    C.12,723
    D.127,235
    D.127,235
  179. If the feedwater temp is increased without a change in the firing rate, the steam ______.
    A. flow will decrease
    B.flow will increase
    C. flow will remain constant
    D. temperature will increase
    D. Flow will increase
  180. In a pressure atomizing burner, the atomization of the oil is accomplished by___. 
    A. steam pressure
    B. air pressure
    C. a rotating cup
    D. a sprayer plate and tip
    D. a sprayer plate and tip
  181. If the suction valve in a reciprocating compressor is leaking slightly, the ___________.
    A.  cooling capacity will be reduced
    B.  flow rate of refrigerant through the system will increase
    C.  compressor can overheat
    D.  both A & C
    D.  both A & C
  182. What could happen if a semi-hermetic compressor is operated with the suction service valve backseated and the discharge valve frontseated?
    A.  The system will pump down.
    B.  The system will pump out.
    C.  The head of the compressor may blow off.
    D.  The compressor capacity will increase.
    C.  The head of the compressor may blow off.
  183. Liquid entering the compression chamber of a reciprocating compressor can lead to __________.
    A.  damaged valves
    B.  damaged piston rings
    C.  damaged expansion valves
    D.  both A & B
    D.  both A & B
  184. The temperature of the compressed gas leaving the compressor can best be described as __________.
    A.  cold
    B.  cool
    C.  warm
    D.  very warm
    D.  very warm
  185. The screw-type compressor is used primarily in ________________.
    A.  large industrial refrigeration and air-conditioning systems.
    B.  residential air conditioning
    C.  small commercial refrigeration units
    D.  domestic refrigerators
    A.  large industrial refrigeration and air-conditioning systems.
  186. Rotary compressors are used primarily in ______________.
    A.  large industrial refrigeration and air conditioning systems
    B.  residential air conditioning
    C.  small commercial refrigeration units
    D.  domestic refrigerators
  187. The discus valve design is more efficient than a flapper valve design because _________________.
    A.  it allows a compressor design with less clearance volume
    B.  it operates with less spring tension
    C.  the amount of expanded vapor in the cylinder is greater
    A.  it allows a compressor design with less clearance  volume
  188. Which of the following terminal combinations would show an open circuit if the internal overload device in a hermetic compressor should open due to excessive heat?
    A.  common to start
    B.  common to run
    C.  start to run
    D.  both A & B
    D.  both A & B
  189. A refrigeration system in operating with a vapor charged thermostatic expansion valve.  The thermal bulb is sensing a suction line temperature that is higher than the temperature that allows liquid to be present in the bulb.  Any additional increases in the evaporator load will _________________.
    A.  increase the bulb pressure and cause the thermostatic expansion valve to open
    B.  increase the evaporator pressure and cause the thermostatic expansion valve to close
    C.  decrease the spring pressure and cause the thermostatic expansion valve to open
    D.  have no effect on the position of the needle (pin) in the seat
    D.  have no effect on the position of the needle (pin) in the seat
  190. If a thermostatic  expansion valve thermal bulb came loose from the suction line at the outlet of the evaporator, which of the following could result?
    A.  The bulb pressure would increase and the thermostatic expansion valve would open
    B.  The superheat in the evaporator would decrease
    C.  Liquid refrigerant woudl flow back to the compressor
    D.  All of the above are correct
    D.  All of the above are correct

  191. If the thermal bulb assembly develops a leak, what will occur?
    A.  All the systems refrigerant will leak out
    B.  The bulb pressure will reduce and the valve will close
    C.  The valve will open to allow more refrigerant to flow
    D.  It will have no effect on the system operation
    B.  The pressure will reduce and the valve will close
  192. The primary function of an expansion device is to ______________.
    A.  produce a reduction in the pressure of the liquid refrigerant
    B.  regulate the flow of refrigerant into the evaporator
    C.  lower the boiling point of the refrigerant into the evaporator far enough below the temperature of the load to get the needed heat transfer rate
    D.  all of the above
    D.  all of the above
  193. A thermostatic expansion valve controls refrigerant flow to the evaporator based on ______________.
    A.  rate of liquid vaporization
    B.  evaporator suction line superheat
    C.  external equalizer pressure
    D.  all of the above
    B.  evaporator suction line superheat
  194. The purpose of the capillary tube is to ________________.
    A.  regulate the refrigerant flow of the evaporator
    B.  lower the pressure of the liquid refrigerant
    C.  lower the boiling point of the liquid refrigerant
    D.  all of the above
    D.  all of the above
  195. The TXV sensing bulb is mounted _________.
    A.  on the liquid line between the condenser and the TX valve
    B.  at the inlet to the condenser
    C.  on the suction line between the evaporator and the compression
    D.  on the compressor discharge line
    C.  on the suction line between the evaporator and the compressor
  196. The benefits of electric baseboard heating are that _______________.
    A.  each room can be controlled individually
    B.  they are inexpensive to install
    C.  they operate on a 24-V power supply
    D.  both A & B
    D.  both A & B
  197. What would happen if the fan on an electric unit heater burned out?
    A.  The heater would remain energized until the fusible link melts.  
    B.  The interlock switch would de-energize the electric heater.
    C.  The unit will still hear the area, but it would take longer to do so.
    D.  Both A & B are possible.
    D.  Both A & B are possible
  198. Technician "A" says that a fusible link can be jumped out temporarily to allow the customer to get heat until the next business day.  Technician "B" says that if the fuses keep on blowing on the electric duct heater, the fan may be defective.  Which of the following statements is correct?
    A.  Technician "A" is correct.  Technician "B" is correct. 
    B.  Technician "A" is correct.  Technician "B" is incorrect. 
    C.  Technician "A" is incorrect.  Technician "B" is correct. 
    D.  Technician "A" is incorrect.  Technician "B" is incorrect.
    C.  Technician "A" is incorrect.  Technician "B" is correct.
  199. If a duct-mounted electric heater is to be installed and it is discovered that the heater is too long to fit inside the duct (the duct is 10 inches high and 14 inches wide and the heater is 9 1/2 inches high and 18 inches long), what can the technician do to properly complete the installation?
    A.  Install the heater at an angle 
    B.  Cut a slot in the duct work and allow the heater to protrude 4 inches out of the duct. 
    C.  Return the heater to the supply house an obtain the correct size heater. 
    D.  Cut the ends of the coils off the heater and increase the fan speed.
    C.  Return the heater to the supply house and obtain the correct size heater.



  200. The resistance wire used in electric heating elements is usually ______________.
    A.  copper
    B.  nickle steel
    C.  nickel chromium
    D.  aluminum
    C.  nickel chromium
  201. Radiant heat is transferred by ____________.
    A.  ultraviolet rays
    B.  infrared rays
    C.  ionization
    D.  refraction
    B.  infrared rays
  202. Electric baseboard heaters are classified as ____________.
    A.  natural draft convectors
    B.  forced draft convectors
    C.  forced draft conductors
    D.  radiant heaters
    A.  natural draft convectors
  203. Quartz and glass panel electric units are classified as ______________.
    A.  natural draft convectors
    B.  forced draft convectors
    C.  forced draft conductors
    D.  radiant heaters
    D.  radiant heaters
  204. An electric heating unit in a duct system is classified as a _____________________.
    A.  natural draft convectors
    B.  forced draft convectors
    C.  forced draft conductors
    D.  radiant heat
    B.  forced draft convectors
  205. A 10Kw heating element, operating on rated 240 V, will have a Btu output of __________.
    A.  29,319
    B.  31,062
    C.  34,130
    D.  35,875
    C.  34,130
  206. The limit switch is used on the electric element assembly to ________________.
    A.  start the unit if the thermostat malfunctions.
    B.  ensures that the fan stops when the unit cools down.
    C.  start the unit prematurely on a cold day
    D.  open the circuit to the element if the furnace overheats.
    D.  open the circuit to the element if the furnace overheats
  207. Generally speaking, electric heat is very efficient but costs more when compared to oil and gas.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  208. One potential safety hazard that all technicians should be aware of when working on and electric furnace is that there are many exposed electrical connections.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  209. For maximum element life, the element must have sufficient air over all parts of the element to prevent any par of the element from glowing red.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  210. Electric heating units provide almost instant heat.  Therefore, anticipators are not needed in electric heat thermostats.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    B.  False
  211. All electric furnaces use package sequencers.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    B.  False
  212. If the number two contact on a package sequencer fails to close, the number three contact can still close.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  213. If a critically charged refrigeration system is overcharged, which of the following is a likely result?
    A.  increased  cooling capacity
    B.  reduced compressor discharge temperature
    C.  increase system efficiency
    D.  increased operating pressures
    D.  increased operating pressures
  214. Fractionation occurs when _________________.
    A.  some of the blended refrigerant evaporates or condenses before the rest of the blend
    B.  when only a fraction of the total charge has been added to the system
    C.  the operating pressures of the system increase
    D.  Both A & C
    A.  so of the blended refrigerant evaporates or condenses before the rest of the blend
  215. When charging a refrigeration system with a near-azeotropic mixture, what must be done to prevent liquid form entering the system?
    A.  Charge only as a vapor though the high side
    B.  Charge only liquid through the high side
    C.  chared as a liquid through the low side using a restrictor.
    D.  Charge as a vapor through the low side using a resistor.
    C.  Charge as a liquid though the low side using a restrictor.
  216. Charging a refrigeration system refers to  _____________.
    A.  removing refrigerant to a system
    B.  adding refrigerant to a system
    C.  cleaning the refrigerant
    D.  vaporizing the refrigerant
    B.  adding refrigerant to a system
  217. If 22oz of refrigerant are to be added to a refrigeration system and the supply cylinder weights 24 lbs 12 oz before any is added, what will the supply cylinder weight after the system has been charged?
    A.  22 lbs 12 oz
    B.  22 lbs 6 oz
    C.  22 lbs 8 oz
    D.  22 lbs 6 oz
    • D.  22 lbs 6 oz
    • I'm guessing B would be correct too since they are both the same answer.  LOL
  218. If 30 oz of refrigerant are to be added to a refrigeration system and the supply cylinder weights 26 lbs 4 oz before any is added, what will the supply cylinder weigh after the system has been charged?
    A.  22 lbs 8 oz
    B.  24 lbs 6 oz
    C.  24 lbs 8 oz
    D.  22 lbs 4 oz
    B.  24 lbs 6 oz
  219. Refrigerant in liquid form is normally put into the system through the _________________.
    A. liquid line
    B.  suction line
    C.  hot gas line
    D.  liquid return line
    A.  liquid line
  220. Refrigerant in vapor for is normally put into the system through the ______________.
    A.  liquid line
    B.  suction line
    C.  hot gas line
    D.  liquid return line
    B.  suction line
  221. When charging liquid refrigerant from a single valve cylinder the cylinder will become ______________. 
    A.  cold
    B.  very warm
    C.  the same temperature as the ambient air
    A.  cold
  222. When charging liquid refrigerant from a single valve supply cylinder, the cylinder is placed ___________.
    A.  upside down
    B.  right side up
    C.  on its side
    D.  in any position indicated
    A.  upside down
  223. A graduated cylinder charging device is a device that ___________.
    A.  measures refrigerant by volume for precise refrigerant charging.
    B.  has a compensation dial for adjusting for the temperature of the refrigerant
    C.  often has a heater to keep the refrigerant temperature from dropping when refrigerant is released into the system
    D.  all of the above
    D.  all of the above
  224. The factory charge in a split system, using R-22, shows 6 lb 8 oz in the outdoor condensing unit and 2 oz in the evaporator.  The 3/8" liquid line contains 0.48 oz per foot and the 7/8" suction line contains 0.10 oz per foot.  The refrigerant lines are 30' long.  What is the correct refrigerant charge for this system?
    A.  6 lbs 10 oz
    B.  6 lbs 15 oz
    C.  7 lbs 7 oz
    D.  7 lbs 11 oz
    D.  7 lbs 11 oz
  225. Glide is the range of temperature/pressures in which a blended refrigerant will condense.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  226. One good feature of an electronic charging scale is that it counts upward as refrigerant is removed, to tell the technician how much refrigerant was used.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  227. The quickest method to charge a system is to charge only vapor.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    B.  False
  228. When adding refrigerant in vapor form to a refrigeration system, the system motor/compressor assembly is running.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  229. Using a restrictor, liquid refrigerant can be charged into the low-side of the system with the system operating.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  230. A manufacturer's charging chart may be used when available to determine the correct charge for a system.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  231. The charging device that holds refrigerant, has a visible column of liquid, and can be used to "visually" see the amount of refrigerant used is called the ___________________.
    Graduated cylinder
  232. Refrigerant in vapor for is added tot he sytem through the _________________ side of the system.
    low
  233. When the refrigerant cylinder is connected to an operating system, the pressure in the cylinder will be ______________ than the suction pressure of the system.
    higher
  234. As refrigerant vapor is removed from a supply cylinder, the pressure in the supply cylinder will ______________.
    decrease
  235. When a control is required to control space or produce temperature it is called a _____________.
    A.  safety device
    B.  thermostat
    C.  pressure control
    D.  speed control
    B. thermostat
  236. A thermal system overload may occur if a specific electrical or mechanical component is not cooled properly, resulting in _________________.
    A.  underload
    B.  failure
    C.  overheating
    C.  overheating
  237. The control that stops the condensing unit if the head pressure climbs too high is classified as a _______________.
    A.  safety control
    B.  thermostat
    C.  temperature control
    D.  speed control
    A.  safety control
  238. The automatic control of the system is intended to _______________.
    A.  maintain the working conditions of the equipment with a controllable device
    B.  prevent overloading situations
    C.  maintain stable or constant conditions with a controllable device
    C.  maintain stable or constant conditions with a controllable device
  239. What color is the R-134A cylinder?
    light blue
  240. What refrigerant replaced R-12?
    R-134A
  241. What color is R-410A cylinder?
    Rose
  242. What is the heart of the refrigeration cycle?
    The compressor
  243. Which pump is a positive displacement pump?
    reciprocating
  244. What is the order of the brine cycle?
    backwash, brine, rinse, service
  245. What coal has the highest fixed carbon content?
    anthracite
  246. The three "T's" of combustion are?
    • Time
    • Temperature
    • Turbulence
  247. The Btu content for #4 fuel oil is?
    144,000-146,000 Btu
  248. What furnace uses flange and reinforcement rings?
    Adamson Ring Furnance
  249. The metals most commonly used in a bimetal temperature control are ____________.
    A. copper and brass
    B.  copper and steel
    C.  brass and steel
    D.  brass and aluminum
    C.  brass and steel
  250. A thermocouple is a device that ___________.
    A.  converts heat to mechanical movement
    B.  converts heat to current flow
    C.  converts heat to electrical energy
    D.  couples two temperature controls together
    C.  converts heat to electrical energy
  251. The boiling point of water is no affected by boiler pressure.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    B. False
  252. In the closed feedwater heater, steam and water come into direct contact with each other.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    B. False
  253. It is necessary to blow down a boiler if proper feedwater treatment is used.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    B.  False
  254. Both stop and check valves must be installed on the boiler feedwater line.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  255. The discharge outlet size of a safety valve must not be restricted or reduced.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  256. A safety valve discharge line cannot be discharged outside of the boiler room.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    B.  False
  257. In a pop-type safety valve, the huddling chamber is constructed to assist in opening the valve.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  258. If a safety valve leaks after testing, the valve should be fully opened using the test lever.  If the valve continues to leak, the boiler should be removed from the line as soon as possible and the safety valve should be repaired or replaced.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  259. The dry drum method of boiler lay-up requires the boiler to  be opened and air to be circulated to keep the boiler drums and tubes dry.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  260. No, 6 fuel oil burns with a clean flame when it's not heated.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    B.  False
  261. The most common causes of boiler accidents or explosions are low water and insufficient purging of the combustion space.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  262. The dry pipe separator is in the steam and water drum.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  263. The dry pipe separator increases the quality of steam leaving a steam boiler.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  264. A change in water pressure will change the boiling point of water.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  265. The largest heat loss in a boiler is cause by heat being carried with the gases of combustion to the atmosphere.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  266. In a natural draft system, the lowest draft reading is obtain at the furnace.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  267. The main function of a continuous blowdown system is to lower the total concentration of solids in the boiler.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  268. The high and low water level alarm floats are components of the boiler feedwater system.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    B.  False
  269. A calorimeter measures excess air being used for combustion.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    B.  False
  270. When conducting a hydrostatic test, all safety valves are either gagged or removed and blank flanged, and the pressure is increased to 1 1/2 time the MAWP.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  271. Purging a furnace before firing can prevent a furnace explosion.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  272. The forced and induced draft fans on a boiler are the same size and operate at the same speed.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    B.  False
  273. Three methods of heat transfer are radiation, convection and conduction.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  274. Safety valves are located on the uppermost part of the steam and water drum and the outlet of the superheater header.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  275. All boilers are equipped with a water column.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    B.  False
  276. To ensure good heat transfer in a firetube boiler, the outside of the tubes are kept clean by __________.
    A.  soot blowers
    B.  recommended feedwater treatment
    C.  daily surface blwodowns
    D.  overfire air
    B.  recommended feedwater treatment
  277. When economizers are used to heat boiler feedwater, every 10% rise in feedwater temperature is accompanied by a _____% savings in fuel.
    A.  0.25
    B.  1
    C.  5
    D.  10
    B.  1
  278. ______________ is necessary to burn the volatile matter in coal more efficiently.
    A.  Underfire air
    B.  Overfire air
    C.  An increased amount of moisture in coal
    D.  Some anthracite coal
    B. Overfire air
  279. The pour point of fuel oil is the _____________ temperature at which fuel oil will ____________
    A.  lowest; burn
    B.  lowest; flow
    C.  highest; burn
    D.  highest; flow
    B.  lowest; flow
  280. Water hammer in steam lines is caused by ______________.
    A.  low steam pressure
    B.  high steam pressue
    C.  condensation in the line
    D.  a sudden drop in plant load
    C.  condensation in the line
  281. The safety valve on the boiler drum and superheater safety vales of a steam boiler are set so that ______________.
    A.  both drum safety valves open together
    B.  only on drum safety valve opens
    C.  the superheater safety valve opens first
    D.  one drum safety valve opens and then the superheater safety valve opens
    C.  the superheater safety valve opens first
  282. The frequency of blowing down the boiler can best be determined by ______________.
    A.  the boiler operator
    B.  the boiler inspector
    C.  the blowdown meter
    D.  testing the boiler water
    D.  testing the boiler water
  283. To obtain complete combustion of a fuel, ________, ___________, and _____________ are required.
    A.  mixture, atomization; and time
    B.  C02; 02; C0; and C03
    C.  turbulence, feedwater; air; flu gas
    D.  hot refractory; air; draft; gases of combustion
    A.  mixture, atomization; and time
  284. A furnace explosion can be prevented by __________.
    A.  checking the water level once a shift
    B.  testing the safety valves once a month
    C.  purging after ignition failure
    D.  testing the safety valve regularly
    C.  purging after ignition failure
  285. An economizer heats ____________.
    A.  steam
    B.  air for combustion
    C.  fuel oil
    D.  feedwater
    D.  feedwater
  286. The Btu content of natural gas is ____ Btu per____.
    A.  100,000; therm
    B.  100,000; cubic foot
    C.  152.000; therm
    D.  152,000; cubic foot
    A.  100,000; therm
  287. The boiler feedwater stop valve is between the _______ and _______.
    A. boiler; check valve
    B.  check valve; feedwater pump
    C. boiler; feedwater pump
    D.  boiler main header
    A.  boiler; check valve
  288. To test a low water fuel cutoff using an evaporation test, the boiler operator must _______.
    A. open the feedwater stop valve
    B.  secure all of the feedwater going to the boiler
    C.  completely drain the regulator chamber
    D.  have an inspector on hand
    B.  secure all of the feedwater going to the boiler
  289. To prevent a vacuum from forming on a boiler that is coming off-line, ___________.
    A.  open the air dock
    B.  blow down the boiler
    C.  dump the boiler
    D.  pop the safety valve
    A.  open the air dock
  290. Staybolts are most commonly found on _________.
    A.  feedwater heaters
    B.  firetube boilers
    C.  superheater headers
    D.  all modern watertube boilers
    B.  firetube boilers
  291. Overheating of tubes in a watertube boiler is caused by _________ on the ___________ of the tubes.
    A.  scale; inside
    B.  scale; outside
    C.  soot; inside
    D.  soot; outside
    A.  scale; inside
  292. The viscosity of fuel oil is the measurement of the ____________ in the fuel oil.
    A. Btu content
    B.  fire point
    C.  flash point
    D.  internal resistance to flow
    D.  internal resistance to flow
  293. Feedwater is treated chemically before it enters the boiler to ____________________.
    A. prevent foaming
    B. eliminate blowing down the boiler
    C.  change the scale-forming salts to a sludge that will stick to the heating surface, making cleaning easier
    D.  change scale-forming salts to a nonadhearing sludge
    D.  change scale-forming salts to a nonadhearing sludge
  294. Complete combustion is defined as burning all fuel using _____________.
    A.  the theoretical amount of air
    B.  a minimal amount of excess air
    C.  non excess air
    D.  C02 and C0
    B.  a minimal amount of excess air
  295. When testing the safety valve by hand, _______.
    A.  there should be no pressure in the boiler
    B.  notify the boiler inspector
    C.  the boiler should be at least 75% of popping pressure before testing
    D.  first secure the fires
    C.  the boiler should be at least 75% of popping pressure before testing
  296. A boiler steam pressure of 100 psi with a temperature of 500degrees indicates _______________.
    A.  dry steam
    B.  supersaturated steam
    C.  superheated steam
    D.  steam at its corresponding pressure and temperature
    C.  superheated steam
  297. A broken baffle in a watertube boiler causes ___________.
    A.  smoke to come from the chimney
    B.  a rise in chimney temperature
    C.  a drop in chimney temperature
    D.  steam to come from chimney
    B.  a rise in chimney temperature
  298. Before laying up a boiler, the boiler operator must _____________.
    A.  notify the boiler inspector
    B.  remove  the boiler certificate
    C.  thoroughly clean the fire and water sides
    D.  clean only the water side because soot acts as an insulator
    C. thoroughly clean the fire and water sides
  299. While replacing a broken guage with the boiler under pressure, the water level is checked by ____________.
    A.  blowing down the water column
    B.  giving the boiler a bottom blow
    C.  using try cocks
    D.  using air cocks
    C.  using try cocks
  300. A closed feedwater heater is located ______________.
    A.  above the feedwater pump on the discharge side
    B.  above the feedwater pump on the suction side
    C.  in the boiler room
    D.  between the feedwater pump and the boiler
    • A.  above the feedwater pump on the discharge side
    • OR
    • D.  between the feedwater pump and the boiler
  301. To start a turbine pump, the discharge valve should be _______________.
    A.  closed
    B.  opened
    C.  primed
    D.  there is no discharge valve
    B.  opened
  302. To cut a boiler in on a line equipped with hand-operated main steam stop valves, the steam pressure on the incoming boiler should be ______________________.
    A.  slightly lower than line pressure
    B.  slightly higher than line pressure
    C.  equal to line pressure
    D.  no different; pressure will equalize
    A. slightly lower than line pressure
  303. Boiler waterwalls should be blown down _______________.
    A.  daily
    B.  weekly
    C.  when the firebox is cool but the boiler still has pressure
    D.  every six months
    C.  when the firebox is cool but the boiler still has pressure.
  304. Before draining a boiler, the operator should ___________.
    A.  allow the setting to cool
    B.  call the boiler inspector
    C.  open the blowdown valves with 12 psi on the boiler
    D.  us the surface blow
    A.  allow the setting to cool
  305. A safe maximum water concentration of contaminates in steam generators serving low makeup plants is maintained by _____________.
    A.  daily blowdowns
    B.  continuous blowdown
    C.  surface blowdowns
    D.  increased makeup
    B.  continuous blowdown
  306. A vaporstat control is sensitive to ______________.
    A.  pressure
    B.  temperature
    C.  electicity
    D.  infrared rays
    A.  pressure
  307. According to the ASME Code, if a boiler has a MAWP that exceeds 100 psi, the boiler must have ______________ blowdown valve(s).
    A.  2
    B.  0
    C.  1
    D.  3
    A.  2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  308. According to the ASME Code, the minimum size pipe connecting the water column to the boiler is ________".
    A.  1/2
    B.  1
    C.  1 1/2
    D.  2
    B. 1
  309. The air-proving switch attached to the housing of a fully automatic rotary cup burner opens when there is ___________________.
    A.  low oil pressure
    B.  fan failure
    C.  excess primary air
    D.  excess secondary air
    B.  fan failure
  310. For the efficient combustion of pulverized coal, it is necessary to maintain ________.
    A.  50% excess air
    B.  a high furnace temperature
    C.  a low furnace temperature
    D.  positive furnace pressure
    B.  a high furnace temperature
  311. When using  No. 6 fuel oil, the boiler operator must____________.
    A.  blend it with No. 2 fuel oil
    B.  bring it up to its flash point int he tank
    C.  heat the fuel oil as it comes from the fuel oil tank
    D.  No. 6 fuel oil should never be heated
    C.  heat the fuel oil as it comes from the fuel oil tank
  312. The function of the fuel oil burner is to ______________.
    A.  preheat the fuel oil
    B.  pump fuel oil into the firebox
    C.  atomize the fuel oil completely
    D.  pump fuel oil back to the fuel oil tank
    C. atomize the fuel oil completely
  313. In a three-element feedwater regulating system, __________ are measured.
    A.  steam flow, fuel flow, and feedwater flow
    B.  feedwater flow, water leveal, and condensate return
    C.  make up water, condensate return, and water level
    D.  steam flow, feedwater flow, and water level
    D.  steam flow, feedwater flow, and water level
  314. The check valve on the boiler feedwater line _____________.
    A.  controls the flow of feedwater in one direction only
    B.  allows the stop valve to be repaired without dumping the boiler
    C.  allows the water level in the boiler to equalize
    D.  prevents the bottom blowdown from backing into the feedwater lines
    A.  controls the flow of the feedwater in one direction only
  315. Neutral on the pH scale is ___________.
    A.  0
    B.  4
    C.  7
    D.  14
    C.  7
  316. The Bourdon tube in a steam pressure gauge is protected by a _________________.
    A.  steam trap
    B.  siphon
    C.  steam trainer
    D.  stopcock
    B.  siphon
  317. A dry pipe on a boiler ____________.
    A.  removes moisture from steam
    B.  supplies adequate makeup water
    C.  maintains an NOWL
    D.  is used in the event of a fire
    A.  removes moisture from steam
  318. When checking the water level in a steam boiler with try cocks a the NOWL_____________________.
    A.  steam and water flow out of the middle try cock
    B.  water flows out of the top try cock
    C.  steam flows out of the bottom try cock
    D.  steam and water flow out of the top try cock
    A.  steam and water flow out of the middle try cock
  319. In a reciprocating feedwater pump, the __________________
    A.  water piston is larger than the steam piston
    B.  water and steam piston are the same size
    C.  steam piston is larger than the water piston
    D.  steam valve has to be as large and the water valve
    C.  steam piston is larger than the water piston
  320. Scale on a watertube boiler can be removed by
    A.  a steam lance
    B.  a fire hose
    C.  wire brushing
    D.  hydraulic turbine cutters
    D.  hydraulic turbine cutters
  321. The atomization of fuel oil in a rotary cup burner is cause by the ________________.
    A.  rotating cup
    B.  rotating cup and primary air
    C.  pressure of the fuel oil
    D.  secondary and primary air
    B.  rotating cup and primary air
  322. A pyrometer measures _______________
    A.  temperature
    B.  steam pressure
    C.  draft
    D.  the quality of steam leaving the boiler
    A.  temperature
  323. Staybolts are most commonly used in ______________ boilers.
    A.  firetube
    B.  watertube
    C.  bent-tube
    D.  cast iron sectional
    A.  firetube
  324. A dry pipe _____________.
    A.  removes moisture from the steam
    B.  connects the dry drum to the steam and water drum
    C.  increases water circulation
    D.  acts as a receiver
    A.  removes moisture from the steam
  325. A difficulty found when burning pulverized coal is _____________________.
    A.  the formation of slag
    B.  improper pulverization
    C.  furnace design
    D.  inability to meet steam load changes
    A.  the formation of slag
  326. Water conductivity is used to determine which specific impurities are contained in water.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    B.  False
  327. Pretreatment of boiler water occurs inside a boiler.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    B.  False
  328. Scale is teh collection of mineral deposits formed on the heating of surfaces of a boiler.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  329. Bottom blowdown is more effective whit it is used during light loads.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  330. Condensate will absorb oxygen and carbon dioxide as it cools.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  331. A demineralizer replaces all the cations in the inlet water with hydrogen ions.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  332. Continuous blowdown is more effective when it is  used during heavy steaming.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  333. Boiler feedwater can be heated above 212 degrees in a vented heater
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  334. Disolved oxygen can be converted to fee oxygen in a dearator.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  335. The three major types of dearators are the tray, spray, and combination.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  336. A demineralizer is a highly efficient ion-exchange process generally used for low pressure boilers.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    B.  False
  337. Permanent hardness of water may be reduced only by the use of chemicals or distillation.
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  338. Dispersants prevent solids in boiler water from sticking together to form deposits
    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  339. Scale deposits are prevented from forming in boiler water by:
    A.  converting scale-forming minerals to suspended solids
    B.  dissolving scale forming minerals
    C.  keeping scale-forming minerals out of the water
    D.  removing scale-forming minerals with direct constant heating
    A.  convering scale-forming minerals to suspented solids
  340. Why is carbon dioxide gas disolved in boiler water dangerous to a modern steam boiler?
    A.  because it forms carbonic acid
    B.  because it breaks the magnetic iron oxide film inside the boiler tubes
    C.  because it combines with sulfates to cause pitting
    D.  because it combines with oxygen to cause scaleing of the tubes
    A.  because it forms carbonic acid
  341. The three basic classifications of impurities found in natural water are:
    A.  dissolved solids, suspended gases, suspended solids
    B.  suspened gases, suspended solids, dessolved gases
    C.  dissoved solids, dissolved gases, suspended solid
    D.  none of the above
    C.  dissoved solids, dissolved gases, suspended solid
  342. An anion is an atom with a _________ electrical charge.
    A.  positive
    B.  neutral
    C.  negative
    D.  none of the above
    C.  negative
  343. What types of waterside deposits are removed by boiling out a boiler?
    A.  corrosion deposits
    B.  high temperature oxides
    C.  oil and grease
    D.  sludge
    C. oil and grease
  344. Excess oxygen present in the boiler water would be a direct indication of:
    1.  air leakage into the condensate through turbine glands
    2.  Improper operation of the dearating feedwater tank
    A.  1 only
    B.  2 only
    C.  both 1 & 2
    D.  Neither
    B.  2 only
  345. Why do you add phosphates to the boiler water?
    A.  reduces alkalinity
    B.  forms harmless sludge from scale forming salts.
    C.  reduces oxygen impingement
    D.  forms a phosphate protection layer on all drum internals
    B.  forms harmless sludge from scale forming salts.
  346. Which of the most common gases which become dissolved in the boiler water will cause corrosion in the internals of the boiler?
    A.  oxygen and CO
    B.  oxygen and nitrogen
    C.  oxygen and ammonia
    D.  oxygen and CO2
    D.  oxygen and CO2
  347. Hardness of water is the measurement in ppm of _________ and __________ in the water.
    A.  hydrogen and oxygen
    B.  cations and anions
    C.  calcium and magnesium
    D.  none of the above
    C.  calcium and magnesium
  348. Which of the following best describes titration:
    A.  a proceedure of neutralizing an unknown solution with a reagent of a known quantity
    B.  The point at which amineization of the boiler water test sample occurs
    C.  an indication of harness of the boiler
    D.  a measure of the chloride content is a sample of boiler water 
    A.  a proceedure of neutralizing an unknown solution with a reagent of a known quantity
  349. What effect does temperature and pressure have on the activity of oxygen entrained in boiler feedwater?
    A.  oxygen is more active with high pressure and temperature
    B.  oxygen activity remains the same at high temperatures and pressures
    C.  oxygen is less active with high pressure and temperature
    D.  oxygen is more soluble at high temperatures and pressures
    C.  oxygen is less active with high pressure and temperature
  350. Entrained oxygen in feed-water entering the boilder would cause:
    A.  caustic embrittlement
    B.  honeycombing
    C.  localized pitting
    D.  erosion
    C.  localized pitting
  351. A ________ amine is injected into a boiler during operation to raise the pH of the condensate.
    A.  filming
    B.  neutralizing
    C.  ecological
    D.  hydrazine
    B.  neutralizing
  352. The conductivity of the mak-up water is 390 micromhos.  The conductiving fo the feedwater is  180 micromhos, and the conductivity of the condensate is 45 micromhos.  What is the percentage of condensate return?
    A.  1.64
    B.  60.9
    C.  76.3
    D.  80.6
    B.  60.9

    • FORMULA:  RC= MC-FC x100 
    •                        MC-CC
    •                        
    •                        390 - 180 x100
    •                        390 - 45
  353. _______________ is a condition in which a boiler metal becomes too brittle because of crystalline cracking.
    A.  phenolphthalein alkalinity
    B.  caustice solubility
    C.  alkaline embrittlement
    D.  caustic embrittlement
    D.  caustic embrittlement

  354. The order in which a sodium zeolite water softner regenerates is:
    A.  rinse, backwash, brine
    B.  rinse, brine, rinse
    C.  backwash, brine, rinse
    D.  backwash, brine, backwash
    C.  backwash, brine, rinse
  355. Silt an algae are examples of ____________ found as impuriteis in natural water.
    A.  dissolved gases
    B.  dissolved solids
    C.  suspended solids
    D.  suspended gases
    C.  suspended solids
  356. Natural water generally has a pH of approimately _____ to _____.
    A.  3.5 - 4.5
    B.  4.5 - 5.5
    C.  5.5 - 6.5
    D.  6.5 - 7.5
    D.  6.5 - 7.5
  357. Temporary hardness of water may be reduced by _______ the water.
    A.  chilling
    B.  heating
    C.  aerating
    D.  none of the above
    B.  heating
  358. The dry layup method is used for _________ boiler storage.
    A.  24 hr
    B.  short term
    C.  long term
    D.  none of the above
    C.  long term
  359. Two testing instruments used to determine the quantity of dissolved iron in a water sample are the color wheel comparator and the __________.
    A.  titrator
    B.  spectrophotometer
    C.  ion exchanger
    D.  demineralizer
    B.  spectrophotometer
  360. Scale-forming impurities become concentrated in the boiler water by ______________.
    A.  solidfication as the water temperature increases
    B.  evaporation as the water boils off
    C.  Both A & B
    D.  Neither
    C.  Both A & B
  361. Accepted boiler water treatment involves repeated blowdown, adding chelants to form soluble sludges from magnesium, calcium and iron preventing corrosion and adding:
    A.  calcium sulfate to reduce foaming
    B.  sodium sulfite to remove oxygen
    C.  sodium chloride to prevent sludge
    D.  soda ash to decrease the alkalinity
    B.  sodium sulfite to remove oxygen
  362. A ___________ test is a test that determines the concentration of a specific dissolved substance.
    A.  reverse osmosis
    B.  conductivity
    C.  residual
    D.  titration
    D.  titration
  363. What is the conversion factor for converting grains per gallon to parts per million?
    A.  .491
    B.  7.2
    C.  17.1
    D.  32.8
    C.  17.1
  364. Where is sludge most likely to be formed?
    A.  downcomers
    B.  floor tubes
    C.  risers
    D.  generating tubes
    B.  floor tubes
  365. Which of the following minerals or mineral compounds dissolve in boiler water and form hard scale on the interior of the boilder tubes?
    A.  calcium and magnesium
    B.  magnesium and carbonate
    C.  carbonate and sulfate
    D.  sulfate and silica
    D.  sulfate and silica
  366. As water is heated, the solubility of oxygen ____________.
    A.  increases
    B.  decreases
    C.  remains constant
    D.  increases until the boiling point is reached, than decreases
    B.  decreases
  367. Where does dissolved CO2 in the boilder feedwater cause corrosion?
    A.  condensate system
    B.  superheater tubes
    C.  boiler tubes
    D.  desuperheater tubes
    A.  condensate system
  368. The end point in titrating a boiler water sample is the point at which"
    A.  the buret reads zero
    B.  titration stops
    C.  the sample is neutral
    D.  the sample becomes saturated
    C.  the sample is neutral
  369. A commonly used chemical oxygen scavenger is ________________.
    Sodium Sulfire
  370. Cycles of _____________ measure the concentration of the solids in the boilder water compared to the concentration of the solids in the feedwater.
    concentration
  371. High ________ in boiler water contributes to the formation of CO2.
    Alkalinity
  372. ________ keeps the hardness in boiler water in solution so that it cannot settle out on the heating surfaces.
    Chelants
  373. ____________ causes hardness particles in boiler water to precipitate as heavy sludge that is removed through the bottom blow.
    Phospates
  374. A ____________ is a chemical used in water treatment teste to show the presence of a particular substance.
    Titrator

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