Shotgun Questions Day 11

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Author:
rossmelder
ID:
223036
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Shotgun Questions Day 11
Updated:
2013-06-08 19:24:14
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Shotgun Questions Day 11
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Shotgun Questions Day 11
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  1. 1.  What is the engines shaft horsepower rating?
    A: 1100
  2. 2.  How does air enter the engine?
    A:   Through the rear
  3. 3.  What are the two engine sections?
    A: Gas generator and power turbine
  4. 4.  What is the capacity of the oil system?
    A: 18 quarts (18.5 mod)
  5. 5.  Oil level must be serviced to MAX HOT within ___ minutes.
    A: 30
  6. 6.  The red OIL PX annunciator will illuminate when the oil pressure falls below: 
    A:   40 psi with engine above idle, 15 psi at idle
  7. 7.  What is the propeller operating speed?
    A: 2000 rpm
  8. 8.  With the PMU functioning the mechanical overspeed governor limits Np to:
    A:  below 106%
  9. 9.  The electronic governor will maintain Np below:
    A: 100%
  10. 10. If the PMU is off the mechanical overspeed governor will limit Np to:
    A: 100±2
  11. 11. What is the position of the propeller if the engine fails and the PCL is out of cutoff?
    A:  It will eventually feather
  12. 12. The PMU receives its power from?
    A: the PMA
  13. 13. N1 is _____ in ground mode and _________ in flight mode.  
    A:  60%, 67%
  14. 14.  Why would the PMU abort a start?
    A:  Hot, hung, or no start.
  15. 15.  Prior to reaching High key maintain a minimum of ____ knots.  
    A: 125
  16. 15.  High key is located ___ way down the runway at ______ feet agl.
    A: 1/3, 3,000, 2,500 minimum
  17. 16.  The target altitude and airspeed for low key is:
    A:  1500 feet agl 120 knots
  18. 17.  Base key is ____ feet agl.  
    A:  600-800
  19. 18.  For no wind planning, the aircraft should glide ____ miles for every _____ feet of 
    •        altitude lost.
    • A:  2, 1,000
  20. 19. Expect to lose ____feet for a 30˚ bank turn, _____ feet for a 45˚ bank turn, and _____ 
    •       feet for a 60˚ bank turn.  
    • A:  2,000, 1,500, 1,000
  21. 20. Intercept final a minimum of ______ feet from the intended point of touchdown
    A:  1000
  22. 21.  Maintain ____ knots on final until beginning the transition to landing.
    A:  110
  23. 22.  Do not slow below ___ knots until over a suitable landing area.
    A:  95
  24. 23.  What is the difference between a PEL and an SFL?
    A:  Power is available for a PEL
  25. 24.  What is the recommended weather for a forced landing?
    A:  2,000, 3
  26. 25.  What is the glide ratio for a high speed ELP?  
    A:  1:1
  27. 26.  When should you switch to Eastside frequency?
    A: passing last row of T-6s or T-38s
  28. 27.  Is it acceptable to overshoot the extended runway centerline during VFR conditions
    A:  No
  29. 28: What are the specs of the PMA?  
    A: 32VAC
  30. 29.  If the PMA fails where does the PMU receive power?  
    A: 28V Batt Buss
  31. 1.  What is the maximum crosswind component for T-6 full stops?  Touch and Go’s? Solo/Formation Wing? Wet? Ice?
    A:  25;  A:  20;  A:  15;  A:  10;  A:  5.
  32. 2.  When must an IP acknowledge the students “gear clear” call prior to the student raising the gear?  
    A: presolo contact sorties
  33. 3.  When the crosswind exceeds ____ knots, aircrews should use UP or TO flaps.  
    A: 10
  34. 4.  LDG flaps should be used for full stop landings when landing distance is greater than or equal to _____ of runway length.  
    A:  80%
  35. 5.  On a low approach how low are you authorized to go before initiating a go-around?
    A:  do not allow the aircraft to touch down
  36. 6.  When a restricted low approach is directed how low are you allowed to descend?  
    A: 500 AGL or as specified by the controller

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