Exam 3 Chapter 17

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Exam 3 Chapter 17
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2013-06-12 19:58:49
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Exam 3 Chapter 17
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  1. What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases?

    A) variolation
    B) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins
    C) immune testing
    D) active immunization by vaccination
    E) autoimmunization
    D) active immunization by vaccination
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. The discovery and use of _____ have greatly decreased the mortality and morbidity of infectious diseases.
    A) antitoxoids
    B) immunoglobulins
    C) interferons
    D) chemotaxic substances
    E) interleukins
    B) immunoglobulins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Variolation was first used 
    A) to spread smallpox throughout the Native American populations
    B) to immunize the Chinese against smallpox
    C) to treat individuals exposed to hepatitis
    D) for research purposes in the 20th century
    E) to protect individuals against the plague during the Middle Ages
    B) to immunize the Chinese against smallpox
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Which of the following statements regarding variolation is false?
    A) it reduced the incidence of smallpox
    B) at the time no one knew how it worked
    C) it involves grinding smallpox scabs
    D) it was administered to children as early as the 12th century
    E) it was risk free
    E) it was risk free
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against 
    A) influenza
    B) anthrax
    C) human cholera
    D) anthrax and rabies
    E) rabies
    D) anthrax and rabies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. A vaccine is currently available which of the following microbes?
    A) poliovirus
    B) the protozoan that causes malaria
    C) Ebola virus
    D) the bacterium that causes leprosy
    E) HIV
    A) poliovirus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by
    A) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde
    B) treatment with formaldehyde
    C) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells
    D) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in the tissue culture cells
    E) genetic manipulation 
    D) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in the tissue culture cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. 8) The vaccine against smallpox developed by Edward Jenner is and example of a(n)_____ vaccine.
    A) toxoid
    B) subunit
    C) attenuated
    D) combination
    E) whole inactivated
    C) attenuated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is false?
    A) it is safer than an attenuated vaccine
    B) it is made from mutated forms of the pathogen
    C) it can be produced with deactivated whole microorganisms
    D) it can be produced from antigens fragments of a pathogen
    E) it is made from pathogens that cannot replicate
    B) it is made from mutated forms of the pathogen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. An adjuvant is a substance that
    A) increases the effective antigenicity of a pathogen
    B) is used to inactivate a microbe in a vaccine
    C) is used to decrease the inflammatory reaction to a vaccine
    D) delays the action of the vaccine
    E) is a piece of a microbe that is representative if the entire microorganism
    A) increases the effective antigenicity of a pathogen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Killed vaccines work by stimulating
    A) the action of Th1 cells
    B) the cell-mediated immune response
    C) the production of antibodies
    D) cytotxic T cells
    E) lymphocyte proliferation
    C) the production of antibodies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes?
    A) aluminum phosphate
    B) aluminum
    C) formaldehyde
    D) mineral oil
    E) saponin
    C) formaldehyde
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. 13) What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine?
    A) attenuated vaccine
    B) toxoid vaccine
    C) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde 
    D) a vaccine composed of only a single antigen of the hepatitis virus
    E) inactivated whole pathogen
    D) a vaccine composed of only a single antigen of the hepatitis virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Which of the following statements regarding toxoids is FALSE?
    A) they stimulate antibody medicated immune responses
    B) they have few antigenic determinants
    C) they are produced against the toxin of the microorganism rather than the microorganism itself
    D) they provide lifelong immunity 
    E) they are chemically or thermally modified
    D) they provide lifelong immunity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lab for many generations. A preparation of the laboratory grown microbe is treated with ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this?
    A) combination vaccine
    B) toxoid vaccine
    C) inactivated whole
    D) subunit vaccine
    E) attenuated vaccine
    C) inactivated whole
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. OPV, the attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine, is no longer administered in the USA because
    A) it can cause severe anaphylaxis in some individuals
    B) it is very toxic
    C) it can revert to the wild-type strain
    D) the site administered remains sore for many days after administration
    E) it does not provide good immunity
    C) it can revert to the wild-type strain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. A person who has been exposed to rabies received both HRIG (human rabies immunoglobulin) injected near the bite site and the rabies vaccine. What does this strategy represent?
    A) active immunization
    B) viral hemagglutination inhibition
    C) passive immunotherapy
    D) active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy
    E) passive immunotherapy combined with viral hemagglutination inhibition
    D) active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Passive immunotherapy is used when
    A) the microorganism can be genetically manipulated 
    B) protection against a recent infection or disease is needed immediately 
    C) the pathogen does not produce a toxin
    D) the attenuated live vaccine is too difficult to produce
    E) a representative antigen for the microbe cannot be isolated
    B) protection against a recent infection or disease is needed immediately
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Antivenin is
    A) an antitoxin used to treat snakebites
    B) a vaccine made toward the endtoxin of a virus
    C) an antiserum produced from hybridomas
    D) an antigen produced from a virus
    E) a vaccine produced against the endotoxin of a bacterium
    A) an antitoxin used to treat snakebites
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Hydridomas are produced by
    A) combining a viral infected celdd with a bacterial infected cell
    B) combining two virus-infected cells
    C) fusing plasma cells with myeloma cells
    D) repreated culture of a pathogen until it loses it virulence
    E) combining two bacterial infected cells
    C) fusing plasma cells with myeloma cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. The study and diagnosis of antigen-antibody interactions in the blood is known as
    A) serology
    B) hematology
    C) histology
    D) cytology
    E) immunology
    A) serology
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Which of the following diagnostic procedures depends on precipitation of an antigen-antibody complex?
    A) fluorescent antibody tests
    B) viral hemagglutination inhibition tests used to diagnose viral infections
    C) blood typing
    D) ELISA
    E) immunodiffusion
    E) immunodiffusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Which of the following tests is used to verify the presence of antibodies against the HIV virus?
    A) electrophoresis
    B) the western blot test
    C) the complement fixation test
    D) the fluorescent antibody test
    E) an antibody neutralization test
    B) the western blot test
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Which of the following tests is most effective in determining whether someone has been infected with the H1N1 influenza virus?
    A) an antibody titer test
    B) a viral hemagglutnation test
    C) a viral neutralization test
    D) an immunodiffusion test
    E) a western blot
    B) a viral hemagglutnation test
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Tuberculosis may be diagnosed using
    A) complement fixation
    B) a viral hemagglutination test
    C) a direct fluorescent antibody test
    D) immunoelectrophoresis
    E) a western blot test
    C) a direct fluorescent antibody test
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. The type of ELISA that is an indirect assay
    A) detects the presence of a particular antibody
    B) uses a fluorescent label
    C) is used as a second verification test for HIV
    D) involves an antigen "sandwiched" between two anitbodies
    E) relies on the presence of complement
    A) detects the presence of a particular antibody
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Titration is a serological procedure that
    A) detemines the amount of an antibody in the blood
    B) must be done before the western blot test to diagnose HIV
    C) has been replaced by genetic engineering in isolating the antigen of a pathogen
    D) is used for blood grouping
    E) inde tifies the causative microbe of an infectious disease
    A) detemines the amount of an antibody in the blood
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Viral neutralization testing is based on the fact that
    A) the gene for a pathogen's antigen can be isolated and introduced into a host cell by way of a plasmid
    B) antibodies have different molecular weights
    C) antibodies can be produced against the toxin of a pathogen
    D) viruses introduced into appropriate cell cultures have a cytopathic effect
    E) antibodies to certain microbes can be given a fluorescent label
    D) viruses introduced into appropriate cell cultures have a cytopathic effect
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae can be detected in specimens by the
    A) complement fication test
    B) ELISA test
    C) indirect fluorescent antibody test
    D) direct fluorescent antibody test
    E) hemagglutination test
    C) indirect fluorescent antibody test
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Which of the following statements regarding ELISAs is true
    A) they require large amounts of serum
    B) they involve the use of membrane filters
    C) they are labor intensive
    D) the antibody label is a fluorescent molecule
    E) they can be used to detect antibody or antigen
    E) they can be used to detect antibody or antigen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which of the following is the technique used for detecting antibodies against multiple antigens in a complex mixture?
    A) hemagglutination inhibition test
    B) the Ouchterlony test
    C) the western blot test
    D) the ELISA
    E) the direct fluorescent antibody test
    C) the western blot test
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Scientists commonly use radial immunodiffusion testing to 
    A) diagnose HIV
    B) measure the concentration od specifc antibodies in a person's serum
    C) inactive an endogenous bacterial toxin
    D) diagnose tuberculosis because the diameter of the wheel corresponds to the severity of the infection
    E) diagnose infections by specific strains of viruses
    B) measure the concentration od specifc antibodies in a person's serum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. In precipitation tests, maximun precipitation takes place when
    A) a complex solution of many antibodies is used
    B) the amount of the antigen exceeds the amount of the antibody
    C) the amount of the antibody and the amount of the antigen are at optimal proportions
    D) a toxin is present
    E) the amount of the anitbody exceeds the amount of the antigen
    C) the amount of the antibody and the amount of the antigen are at optimal proportions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hgc hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormose produce two lines on the test strip what specific type of immunoassay does this represent?
    A) an Ouchterlony test
    B) a neutralization assay
    C) an immunochromatographic assay
    D) a complemnt fixation test
    E) an ELISA
    C) an immunochromatographic assay
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBC's and antibodies against the RBC's are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be
    A) a cloudy solution in the tube
    B) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube
    C) loss of color in the tube
    D) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs
    E) a fluorescent precipitate
    A) a cloudy solution in the tube
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. The vaccine to prevent tetnus is a(n)________vaccine.
    A) toxoid
    B) inactivated whole
    C) recombinant
    D) subunit
    E) attenuated
    A) toxoid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Pneumococcal pneumonia can be prevented using a(n) ________ vaccine.
    A) attenuated
    B) toxoid
    C) subunit
    D) recombinant
    E) inactivated whole
    C) subunit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. A(n) _____ vaccine is used in some parts of the world to reduce the spread of tuberculosis.
    A) inactivated whole
    B) toxoid
    C) subunit
    D) recombinant
    E) attenuated
    E) attenuated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Louis Pasteur developed a(n) ________ vaccine to prevent anthrax.
    A) subunit
    B) attenuated
    C) recombinant
    D) toxoid
    E) inactivated whole
    E) inactivated whole
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. A(n) _______ vaccine to prevent cervical cancer was recently developed.
    A) recombinant
    B) attenuated
    C) subunit
    D) inactivated whole
    E) toxoid 
    A) recombinant
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Exposure to HIV can be verified using a(n) ______assay.
    A) direct fluorescent antibody
    B) viral neutralization
    C) immunodeficient precipitation 
    D) western blot
    E) viral hemagglutination inhibition
    D) western blot
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. A(n) ______assay is effective in verifying influenza infections.
    A) western blot
    B) viral neutralization
    C) direct fluorescent antibody
    D) immunodiffusion precipitation
    E) viral hemagglutination inhibition
    E) viral hemagglutination inhibition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Rabies virus can be detected using a(n)_____assay.
    A) viral hemagglutination inhibition
    B) viral neutralization
    C) immunodiffusion precipitation
    D) direct fluorescent antibody
    E) western blot
    D) direct fluorescent antibody
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. A(n)______assay is used to detect hantavirus.
    A) western blot
    B) immunodiffusion precipitation
    C) viral neutralization
    D) direct fluorescent antibody
    E) viral hemagglutination inhibition
    C) viral neutralization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Edward Jenner was the physician who first used cowpox to vaccinate individuals against smallpox.
    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  46. For some bacterial diseases such as tetanus, it is more effective to produce an immune response against the bacterial toxin than against the bacteria.
    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  47. In the body, phagocyte cells easily remove small immune complexes.
    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  48. Complement fixation is a more sensitive test than agglutination.
    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  49. The virulence of the rabies virus is increased by prolonged culture in rabbit spinal cells.
    A) True
    B) False
    B) False

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