Exam 3 Chapter 19

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Exam 3 Chapter 19
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2013-06-12 22:30:14
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Exam 3 Chapter 19
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  1. The skin is an effective barrier against invading microbes because
    A) the outer layers of cells are dead
    B) it is well supplied with blood vessels to flush microbes from the surface.
    C) the surface is covered in salt.
    D) no microbes are able to survive on the surface.
    E) the outer layers are dead and covered in salt.
    E) the outer layers are dead and covered in salt.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Normal skin microbiota are able to grow on the skin because of their resistance to
    A) salt
    B) sebum
    C) sebum, salt, and keratin
    D) keratin
    E) sebum and salt
    E) sebum and salt
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. An infection of a hair follicle at the base of an eyelid is called a
    A) carbuncle
    B) pimple
    C) furuncle
    D) macule
    E) sty
    E) sty
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. One feature that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci is its
    A) coagulase production
    B) beta-lactamase production
    C) production of both coagulase and beta-lactamase
    D) production of both a slime layer and coagulase
    E) slime layer production
    C) production of both coagulase and beta-lactamase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Virulent strains of Staphylococcus aureus can resist penicillin because they produce
    A) staphylokinase
    B) beta-lactamase
    C) coagulase
    D) a slime layer
    E) lipase
    B) beta-lactamase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which of the following is a complication that may result from a Streptococcus pyogenes skin infection?
    A) scalded skin syndrome
    B) erysipelas
    C) a carbuncle
    D) shingles
    E) a sty
    B) erysipelas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Impetigo can be caused by
    A) Streptococcus pyogenes
    B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
    C) both Staphylococcus epidermidis and Streptococcus pyogenes
    D) Staphylococcus aureus
    E) both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
    E) both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is caused by 
    A) coagulase
    B) lipase
    C) staphylokinase
    D) exfoliative toxins
    E) beta-lactamase
    D) exfoliative toxins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. The common name for a furuncle is 
    A) a boil
    B) a wart
    C) a sty
    D) acne
    E) a rash
    A) a boil
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by 
    A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    B) both Streptococcus pyogenes ans Staphylococcus aureus
    C) Staphylococcus aureus
    D) Streptococcus pyogenes
    E) Rickettsia rickettsii
    B) both Streptococcus pyogenes ans Staphylococcus aureus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. A specific wavelength of blue light can be used to treat
    A) acne
    B) RMSF
    C) bacteremia
    D) swimmer's ear
    E) cat scratch fever
    A) acne
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Cat scratch disease is caused by
    A) Streptococcus pyogenes
    B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    C) Staphylococcus aureus
    D) Bartonella henselae
    E) Rickettsia rickettsii
    D) Bartonella henselae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Anthrax derives its name from which of the following aspects of the disease?
    A) the shape of B. anthracis colonies on agar
    B) the microscopic appearance of its cells
    C) the appearance of eschars on the skin
    D) the shape of its endospores
    E) the necessity of burning animals killed by the disease
    C) the appearance of eschars on the skin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. The resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide variety of antimicrobial drugs is due, in part, to its
    A) ability to grow in almost any moist environment
    B) production of pyocyanin
    C) ability to utilize a wide range of carbon and nitrogen sources
    D) production of exoenzyme S.
    E) ability to pump drugs out of the cell
    E) ability to pump drugs out of the cell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Petechiae are subcutaneous hemorrhages associated with which of the following?
    A) herpes gladiatorum
    B) necrotizing fasciitis
    C) anthrax
    D) smallpox
    E) RMSF
    E) RMSF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Transovarian transmission is a process by which
    A) a pathogen is transmitted from an infected male to a healthy female during mating
    B) a pathogen is transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated eggs
    C) a pathogen is spread from host to host by unprotected sexual intercourse
    D) a pathogen infects the ovaries of its host
    E) an infected female vector transmits a pathogen to the eggs in its ovaries
    E) an infected female vector transmits a pathogen to the eggs in its ovaries
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. What is the pathogenic process underlying Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
    A) stimulation of a strong immune response
    B) interference with host cell metabolism
    C) formation of biofilms in host tissues
    D) damage to blood vessels
    E) cellular damage via potent exotoxins
    D) damage to blood vessels
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. "Pox" is a term synonymous with which of the following?
    A) a vesicle
    B) a pustule
    C) a whitlow
    D) a papule
    E) a macule
    B) a pustule
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Smallpox was the first human disease to be
    A) identified as a viral disease
    B) globally eradicated
    C) analyzed and studied on the genetic level
    D) re-created in an experimental animal
    E) treated with antiviral drugs
    B) globally eradicated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Clostridium perfringens is a strict anaerobe that is a common environmental contaminant and consequently of wounds due to its ability to
    A) produce hyaluronidase
    B) grown in an insect vector
    C) produce endospores
    D) form biofilms
    E) invade cells
    C) produce endospores
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Acyclovir is a chemotherapeutic agent used to treat
    A) herpes
    B) anthrax
    C) smallpox
    D) measles
    E) acne
    A) herpes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Shingles, or herpes zoster, is caused by the same virus that causes
    A) German measles
    B) measles
    C) whitlows
    D) chickenpox
    E) smallpox
    D) chickenpox
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Common skin warts are the result of infection with
    A) coxsackieviruses
    B) poxviruses
    C) moriliviruses
    D) papillomaviruses
    E) herpesviruses
    D) papillomaviruses
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Some strains of Papillomavirus are oncogenic due to their ability to
    A) integrate into the host cell DNA
    B) cause extensive damage to blood vessels
    C) produce deoxyribonucleases
    D) lie dormant in cells for years
    E) escape the phagosome before lysosome fusion
    A) integrate into the host cell DNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Erythema infectiosum is also known as
    A) three-day measles
    B) herpangina
    C) roseola
    D) rubeola
    E) fifth disease
    E) fifth disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Which of the following can cause birth defects?
    A) roseola
    B) chickenpox
    C) smallpox
    D) rubella
    E) measles
    D) rubella
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing?
    A) herpes zoster : genital warts
    B) measles : rubeola
    C) HHV-6 : roseola
    D) variola : smallpox
    E) German measles : rubella
    A) herpes zoster : genital warts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which of the following is becoming rarer as a result of childhood vaccinations?
    A) impetigo
    B) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
    C) neonatal herpes
    D) warts
    E) roseola
    B) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. "Ringworm" is caused by 
    A) parasitic worms that infect the skin
    B) dermatophytes growing in upper dead tissue layers of the skin
    C) dermatophytes that have invaded deep layers of the skin
    D) a hypersensitivity reaction caused by superficial contact with dermatophytes
    E) immunosuppression due to HIV infection
    B) dermatophytes growing in upper dead tissue layers of the skin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Ultraviolet illumination is the quickest way to diagnose infections of which of the following?
    A) Leishmania sp.
    B) Pseudallescheria
    C) Malassezia furfur
    D) Piedraia hortae
    E) Sarcoptes scabiei
    C) Malassezia furfur
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Sporotrichosis is more commonly known as
    A) ringworm
    B) scabies
    C) rose-gardener's disease
    D) herpangina
    E) white piedra
    C) rose-gardener's disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. A man is suffering severe foot pain in the area of what looks like a large wart. He reports he has had the wart for some time, and the pain and swelling have developed slowly. A sample from the lesion shows that the pus contains large cells that stain a golden brown color. The man is likely suffering from
    A) necrotizing fasciitis
    B) chromblasomyosis
    C) mycetoma
    D) phaeohyphomycosis
    E) sporotrichosis
    B) chromblasomyosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. A child complains of intensely itchy "pimples" on the hands and wrists. The lesions are small inflamed streaks, but do not appear to contain pus. The child's condition may be the result of infection with
    A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
    B) Sarcoptes scabiei
    C) Clostridium perfringens
    D) Sporothrix schenkii
    E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    B) Sarcoptes scabiei
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Which of the following forms of leishmaniasis is typically fatal?
    A) both cutaneous and mucocutaneous are frequently fatal
    B) cutaneous
    C) visceral, mucocutaneous, and cutaneous are all potentially fatal
    D) visceral
    E) mucocutaneous
    D) visceral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. A small puncture wound on a woman's arm has become swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful. There is tissue necrosis, but it is not "gassy," and under the microscope Gram-positive cocci in chains are present. Which of the following microbes is likely to be responsible?
    A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    B) Clostridium perfringens
    C) Streptococcus pyogenes
    D) Staphylococcus aureus
    E) Sporothrix schenckii
    C) Streptococcus pyogenes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. A pigment produced by an opportunistic pathogen that contributes to tissue damage is
    A) streptokinase
    B) hyaluronidase
    C) lipase
    D) pyocyanin
    E) M protein
    D) pyocyanin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Which of the following is/are anti-phagocytic?
    A) protein A
    B) leukocidin
    C)protein A, M protein, and lekocidin
    D) M protein
    E)both protein A and M protein
    C)protein A, M protein, and lekocidin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Which of the following bacterial pathogens is an intracellular parasite?
    A) Bacillus anthracis
    B) Propionibacterium acnes
    C) Bartonella henselae
    D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    E) Clostridium perfringens
    C) Bartonella henselae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. The rash described as "teardrops on rose petals" is characteristic of 
    A) smallpox
    B) herpes
    C) chickenpox
    D) anthrax
    E) warts
    C) chickenpox
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. A child has a rash on the face, arms, upper legs and torso that is splotchy, and intensifies after being in the sun. The child does not complain of fever or itchiness. The signs and symptoms are consistent with
    A) chickenpox
    B) roseola
    C) scabies
    D) fifth disease
    E) cat scratch disease
    D) fifth disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. A sample from an abscess is stained and examined under the microscope. A Gram stain appears uniformly pink, but a GMS (Gomori methenamine sliver) stain reveals brownish filaments in the sample. These findings suggest
    A) phaeohyphomycosis
    B) dermatophytosis
    C) necrotizing fasciitis
    D) sporotrichosis
    E) leishmaniasis
    A) phaeohyphomycosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is fatal in 100% of untreated cases.
    a) True
    b) False
    b) False
  43. Clostridium perfringens causes necrotizing fasciitis.
    a) True
    b) False
    b) False
  44. M protein is a virulence factor associated with group A streptococci.
    a) True
    b) False
    a) True
  45. Humans are the only hosts of Rickettsia rickettsii.
    a) True
    b) False
    b) False
  46. Because they are common soil saprobes, dermatophytes are fungi that are not contagious in humans.
    a) True
    b) False
    b) False
  47. Chromoblastomycosis is rarely a severe disease and can be treated easily with appropriate drugs.
    a) True
    b) False
    b) False
  48. Smallpox vaccination was originally discontinued in the 1980's because of adverse effects of the vaccine.
    a) True
    b) False
    a) True
  49. Herpesvirus infections can be controlled with chemotherapeutic agents.
    a) True
    b) False
    a) True
  50. In pregnant women, roseola infection can result in teratogenic birth defects.
    a) True
    b) False
    b) False

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