Exam 4 Chapter 22

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Dario
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Exam 4 Chapter 22
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2013-06-17 19:00:36
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Exam 4 Chapter 22
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  1. Which of the following is part of the upper respiratory system?
    A) bronchi
    B) trachea
    C) pharynx
    D) larynx
    E) alveoli
    C) pharynx
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Which of the following is considered part of the microbiota of the lower respiratory system?
    A) Haemophilus influenzae
    B) Pneumocystis jiroveci
    C) Streptococcus pyogenes
    D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    E) Staphylococcus aureus
    B) Pneumocystis jiroveci
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. The designation "group A," used to help classify Streptococcus pyogenes, refers to this bacterium's 
    A) disease associations
    B) hemolysis pattern
    C) type of streptokinase produced
    D) M protein
    E) Lancefield antigen
    E) Lancefield antigen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Which of the following allows group A streptococci to spreat through tissues by breaking down blood clots?
    A) streptolysin
    B) streptokinase
    C) pyrogenic toxin
    D) M proteins
    E) a hyaluronic acid capsule
    B) streptokinase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Which of the following is associated with some cases of streptococcal pharyngitis?
    A) acute glomerulonephritis, scarlet fever and rheumatic fever
    B) rheumatic fever
    C) both scarlet fever and rheumatic fever
    D) scarlet fever
    E) acute glomerulonephritis
    A) acute glomerulonephritis, scarlet fever and rheumatic fever
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which of the following Streptococcus pyogenes virulence factors decreases leukocyte movement into an infected area?
    A) streptolysins
    B) C5a peptidase
    C) pyrogenic toxins
    D) streptokinases
    E) the hyaluronic acid capsule
    B) C5a peptidase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Pathogenic streptococci of the upper respiratory tract (such as Streptococcus pyogenes) are distinguished from non-pathogenic streptococci by
    A) beta hemolytic activity
    B) the absece of a capsule
    C) alpha hemolytic activity
    D) the presence of a lysogenic phage
    E) no hemolytic activity
    A) beta hemolytic activity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. What is the primary determinant of virulence in Streptococcus pneumoniae?
    A) the presence of a particular Lancefield antigen
    B) the ability to lyse red blood cells
    C) the production of pneumolysin
    D) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule
    E) strain-specific teichoic acids in its cell wall
    D) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. The majority of cases of pneumonia are caused by 
    A) Chlamydophila psittaci
    B) Chlamydophila pneumoniae
    C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
    D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. V shapes and palisade arrangements are characteristic of which of the following?
    A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    B) Streptococcus pyogenes
    C) Corynebacterium diptheriae
    D) Chlamydophila psittaci
    E) Legionella pneumophila
    C) Corynebacterium diptheriae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning diptheria?
    A) A diffuse rash is the major sign if diptheria
    B) The signs and symptoms of the disease are directly caused by a bacterial toxin
    C) The pseudomembrane is easily removed by surgery
    D) No effective vaccine is available to prevent infecition
    E) A microscopic exam of bacterial samples is sufficient for conclusive diagnosis
    B) The signs and symptoms of the disease are directly caused by a bacterial toxin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Diptheria toxin kills cells by interfering with which of the following processes?
    A) complement fixation
    B) nucleic acid synthesis
    C) adenylate cyclase activity
    D) protein synthesis
    E) cytoplasmic membrane function
    D) protein synthesis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the common cold?
    A) Cold viruses reproduce most effectively at 37C
    B) The viruses can infect both the upper and lower respiratory tracts
    C) Cold viruses are frequently spread by contaminated fomites
    D) The immune system cannot develop an effective response to cold viruses
    E) Only coronaviruses cause the common cold.
    C) Cold viruses are frequently spread by contaminated fomites
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Which of the following is an opportunistic infection?
    A) legionellosis
    B) disseminated tuberculosis
    C) inhalation anthrax
    D) whooping cough
    E) SARS
    A) legionellosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Which of the following is extremely fastidious in it nutrient requirements, which include iron salts and cysteine?
    A) Streptococcus pyogenes
    B) Bacillus anthracis
    C) Bordetella pertussis
    D) Legionella pneumophila
    E) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    D) Legionella pneumophila
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding tuberculosis?
    A) Several hundred cells are required for infection
    B) It remains viable in dried aerosol droplets for up to eight months
    C) It occurs only in the lungs
    D) Only virulent strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis produce mycolic acid
    E) The immune system is not affected by the infection
    B) It remains viable in dried aerosol droplets for up to eight months
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough by
    A) forming a pseudomembrane that obstructs the respiratory passages
    B) irritating the diaphragm, which leads to severe coughing attacks
    C) suppressing mucus production
    D) interfering with the activity of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea
    E) the development of pneumonia
    D) interfering with the activity of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Bordetella pertussis produces
    A) dermonecrotic, adenylate cyclase and pyrogenic toxins
    B) adenylate cyclase toxin
    C) pyrogenic toxin
    D) dermonecrotic and adenylate cyclase toxins
    E) dermonecrotic toxin
    D) dermonecrotic and adenylate cyclase toxins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. The DTaP vaccine protects against which of the following respiratory diseases?
    A) anthrax
    B) the common cold
    C) pertussis
    D) pneumonia
    E) tuberculosis
    C) pertussis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Inhalation anthrax is frequently fatal even with antibiotic therapy because
    A) the bacteria are enclosed within a biofilm that antibiotics cannot penetrate
    B) the dying cells release lipid A, triggering a severe inflammatory response
    C) Bacillus anthracis is resistant to a wide range of antibiotics
    D) it is transmittted by endospores
    E) the anthrax toxin triggers edema of the lungs
    E) the anthrax toxin triggers edema of the lungs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Influenzaviruses are exhibiting increased resistance to which of the following drugs?
    A) ribavirin
    B) amantadine
    C) oseltamivir
    D) acyclovir
    E) zanamivir
    B) amantadine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. The CDC reports concern about a new influenza strain designated A/Bali/2/2010 (H5N2). This nomenclature means
    A) the virus is a type B strain with antigens HA 5 and NA 2, first isolated in February 2010
    B) the strain is a type A with 5 HA antigen and 2 NA antigens isolated in Bali in February 2010
    C) the virus is a type A with antigens HA 5 and NA 2 isolated in Bali in February 2010
    D) the virus is a hybrid of type A and B with 5 HA and 2 NA antigen, discovered in February 2010
    E) the virus is the second type A strain with HA 5 and NA 2 antigens isolated in Bali in February 2010
    C) the virus is a type A with antigens HA 5 and NA 2 isolated in Bali in February 2010
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. The typical signs and syptoms of flu are a result of
    A) secondary bacterial infections
    B) syncytium formation
    C) the release of viral toxins
    D) cytokines released as part of the immune response
    E) the death of the cells outside the lungs
    D) cytokines released as part of the immune response
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Coronaviruses cause
    A) valley fever
    B) the common cold, SARS, and valley fever
    C) the common cold
    D) both the common cold and SARS
    E) SARS
    D) both the common cold and SARS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Even though mycoplasmas pass through filters that normally trap bacteria, they are known to be bacteria, not viruses, because they
    A) synthesize peptidoglycan
    B) contain both DNA and RNA and divide by binary fission
    C) divide by binary fission
    D) contain both DNA and RNA
    E) synthesize peptidoglycan and divide by snapping division
    B) contain both DNA and RNA and divide by binary fission
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
    A) The causative agent is a fast-growing Gram-positive bacillus
    B) It is diagnosed by the appearance of typical "fried-egg" colonies on agar
    C) It is extremely difficult to treat
    D) The causative agent attaches to ciliated cells in the respiratory tract
    E) It causes disease which is usually severe enough to require hospitalization
    D) The causative agent attaches to ciliated cells in the respiratory tract
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Croup is often a result of infection with which of the following?
    A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    B) influenzavirus
    C) Bordetella pertussis
    D) hantavirus
    E) respiratory syncytial virus
    E) respiratory syncytial virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the ability of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to survive long periods of time in dried droplets of respiratory aerosols?
    A) formation of Ghon complexes
    B) the presence of LPS in the outer membrane
    C) production of cord factor
    D) the presence of mycolic acid in the cell wall
    E) pyrogenic toxin
    D) the presence of mycolic acid in the cell wall
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Limiting exposure to rodents and their waste materials is an important means of controlling
    A) histoplasmosis
    B) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
    C) coccidioidomycosis
    D) bronchiolitis
    E) inhalational anthrax
    B) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Blastomycosis results from
    A) inhalation of fungal spores
    B) contact with infected sputum
    C) contact with fomites
    D) inhalation of respiratory droplets
    E) inhalation of spherules
    A) inhalation of fungal spores
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Coccidioides germinates in the alveoli into a form called a(n)
    A) spherule
    B) syncytium
    C) spore
    D) arthroconidium
    E) yeast
    A) spherule
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Which of the following is the most common fungal systemic disease in humans?
    A) valley fever
    B) coccidioidomycosis
    C) Pneumocystis pneumonia
    D) histoplasmosis
    E) blastomycosis
    D) histoplasmosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Which of the following diseases is almost diagnostic for AIDS?
    A) coccidioidomycosis
    B) histoplasmosis
    C) Pneumocystis pneumonia
    D) blastomycosis
    E) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
    C) Pneumocystis pneumonia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Pneumocystis jiroveci is
    A) a common member of the respiratory microbiota in humans
    B) difficult to treat with antimicrobial drugs
    C) not a danger to immunodeficient patients
    D) an opportunistic pathogen encountered in a desert environment
    E) actually a protozoan, not a fungus
    A) a common member of the respiratory microbiota in humans
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Ornithosis, a disease of birds that can be transmitted to humans, is caused by
    A) Chlamydophila pneumoniae
    B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    C) Chlamydophilia psittaci
    D) Yersinia pestis
    E) Klebsiella pneumoniae
    C) Chlamydophilia psittaci
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. A nursing student develops a positive reaction to the tuberculin skin test. A history reveals possible exposure to patients with tuberculosis. A sputum sample is acid-fast negative. When asked for vaccination records, the student reports that childhood vaccination records were lost when the family emigrated from a southeast Asian country. What is the best explanation for the test results?
    A) The student is not infected
    B) The student has been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    C) No conclusion is possible with the information provided
    D) The student has been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis or was vaccinated with BCG vaccine
    E) The student has been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    D) The student has been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis or was vaccinated with BCG vaccine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. The majority of cases of otitis media are caused by
    A) Streptococcus pyogenes
    B) Staphylococcus aureus
    C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    D) Haemophilus influenzae
    E) Mycoplasma pneumonia
    C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Legionella pneumophila is an opportunistic pathogen that
    A) is part of the microbiota of the nasal cavity which occasionally invades the lungs
    B) is a disease of birds transmissible to humans
    C) is part of the microbiota of the lower respiratory system
    D) survives in the environment as an intracellular parasite of a protozoan
    E) is capable of forming endospores
    D) survives in the environment as an intracellular parasite of a protozoan
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. A young man who works on a ranch and lives in the log bunkhouse experiences sudden fever with muscle aches. A few days later he begins to cough and have difficulty breathing, and goes to an urgent care clinic. A blood sample reveals a high leukocyte count and low platelets. A Gram-stain of a sputum sample shows only a few small bacteria present. Which of the following is the most likely infecting agent?
    A) Bacillus anthracis
    B) Hantavirus
    C) Mycoplasma pneumonia
    D) influenza
    E) Histoplasma capsulatum
    B) Hantavirus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. A woman who breeds parrots develops a fever and cough, and begins to have difficulty breathing. Small Gram-negative bacteria are detected inside cells of a sputum sample. Which of the following diseases is she likely to have contracted?
    A) influenza
    B) primary atypical pneumonia
    C) inhalation anthrax
    D) ornithosis
    E) histoplasmosis
    D) ornithosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome can be transmitted from person-to-person and from rodents to humans.
    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  42. The seriousness of Coccidioides infections can be attributed to the cycle of formation and rupture of spherules.
    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  43. Haemophilus influenzae is a common cause of sinus infections.
    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  44. Pneumocystis jiroveci infects only immunocompromised patients.
    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  45. Microscopic evaluation of suitable specimens is a useful way of diagnosing histoplasmosis.
    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  46. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome can be transmitted from person-to-person and from rodents to humans.
    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  47. Anti-influenza drugs are effective at any stage of the disease.
    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  48. Specimens suspected to contain Bodetella pertussis must be inoculated onto appropriate media at the patient's bedside.
    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  49. BCG vaccine is composed of attenuated Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  50. Cold viruses are prevented from infecting most areas of the body because these areas are either too warm or too acidic.
    A) True
    B) False
    A) True

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