Image Procedures

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Image Procedures
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2013-06-23 17:19:32
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  1. Where will the fibula be located on a properly positioned lateral radiograph of the ankle?
    over the posterior half of the tibia
  2. The distal of the gallbladder is the:
    fundus
  3. The lumbar lamina is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?
    body
  4. The valve that separates the right atrium from the right ventricle is called the:
    tricuspid valve
  5. T9 and T10 are located at the level of the:
    xyphoid process
  6. Ideally, the cathode end of an x-ray tube should be positioned to take advantage of the "heel effect" of the tube. Where should the cathode be placed for an AP thoracic spine?
    toward the feet
  7. The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the:
    epiphysis
  8. Some synovial joints contain synovial-fluid filled sacs outside the main joint cavity called:
    bursae
  9. A malformation of the acetabulum causing displacement of the femoral head is known as:
    congenital hip dysplasia
  10. Which of the following best describes the position of the thymus gland?
    behind the manubrium
  11. Which specific type of joint allows multiaxial movement?
    ball and socket
  12. The central-ray angulation for a lateral projection of the knee is:
    5 to 7 degrees cephalad
  13. The body is placed at what angle for the AP oblique projection (Judet method) of the acetabulum?
    45 degrees
  14. Which of the following will be directly superimposed over the junction of the "Y" on the PA oblique (scapula Y) projection?
    humeral head
  15. For an AP projection of the shoulder with the humerus in internal rotation, the epicondyles of the humerus should be:
    perpendicular to the plane of the IR
  16. The only saddle joint in the human body is the:
    first digit, carpometacarpal joint
  17. Diverticula are most common seen in which part of the colon?
    sigmoid colon
  18. Where is the center of the IR positioned for an AP abdominal radiograph done in the upright position?
    2 inches above the iliac crest
  19. What is the longest segment of the small intestine?
    iliem
  20. Where is the IR centered for a hyperflexion or hyperextension lateral projection of the cervical spine?
    fourth cervical vertebra
  21. Which structure carries oxygenated blood to the left atrium?
    pulmonary veins
  22. Which aspect of the large intestine is best demonstrated with a RAO position?
    right colic flexure
  23. If the lateral decubitus position is used to demonstrate fluid in the pleural cavity, which side must the patient lie on?
    affected side
  24. What is the term for a bending motion of an articulation, decreasing the angle between associated bones?
    flexion
  25. Where should the center of the IR be positioned for a transthoracic lateral projection of the proximal humerus?
    surgical neck
  26. Which of the following describes the central ray centering point for the L5-S1 lateral projection?
    2 inches posterior to the ASIS and inches below the iliac crest
  27. Where is the central ray directed for a  lateral projection of the humerus?
    midpoint of the humerus
  28. S1 and S2 are located at the level of the:
    anterior superior iliac spines (ASIS)
  29. Where is the central ray directed for a lateral thoracic spine"
    level of T7
  30. What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it?
    spondyloidthesis
  31. For the PA oblique projection (scapula Y) of the shoulder, the body is rotated so that the midcoronal plane is how many degrees from the IR?
    45 to 60 degrees
  32. At what level is the sternal angle?
    T4/T5
  33. Symphysis pubis is located at the level of:
    greater trochanters
  34. Which line is placed perpendicular to the IR for the parietoorbital (Rhese) projection of the optic canal?
    acanthiomeatal line
  35. For a lateral projection of the wrist, the elbow must be flexed:
    90 degrees
  36. Which joint is an example of a amphiarthroidal joint?
    intervertebral joint
  37. The superior and inferior vena cava empty returning blood into which part of the heart?
    right atrium
  38. For an AP projection of the toes, the central ray is directed to the:
    third MTP joint
  39. How many feet make up the small intestine?
    23
  40. A fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement is known as a ____ fracture.
    Collie's
  41. Which of the following passes through the carpal "tunnel"?
    median nerve
  42. When viewed from the side, the vertebral column presents how many curves?
    4
  43. The first cervical vertebra is called the:
    atlas
  44. A chronic condition with persistent obstruction of the bronchial airflow is termed:
    chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
  45. L4 and L5 are located at the level of the:
    superior aspect of the iliac crests
  46. What quadrant is the liver located?
    RUQ
  47. If the patient cannot be placed in the lordotic position for radiography of the pulmonary apices, what is the central-ray angle that can be used to project the clavicles above the apices?
    15-20 degrees cephalad
  48. Which ligament is part of the knee?
    posterior inferior tibiotalar ligament
  49. Which intervertebral foramina are demonstrated on the PA axial projection of the cervical spine?
    those closest to the IR
  50. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibifibular articulation?
    45 degree internal rotation
  51. If the infraorbitomeatal line is placed perpendicular to the IR during an AP axial (Towne) projection of the skull, how much is the central ray angled?
    37 degrees caudad
  52. Blunting of the costophrenic angles on a PA projection of the chest can be an indication of:
    pleural effusion
  53. Which type of body habitus has a high and transverse stomach?
    hypersthenic
  54. All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true, except:
    the lobes of the left lung are separated by the horizontal fissure
  55. The largest and strongest bone in the body is the:
    femur
  56. Some synovial joints contain a thick cushioning pad of fibrocartilage called the:
    meniscus
  57. If the IR and wrist are placed flat on the table for the PA axial projection of the wrist (Stecher method), the central ray must be angled:
    20 degrees
  58. An abnormal increase in the convexity of the thoracic spine is termed:
    kyphosis
  59. Which sinus is projected through the mouth on the open-mouth modification of the Waters method?
    sphenoidal
  60. What bone articulates with the semi-lunar notch of the ulna?
    trochlea
  61. Often, the leg is to long to fit on one IR for radiographs. Which joint or joints should be included on the IR when the site of a lesion is known?
    the joint closest to the lesion
  62. What skull type is narrow from side to side?
    dolichocephalic
  63. What is the respiration phase for an AP abdominal radiograph done in the left lateral decubitus position?
    expiration
  64. How many bones make up the appendicular skeleton?
    126
  65. What is the recommended SID for a supine AP chest radiograph?
    72 inches
  66. Which structure is the most superior?
    laryngopharynx
  67. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanges by diffusion within the:
    alveoli
  68. For a transthoracic lateral projection of the shoulder, lung detail may be blurred to better visualize the shoulder area. Which exposure time is recommended to blur the lung structures?
    minimum of 3 seconds
  69. What angle would be utilized on an AP axial (lordotic) chest?
    15-20 degrees cephalad
  70. In which region is the splenic flexure?
    left hypochondrium
  71. At which level should the central ray enter the base of the skull for the SMV projection of the sinuses?
    3/4 inch below the mental protuberance
  72. Which of the following is located in the internal ear?
    transverse foramen
  73. The outermost layer of the pleura is referred to as the:
    parietal pleura
  74. To prevent lateral rotation, how should the foot be positioned for a lateral projection of the ankle?
    in dorsiflexion
  75. For a lateral projection of the hand, the central ray is directed to the:
    second digit of MCP joint
  76. Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?
    LPO
  77. The term varus refers to
    turned inward
  78. Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by

    1. trauma or other pathology
    2. greater than 90-degree flexion
    3. less than 90-degree flexion
    1 and 3 only
  79. The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?
    Medial oblique elbow
  80. The male bony pelvis differs from the female bony pelvis in which of the following way(s)?

    1. The male pelvis has a larger pelvic inlet.
    2. The female pubic arch is greater than 90 degrees.
    3. The male ilium is more vertical.
    2 and 3 only
  81. Which of the following techniques would provide a posteroanterior (PA) projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of a barium-filled high and transverse stomach?
    Angle the CR 35 to 45 degrees cephalad.
  82. With the patient and the x-ray tube positioned as illustrated in Figure 2-2, which of the following will be visualized?

    1. Intercondyloid fossa
    2. Patellofemoral articulation
    3. Tangential patella
    2 and 3 only
  83. All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except
    the inferior portion of the lung is the apex.
  84. All the following statement regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true except
    the midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the IR.
  85. What could be done to improve the mediolateral projection of the knee seen in Figure 2-3?
    Rotate the pelvis slightly backward.
  86. Pacemaker electrodes can be introduced through a vein in the chest or upper extremity, from where they are advanced to the
    right ventricle
  87. Widening of the intercostal spaces is characteristic of which of the following conditions?
    Emphysema
  88. Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?

    1. Hepatic flexure
    2. Gallbladder
    3. Ileocecal valve
    1 and 2 only
  89. Which of the following statements regarding the image in Figure 2-4 is correct?
    The left kidney is more parallel to the IR.
  90. During the upper gastrointestinal (GI) examination, a stomach of average shape demonstrates a barium-filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb. The position used is mostly likely
    LPO
  91. Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?

    1. Talotibial
    2. Talocalcaneal
    3. Talofibular
    1 and 3 only
  92. Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?
    Lateral weight-bearing
  93. Graves disease is associated with
    thyroid overactivity
  94. To best visualize the lower ribs, the exposure should be made
    on expiration
  95. In an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?
    Occipital bone
  96. The right posterior oblique position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the

    1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum
    2. right iliac wing
    3. right anterior iliopubic column
    1 and 2 only
  97. Figure 2-5 demonstrates which of the following conditions?
    dextrocardia
  98. A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplished in which of the following positions?
    RAO
  99. What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it?
    spondylolisthesis
  100. During atrial systole, blood flows into the

    1. right ventricle via the mitral valve
    2. left ventricle via the bicuspid valve
    3. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve
    2 and 3 only
  101. How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient having traumatic injuries?
    include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position.
  102. All of the following statements regarding the use of iodinated contrast agents with patients taking metformin hydrochloride are true except
    metformin should be with held for 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies.
  103. Which of the following methods was used to obtain the image seen in Figure 2-6?
    Erect PA, chin extended, OML 15 degree from horizontal
  104. Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in Figure 2-6 is (are) true?

    1. The position is used to demonstrate the frontal and ethmoid sinuses.
    2. The ethmoid sinuses are seen near the medial aspect of the orbits.
    3. The perpendicular plate is visualized in midline of the nasal cavity.
    1,2, and 3
  105. Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap on the oblique projection of the hand?
    Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees.
  106. All of the following positions are used frequently to demonstrate the sternoclaviclar articulations except
    weight-bearing
  107. Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?
    LPO
  108. When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained?

    1. with humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
    2. with forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
    3. through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular
    1 and 2 only
  109. Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity?
    lateral decubitus, affected side up
  110. Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?
    cardiac apex
  111. For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?
    0 degrees (perpendicular)
  112. In which of the following projections was the image in Figure 2-7 made?
    medial oblique
  113. Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 2 in Figure 2-7?
    olecranon process
  114. Which of the following is (are) well demonstrated in the lumbar spine pictures in Figure 2-8?

    1. apophyseal articulations
    2. intervertebral foramina
    3. pedicles
    2 and 3 only
  115. In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris requires for an accurate diagnosis?

    1. supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant)
    2. prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast)
    3. prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston)
    1 only
  116. Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?
    AP or PA through the foramen magnum
  117. The floor of the cranium includes all of the following bones except
    the occipital bone
  118. A lateral projection of the hand in extension often recommended to evaluate

    1. a fracture
    2. a foreign body
    3. soft tissue
    2 and 3 only
  119. in which of the following positions was the radiograph in Figure 2-9 taken
    RPO
  120. The structure indicated as number 4 in Figure 2-9 is the
    cecum
  121. The condition that results from a persistent fetal foramen ovale is
    an atrial septal defect
  122. Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?
    PA oblique scapular Y
  123. With the patient recumbent on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feel, the patient is said to be in the
    Trendelenberg position
  124. Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax?

    1. RAO
    2. LAO
    3. RPO
    2 and 3 only
  125. In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuniforms best demonstrated?
    lateral oblique foot
  126. The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the
    T5
  127. Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?

    1. spleen
    2. gallbladder
    3. hepatic flexure
    2 and 3 only
  128. To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in
    the recumbent position
  129. Which of the following statements regarding Figure 2-10 is (are) true?

    1. correct degree of rotation is present
    2. midphalanges are foreshortened
    3. fingers are parallel to the IR
    1 and 2 only
  130. The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long in an adult is
    yellow marrow
  131. All the following structures are associated with the posterior femur except
    intertrochanteric line
  132. Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise?
    Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees
  133. Which of the following statements with respect to the PA chest seen in Figure 2-11 is (are) correct?

    1. adequate inspiration is demonstrated
    2. the shoulders are rolled forward adequately
    3. rotation is demonstrated
    1,2, and 3
  134. Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?
    Prominence of the greater trochanter
  135. A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to

    1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR
    2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR
    3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR
    1 and 2 only
  136. To reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region, which of the following is (are) recommended?

    1. close collimation
    2. lead mat on table posterior to the patient
    3. decreased SID
    1 and 2 only
  137. Which of the following is (are) distal to the tibial plateau?

    1. intercondyloid fossa
    2. tibial condyles
    3. tibial tuberosity
    2 and 3 only
  138. Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include

    1. epicondyles parallel to the IR
    2. lesser tubercle in profile
    3. superimposed epicondyles
    2 and 3 only
  139. Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially?
    Internal rotation
  140. With the patient in the PA position, which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle?
    15 to 30 degrees caudad
  141. Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?
    avulsion fracture
  142. What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?
    trochlea
  143. Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed
    adduction
  144. During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the
    subarachnoid space
  145. The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the
    bregma
  146. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the radiograph in Figure 2-12?

    1. The patient is placed in an RAO position.
    2. The midcoronal plane is about 60 degrees to the IR.
    3. The acromion process is free of superimposition.
    1,2, and 3
  147. Examples of synovial pivot articulations in the

    1. atlantoaxial joint
    2. radioulnar joint
    3. temporomandibular joint
    1 and 2 only
  148. The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?
    nose
  149. An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is referred to as
    contrecoup
  150. In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?
    Tangential metatarsals/toes
  151. Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?
    Osgood-Schlatter disease
  152. AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed

    1. to demonstrated fractures of the distal tibia and fibula
    2. following inversion or eversion injuries
    3. to demonstrate a ligament tear
    2 and 3 only
  153. Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax?

    1. Manubrium
    2. Clavicles
    3. 24 ribs
    1 and 3 only
  154. Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the
    right main stem bronchus
  155. The PA chest radiograph shown in Figure 2-13 demonstrates

    1. rotation
    2. scapulae removed from lung fields
    3. adequate inspiration
    1,2, and 3
  156. The letter B in Figure 2-13 indicates
    a left anterior rib
  157. With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?
    coronoid process
  158. The structures forming the brain stem include

    1. the pons
    2. the medulla oblongata
    3. the midbrain
    1,2, and 3
  159. The CR will parallel the intervertebral foramina in which if the following projections?

    1. lateral cervical spine
    2. lateral thoracic spine
    3. lateral lumbar spine
    2 and 3 only
  160. What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis?
    dome of the acetabulum
  161. The structure labeled 3 in Figure 2-14 is the
    spenoidal sinus
  162. Which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 4 in Figure 2-14?
    parietoacanthal projection (Waters method)
  163. Which of the following positions demonstrates the sphenoid sinuses?

    1. modified Waters (mouth open)
    2. lateral
    3. PA axial
    1 and 2 only
  164. The radiograph shown in Figure 2-15 demonstrates the articulation between the

    1. talus and the calcaneus
    2. calcaneus and the cuboid
    3. talus and the navicular
    2 and 3 only
  165. Identify the structure labeled 1 in the AP projection of the knee shown in Figure 2-16.
    medial epicondyle
  166. The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a(n)
    30-degree oblique
  167. The patient's chin should be elevated during a chest radiography to
    avoid superimposition on the apices
  168. The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the
    epiphysis
  169. Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the
    AP projection
  170. The lumbar lamina is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?
    body
  171. All of the following statements regarding the position shown in Figure 2-17 are true except
    the CR is directed vertically to the level of T7.
  172. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?
    45-degree internal rotation
  173. At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?
    C4
  174. During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon?
    right lateral decubitus
  175. What is the structure indicated by the number 8 in Figure 2-18?
    common bile duct
  176. What is the structure indicated by the number 7 in Figure 2-18?
    cystic duct
  177. Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture?
    Hydronephrosis
  178. Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula?
    Hysterosalpingogram
  179. All of the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true except
    single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions
  180. In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the

    1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia.
    2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized.
    3. femoral condyles should be superimposed.
    1,2, and 3
  181. All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?
    lateral
  182. The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is
    hemoptysis
  183. Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the
    gastric or bowel mucosa
  184. Which of the following are mediastinal structures?

    1. Heart
    2. Trachea
    3. Esophagus
    1, 2, and 3
  185. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the position illustrated in Figure 2-19?

    1. The right (adjacent to the table) ureter is parallel to the IR
    2. The left (elevated) kidney is parallel to the IR
    3. The degree of obliquity should be about 30 degrees
    1,2, and 3
  186. In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?
    Internal rotation
  187. With the patient positioned as illustrated in Figure 2-20, which of the following structures is best demonstrated?
    intercondyloid fossa
  188. Which of the following structures is illustrated by the number 2 in Figure 2-21?
    Zygomatic arch
  189. Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?

    1. knee
    2. intervertebral joints
    3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
    1 and 3 only
  190. Ulnar flexion/deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)?
    2 and 3 only
  191. What should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown in Figure 2-22?
    Angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad
  192. Structures comprising the neural, or vertebral, arch include

    1. pedicles
    2. lamina
    3. body
    1 and 2 only
  193. In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?
    compound
  194. The thoracic apophyseal joints are demonstrated with the
    midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR
  195. Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?

    1. scapular Y projection
    2. inferosuperior axial
    3. transthoracic lateral
    1,2, and 3
  196. The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the
    laminae
  197. The type of ileus characterized by cessation of peristalsis is termed
    paralytic
  198. Radiography of which if the following structure(s) in the AP or PA position will inherently result in an image demonstrating shape distortion of the anatomic part?

    1. kidney
    2. scapula
    3. sigmoid
    1,2, and 3
  199. Which of the following procedures will best demonstrate the cephalic, basilica, and subclavian veins?
    upper-limb venogram
  200. Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to the images shown in Figure 2-23?

    1. Image A was made with cephalad angulation
    2. Image B was made with cephalad angulation
    3. Image A and B were made with CR directed 15 degrees cephalad
    1 only
  201. The bony habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and low midline stomach and gallbladder is the
    asthenic
  202. Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine?
    Horizontal beam lateral
  203. Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?
    Radial styloid process
  204. Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true?

    1. The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR
    2. The scapular borders should be superimposed on humeral shaft
    3. An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained
    2 and 3 only
  205. Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type?

    1. short, wide, transverse heart
    2. high and peripheral large bowel
    3. diaphragm positioned low
    1 and 2 only
  206. Glossitis refers to inflammation of the
    tongue
  207. With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?
    Rami
  208. During IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate

    1. the filling of the ureters
    2. the renal pelvis
    3. the superior calyces
    1 and 2 only
  209. The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the
    midcoronal plane
  210. To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and oblique 45 degrees
    toward the affected side
  211. Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 1 in Figure 2-24?
    spinous process
  212. During an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized with the body in the AP recumbent position?
    transverse colon
  213. Central ray angulation may be required for

    1. magnification of anatomic structures
    2. foreshortening or self-superimposition
    3. superimposition of overlaying structures
    2 and 3 only
  214. Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsmetatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?
    Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly
  215. Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that

    1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR
    2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally
    3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly
    2 and 3 only
  216. Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?
    Patient AP with 30- to 35- degree angle cephalad
  217. Subject/object unsharpness can result from all of the following except when
    anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR
  218. Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in
    magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
  219. The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles?

    1. interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR
    2. MSP perpendicular to the IR
    3. infraorbitomeatal line (OML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR
    1 and 3 only
  220. In which of the following positions was the radiograph shown in Figure 2-25 probably made?
    prone recumbent
  221. A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following?

    1. sacral vertebrae
    2. thoracic vertebrae
    3. lumbar vertebrae
    1 and 2 only
  222. Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull?

    1. the IOML is parallel to the IR
    2. the MSP is parallel to the IR
    3. the CR enters 3/4 inch superior and anterior to the EAM
    1 and 2 only
  223. That ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the
    metaphysis
  224. Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient?
    LAO
  225. The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions?
    right iliac
  226. Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints?

    1. the procedure is performed in the erect position
    2. use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints
    3. the procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected
    1 and 2 only
  227. A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is
    Ewing sarcoma
  228. Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the
    hilus
  229. Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process?
    submentovertical (SMV)
  230. Which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur?

    1. patellar surface
    2. intertrochanteric crest
    3. linea aspera
    1 only
  231. An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations?
    myelogram
  232. In figure 2-27, the structure indicated as number 7 is which of the following?
    head of rib
  233. Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs?

    1. sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders
    2. ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm
    3. the esophagus is visible in the midline
    1 and 2 only
  234. In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?
    plantodorsal projection of the os calcis
  235. In the lateral projection of the ankle, the

    1. talotibial joint is visualized
    2. talofibular joint is visualized
    3. tibia and fibula are superimposed
    1 and 3 only
  236. The position illustrated in the radiograph in Figure 2-28 may be obtained with the patient

    1. supine and the CR angled 30 degrees caudad
    2. supine and the CR angled 30 degrees cephalad
    3. prone and the CR angled 30 degrees cephalad
    2 only
  237. All of the following positions are likely to be employed for both single- and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel except
    right and left lateral decubitus abdomen
  238. Which of the following statements regarding the Norgaad method, "Ball-Catcher's position, "is (are) correct?

    1. bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained
    2. it is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis
    3. the hands are oblique about 45 degrees palm up
    1,2, and 3
  239. Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?

    1. prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa
    2. supine, IR under flexed knee, perpendicular to tibia
    3. prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5 to 10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint
    1 and 2 only
  240. The scapula shown in Figure 2-29 demonstrates

    1. its posterior aspect
    2. its costal surface
    3. its sternal articular surface
    1 only
  241. In Figure 2-29, which of the following is represented by the number 3?
    Acromion process
  242. In Figure 2-29, which of the following is represented by the number 7?
    lateral border
  243. With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids
    completely within the orbits
  244. When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15-degree caudal angle, the radiographer should see

    1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits
    2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally
    3. symmetrical petrous pyramids
    1,2, and 3
  245. Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position?
    hepatic flexure
  246. The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the
    fourth lumbar vertebra
  247. What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient?
    high and horizontal
  248. In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the
    intervertebral foramina nearest the IR
  249. During chest radiography, the act of inspiration

    1. elevates the diaphragm
    2. raises the ribs
    3. depresses the abdominal viscera
    2 and 3 only
  250. In the lateral projection of the scapula, the

    1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed
    2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed
    3. inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs
    1 only
  251. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding Figure 2-30?

    1. the image was made in the LAO position
    2. the CR should enter more inferiorly
    3. the sternum is projected onto the left side of the thorax
    2 and 3 only
  252. To better visualize the knee-joint space in the radiograph in Figure 2-31. the radiographer should
    angle the CR 5 to 7 degrees cephalad
  253. Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in an AP projection of the cervical spine?

    1. intervertebral disk space
    2. C3-7 cervical bodies
    3. apophyseal joints
    1 and 2 only
  254. With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?
    first metacarpal
  255. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a PA axial projection of the paranasal sinuses?

    1. the OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal
    2. the petrous pyramids completely fill the orbits
    3. the frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized
    1 and 3 only
  256. Tracheotomy is an effective technique used to restore breathing when there is
    respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx
  257. To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that
    a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical
  258. For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool?

    1. patency of the biliary ducts
    2. biliary tract calculi
    3. gallbladder calculi
    1 and 2 only
  259. For the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of the barium-filled stomach should enter
    midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface
  260. Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?
    Dorsal decubitus position
  261. Which of the following is (are) appropriate techniques(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury?

    1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts.
    2. Maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving patient.
    3. Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient.
    (C) 2 and 3 only
  262. Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?
    (C) Tangential patella
  263. The structure labeled 5 in Figure 2-32 is the
    (D) anterior arch of C1
  264. The structure labeled 4 in Figure 2-32 is the
    (C) odontoid process
  265. Which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux?
    (C) Voiding cystourethrogram
  266. Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle?

    1. Clavicular body
    2. Acromioclavicular joint
    3. Sternocostal joint
    (B) 1 and 2 only.
  267. In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?
    (C) Medical oblique
  268. Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following positions?
    (A) AP projection, left lateral decubitus position.
  269. Which of the following sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle?
    (A) Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins.
  270. Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition?
    (D) Lateral oblique
  271. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation?
    (D) AP erect, both shoulders
  272. Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct?

    1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position.
    2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation.
    3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions.
    (C) 1 and 3 only

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  273. The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is
    (C) distal
  274. With the patient PA, the MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a37- degree angle with the IR, and the CR perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is the best demonstrated?
    (C) Facial bones
  275. The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is referred to as
    (B) aspiration
  276. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) usually involves

    1. cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla
    2. introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct
    3. introduction of barium directly into the duodenum
    (B) 1 and 2 only
  277. Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fractures?

    1. Transverse fracture of the radial head
    2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid
    3. Posterior or backward displacement
    (C) 2 and 3 only
  278. The axiolateral, or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the IR to be placed

    1. parallel to the central ray (CR)
    2. parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck.
    3. in contact with the lateral surface of the body
    (C) 2 and 3 only
  279. Which of the following guidelines should be followed when performing radiographic examinations on pediatric patients?
    (A) Use restraint only when necessary
  280. Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel?

    1. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)
    2. Stent placement
    3. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line)
    (B) 1 and 2 only
  281. Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include

    1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb.
    2. both joints must be included in long bone studies.
    3. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required.
    (C) 2 and 3 only
  282. Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for an upper gastrointestinal (GI) series is most likely to be
    (B) NPO after midnight
  283. The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart are called
    (C) Pulse
  284. AP Trendelenburg position  is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate
    (C) Hiatal hernia
  285. Which of the following positions would be the best choice for  a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture?
    (D) AP and scapular Y
  286. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition?
    (A) AP Oblique, medical rotation
  287. Which of the following bones participates(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen?

    1. Ilium
    2. Ischium
    3. Pubis
    (C) 2 and 3 only
  288. Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?
    (B) Retrograde urography
  289. The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the CR be directed.

    1. 15 degrees cephalad
    2. 2 inches superior to the public symphysis
    3. to a level midway between the ASIS and pubis symphysis
    (B) 2 only
  290. Which of the following views would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?
    (C) AP erect
  291. Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral apophyseal articulation?
    (C) 30-degree RPO
  292. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the images shown in figure 2-33?

    1. Image A is positioned in internal rotation.
    2. Image B is positioned in internal rotation.
    3. The greater tubercle is better demonstrated in image A
    (D) 2 and 3 only
  293. Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys?
    (B) AP abdomen

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  294. Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for a lower GI series is most likely to be
    (C) cathartics and cleansing enemas.


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  295. The AP axial projection, or "frog leg" position, of the femoral neck places the  patient in a supine position with the affected thigh
    (D) abducted 40 degrees from the vertical
  296. Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiography  a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip?

    1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affective extremity should be performed by a physician.
    2. The AP axiolateral projection should be avoided.
    3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis typically is included in the initial examination.
    (B) 1 and 3 only
  297. Which of the following projections require(s)
    that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR?

    1. AP humerus
    2. Lateral forearm
    3. Internal rotation shoulder
    (C) 2 and 3 only
  298. Prior to the start of an IVU, which of the following procedures should be carried out?

    1. Have patient empty the bladder.
    2. Review the patient's allergy history.
    3. Check the patient's creatinine level.
    1,2, and 3

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  299. To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the

    1. epicondyles perpendicular to the cassette
    2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible
    3. hand lateral and in internal rotation
    1,2, and 3
  300. The image shown in Figure 2-34 was made in what position?
    right lateral decubitus
  301. In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the
    subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae
  302. To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers
    must be supported parallel to the IR
  303. Which of the following is (are) effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations?

    1. use of PA position
    2. use of breast shields
    3. use of compensating filtration
    1,2, and 3
  304. Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?
    diarthrodial
  305. The laryngeal prominence is formed by the
    thyroid cartilage
  306. In the AP projection of the ankle, the

    1. plantar surface of the foot id vertical
    2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia
    3. calcaneus is well visualized
    1 and 2 only
  307. Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm's tumor?
    IVU
  308. To visualize or "open" the right sacroiliac joint, the patient is positioned
    25 to 30 degrees LPO
  309. Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the
    superior vena cava
  310. Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous glandular breast tissue?
    A postpubertal adolescent
  311. Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?
    Emergency and trauma radiography
  312. Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs?
    Pulmonary embolism
  313. Following the ingestion of a fatty meal, what hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to stimulate contraction of the gallbladder?
    cholecystokinin
  314. Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?
    AP (medial) oblique
  315. Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate

    1. internal disk lesions
    2. posttraumatic swelling of the spinal cord
    3. posterior disk herniation
    2 and 3 only
  316. Which of the following blood chemistry levels must the radiographer check prior to excretory urography?

    1. creatinine
    2. blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
    3. red blood cells (RBCs)
    1 and 2 only
  317. Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?

    1. fractured lateral malleolus
    2. fractured medial malleolus
    3. fractured posterior tibia
    1,2, and 3
  318. The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage?
    skeletal
  319. The four major arteries supplying the brain include the

    1. brachiocephalic artery
    2. common carotid arteries
    3. vertebral arteries
    2 and 3 only
  320. Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations?

    1. suspected perforation of a hollow viscus
    2. suspected large bowel obstruction
    3. preoperative patients
    1, 2, and 3
  321. Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children?
    intussusception
  322. Which of the following is (are) well demonstrated in the lumbar spine shown in Figure 2-35?

    1. apophyseal articulations
    2. intervertebral foramina
    3. inferior articular processes
    1 and 3 only
  323. Which of the following statements is (are) correct, with respect to a left lateral projection of the chest?

    1. The MSP must be perfectly vertical and parallel to the IR.
    2. The right posterior ribs will be projected slightly posterior to the left posterior ribs.
    3. Arms must be raised high to prevent upper-arm soft-tissue superimposition on lung field.
    1,2, and 3
  324. Which of the following is represented by the number 3 in Figure 2-36?
    aorta
  325. Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint?

    1. femur
    2. tibia
    3. patella
    1 and 2 only
  326. All of the following are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of the pelvis except
    the femoral neck
  327. Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the
    parietoacantral (Waters method) projection
  328. Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone?

    1. posterior clinoid processes
    2. dorsum sella
    3. posterior arch of C1
    1 and 2 only
  329. What is the structure labeled number 5 in Figure 2-37?
    pisiform
  330. What is the structure labeled number 3 in Figure 2-37?
    radial styloid
  331. In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed
    15 degrees caudad to C4
  332. Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?
    Flexion and extension laterals
  333. If a patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient's head
    15 degrees toward the side being examined
  334. Which of the following factors can contribute to hypertension?

    1. obesity
    2. smoking
    3. stress
    1,2, and 3
  335. What is the degree of difference between the baseline numbered 2 and 3 in Figure 2-38 and used for various projections of the skull?
    7 degrees
  336. Referring to Figure 2-38, which of the following positions requires that baseline number 3 be parallel to the IR?
    SMV
  337. Orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the following accessories?

    1. Bell-Thompson scale
    2. Bucky tray
    3. Cannula
    1 and 2 only
  338. Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in a lateral projection of the cervical spine?

    1. intervertebral foramina
    2. apophyseal joints
    3. intervertebral joints
    2 and 3 only
  339. In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the CR is directed
    3/4 inch distal to the nasion
  340. To make a patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast barium enema (BE), the radiographer should

    1. instruct the patient to relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intra-abdominal pressure
    2. instruct the patient to concentrate on breathing deeply to reduce colonic spasm 
    3. prepare a warm barium suspension (98-105*F) to aid in retention
    1 and 2 only
  341. Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the right apophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae?
    RPO
  342. Structures involved in blowout fractures include the

    1. orbital floor
    2. inferior rectus muscle
    3. zygoma
    1 and 2 only
  343. Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest are performed to demonstrate

    1. partial or complete collapse of pulmonary lobe(s)
    2. air in the pleural cavity
    3. foreign body
    1,2, and 3
  344. Shoulder arthrography is performed to

    1. evaluate humeral luxation
    2. demonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear
    3. evaluate the glenoid labrum
    2 and 3 only
  345. Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulnar?
    Lateral oblique
  346. The most significant risk factor for breast cancer is
    gender
  347. Which of the following structures is located at the level of the interspace between the second and third thoracic vertebrae?
    jugular notch
  348. For the AP projection of the scapula, the

    1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body.
    2. patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated.
    3. exposure is made during quiet breathing.
    1,2, and 3
  349. The innominate bone is located in the
    pelvis
  350. The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and
    in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR
  351. Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthal projection (Waters method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth?
    sphenoidal
  352. Below-diaphragm ribs are better demonstrated when
    the patient is in the recumbent position
  353. Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?
    erect
  354. What projection of the os calsis is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad?
    Axial plantodorsal projection
  355. During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending on

    1. the respiratory phase
    2. body habitus
    3. patient position
    1,2, and 3
  356. With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15- to 20-degree caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in a baby or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to
    10 to 15 degrees caudal
  357. The structure labeled number 6 in Figure 2-39 is the
    brachiocephalic artery
  358. The structure labeled number 3 in Figure 2-39 is the
    left vertebral artery
  359. In the lateral projection of the foot, the

    1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR
    2. metatarsals are superimposed
    3. talofibular joint should be visualized
    1 and 2 only
  360. Hy
  361. Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of

    1. uterine tubal patency
    2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity
    3. uterine position
    1,2, and 3
  362. The number 2 in Figure 2-40 represents which of the following structures?
    Inferior articular process
  363. To demonstrate the mandibular body on the PA position, the
    CR is directed perpendicular to the IR.
  364. Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP?

    1. A fluoroscopic unit with imaging device and tilt-table capabilities
    2. A fiberoptic endoscope
    3. Polyethylene catheters
    1,2, and 3
  365. All of the following statements regarding pediatric positioning are true except
    radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position.
  366. The act of expiration will cause the

    1. diaphragm to move inferiorly
    2. sternum and ribs to move inferiorly
    3. diaphragm to move superiorly
    2 and 3 only
  367. A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

    1. radial head
    2. capitulum
    3. coronoid process
    1 and 2 only
  368. Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals?

    1. the heads of the first row of phalanges
    2. the cuboid
    3. the cuneiforms
    2 and 3 only
  369. Which of the following statements regarding knee x-ray arthrography is (are) true?

    1. ligament tears can be demonstrated
    2. sterile technique is observed
    3. MRI can follow x-ray
    1,2, and 3
  370. What projection was used to obtain the image seen in Figure 2 -41?
    AP, external rotation
  371. The structure labeled number 4 in Figure 2-41 is the
    coracoid process
  372. The structure labeled number 5 in Figure 2-41 is the
    glenohumeral joint
  373. Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25-degree RPO position with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS?
    left sacroiliac joint
  374. The relationship between the ends of fractures long bones is referred to as
    appositon
  375. A lateral projection of the larynx is occasionally required to rule out foreign body, polyps, or tumor. The CR should be directed
    to the level of the laryngeal prominence

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