Geology.txt

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Geology.txt
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2010-06-07 16:04:04
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Geology
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Geology
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  1. Chemical Weathering
    When minerals react w/ air & water to form new minerals
  2. chemical stability
    measure of a substance tendency to retain its chemical identity rather than reacting spontaneously to become a different chemical
  3. physical weathering
    fractured large rock into smaller pieces which are more easily transported & eroded
  4. strike
    compass direction of a rock as it intersects with a horizontal surface
  5. dip
    measured at right angles to the strike, is the amount of tilting angle at which the bed inclines from the horizontal
  6. geologic maps
    represents the rock formation exposed at earths surface
  7. folding a common form of deformation in?
    layered rocks - rarely stay horizontal
  8. syncline
    downfold into trought
  9. limbs
    2 sides of a fold
  10. basin
    synclinal structure, bowl shaped depression of rock layers that beds dip radially toward central point
  11. dome
    anticlinal structure, broad circular or oval bulge of rock layers
  12. relative humidity
    amount of water vapor in air, relative to saturation of air
  13. rain shadow
    areas of low rainfall on downwind slopes
  14. what are the 3 main types of tetonic force
    tensional, compressive, shearing
  15. tensional
    in brittle crust, produce normal faulting my split apart, causing a rift valley
  16. compressive
    when 2 plates collide, crust can be compressed across a wide zone. fold & thrust belt
  17. shearing
    long transform in faults are rarely straight. faults have bends & jogs -> change tectonic forces. cause secondary faulting & folding
  18. recharge
    infiltration of water into any subsurface formation, often from the surface by rain/melthing snow
  19. what did william smith discover
    fossils can help to order relative ages of sedimentary rock
  20. principle of faunal succession
    layers of sedimentary rocks in outcrop contain fossils in a defininte sequence. the same sequence can be found at other location
  21. ground water
    mass of water stored under earths surface
  22. porosity
    % of rock, soil or sedminets total volume that is taken up by pores
  23. aquifier
    bed that store & transmit groundwater in sufficient quantity to supply wells
  24. unsaturated zone
    level at which the pores contain some air and are not completely filled with water
  25. groundwater table
    boundary between 2 zones
  26. saturated zone
    level at which the pored of the soil or rock are completely filled with water
  27. reservoir
    each place that stores water
  28. hydrologic cycle
    cyclical movement of water from ocean -> atmosphere by evaporation -> surface by rain -> streams by runoff & groundwater -> ocean
  29. droughts
    periods of months/years when precipitation is lower than normal
  30. foliated rock 4 main criteria
    • 1. size of crystals
    • 2. nature of foliation
    • 3. depree that minerals are segregated in color bands
    • 4. metamorphic grade
  31. principle of original horizontality
    sediments are deposited under influence of gravity as nearly horizontal beds. if we find folded/faulted the strata layers were deformed by tectonic forces after sediment deposit
  32. principle of superposition
    each sediment layer of undisturbed sequence is younger than one beneath it & older than one above
  33. suspension
    sediment/rocks suspended in stream
  34. water table
    barrier between saturated & unsaturated water
  35. weathered
    general process that breaks rocks into fragments by combination of physical fracturing & chemical decomposition
  36. subduction
    sinking of oceanic plate under overriding plate at ca convergent plate boundary. overriding plate maybe oceanic or continental
  37. rock rall
    very rapid movement in which newly detached individual block of rock plummet suddenly in free fall from a cliff or steep mountain side
  38. saltation
    an intermittent jumping motion or sand or fine sediment alon a steam bed in which grain are suck up into the flow by turbulent eddies move with the current for a short distance & then fall back to the bottom
  39. plunge
    a fold whose axis is not horizontal but dip
  40. grading
    fine particles settle to bottom & heavy at top. occurs in slow moving water
  41. inverse grading
    heavy particles at bottom & small at top. occurs in fast moving bodies of water
  42. longshore current
    a current that flows parallel to the shoreline, the summed longshore components of water motion of waves that break. obliquely with respect to the shore
  43. bedding
    formation of parallel layer of sediment as particles settle to the bottom of the sea, a river or a land surface
  44. perched
    the groundwater table in a shallow upper surface of an aquifier that is perched above & separated from the main body of groundwater by aquilude
  45. plastic
    total of all the small movement of the ice crystals that make up a glacier, resulting in a large movement of ice
  46. half-life
    time required for half of the original number of radioactive atoms in an element to decay
  47. weathering
    one of major geological processes in rock cycle, shapes earths surface/alters rock materials, converting all kinds of rock into sediment -> soil
  48. 4 key factos that control rock fragmentation & decay
    • 1. properties of parent rock
    • 2. climate
    • 3. presence/absence of soil
    • 4. length of time rocks are exposed to atmosphere
  49. mass wasting
    all the processes by which masses of rock & soil move downhill under the influence of gravity
  50. erosion
    set of processes that loosen soil & rock & move them downhill/strem where they are depisted as sedimentary layers.
  51. what 4 precipitations cause decay & breakdown
    rain, wind, ice & snow
  52. what are the processes that loosen & transport soil/rock down?
    erosion & mass wasting
  53. outcrop
    basic source of deformation information where bedrock that underlies surface is exposed
  54. what is an important clue to overall structure of outsrop
    orientation of layers
  55. what described the orientation of a rock layer exposed at an outcrop
    strike & dip
  56. what are the 4 types of metamorphism
    regional, contact, seafloor, shock
  57. regional metamorphism
    caused by high pressures & temperatures that extend over large regions
  58. contact metamorphism
    changes in minerology & texture of rock resulting from the heat & pressure in small area
  59. seafloor metamorphism
    associated with mid ocean ridges in which changes in chemical composition produced by fluid transport
  60. shock metamorphism
    occurs when minerals are subject to high pressure & temperature of shock waves when meteor collides with earth
  61. metamorphism p-t
    history of changes in conditions of pressure & temperature
  62. what are 3 principal factors of metamorphism
    • 1. internal heat of earth
    • 2. pressure
    • 3. fluid composition
  63. push rocks at earths surface down to great depths subjecting them to high pressure & temperature
  64. role of temperature in metamorphism
    heat effects chemical composition, minerology, & texture.
  65. geothermal gradient
    increase of temperature with increasing depth
  66. role of pressure in metamorphism
    confining & directed
  67. confining pressure
    general force applied equally in all directions
  68. directed pressure
    force exerted in a part direction pressure, like temp increases with depth
  69. role of fluids in metamorphism
    metasomatism
  70. metasomatism
    change in a rocks bulk chemical composition by fluid transport of chemical components into or out of rock
  71. Reverse thrust fault
  72. Plunging fold
  73. Left lateral strike slip
  74. Horizontal fold
  75. Normal Faulting
  76. overturned folds
  77. oblique slip fault
  78. asymmetrical folds
  79. tensional tectonics
    normal faults w/ hih dip angles in upper crust, flatten w/ depth
  80. compressive tectonics
    compression on continental crust on thrust faults with low dip angle
  81. shearing tectonics
    shearing continental crust on nearly vertical strike-slip fault
  82. plunging anticline, plunging syncline
  83. right lateral strike slip
  84. Ge
    symmetrical folds
  85. Which of the following is/are most susceptible to chemical weather by dissolution?
    A. calcite
    B. iron oxides
    C. Clay minerals
    D. Quartz
    A. calcite
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Frost wedging is the major weathering process contributing to the formation of which regolith material?
    A. mature pedalfers
    B. talus slopes
    C. C soil horizons
    D. tropical laterites
    B. talus slopes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. Clay minerals, silica (SiO2), and dissolved potassium bicarbonate in the soil water are products of which process?
    A. differential mechanical weathering of micas
    B. mechanical weathering of granite and rhyolite
    C. chemical weathering of orthoclase feldspar
    D. chemical weathering of olivine and plagioclase feldspar
    C. chemical weathering of orthoclase feldspar
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. What two factors speed up rates of chemical reaction and weathering in rocks and soils?
    A. low temps; very dry
    B. warm temps; vert moist
    C. low temps; very moist
    D. high temps; very dry
    B. warm temps; very moist
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. In which area are pedocal soils mostly likely to be found?
    A. a forested rainforest in Amazon Basin of Brazil
    B. a bitterly cold, permafrost area in northern-central Siberia
    C. a forested area of the Southeastern United States
    D. a moderately dry to semiarid grassland such as the western Great Plains
    D. a moderately dry to semiarid grassland such as the western Great Plains
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. The finely divided, red, brown, and yellow soil-coloring minerals originate by what process?
    A. mechanical weathering of the feldspars and micas in granite and rhyolite
    B. chemical weathering of quarts and feldspars
    C. mechanical weathering of very fine-grained, blue-grays clays
    D. precipitation of iron oxides during the chemical weathering process
    D. precipitation of iron oxides and during the chemical weathering process
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. Which of the following statements about laterites or tropical rainforest is true?
    A. laterites, with proper management, are very suitable for commercial agriculture
    B. laterite soils are very rick in nutrients required for vigorous plant growth
    C. rainforests generate quickly following clear cutting or clearing for agriculture
    D. laterite soils readily compact and hardened when dried and exposed to sunlight
    D. laterite soils readily compact and hardened when dried and exposed to sunlight
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. Which one of the following is an important, mechanical weathering process for enlarging fractures and extending them deeper into large boulder and bedrock?
    A. hydrologic cycling
    B. frost wedging
    C. eluviation
    D. oxidation
    B. frost wedging
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. Which of the following best describes sets of fractures in relatively fresh bedrock, such as granite, that are roughly parallel to the land surface?
    A. columnar joints
    B. hydrolytic failures
    C. sheeting fractures
    D. thermal
    C. sheeting fractures
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. under similar war, moist climatic conditions, what would basalt and gabbro generally have higher chemical weathering rates than rhyloite and granite?
    A. the plagioclase feldspar in the granite and rhyolite decompose readily to clay minerals and iron oxides.
    B. the quartz in the gabbro and basalt decomposes very quickly
    C. the potassium feldspars and quartz in the rhyolite and granite are more susceptible to cracking by frost wedging.
    D. the ferromagnesian minerals in the gabbro and basalt are subject to oxidation and chemical wreathering
    D. the ferromagnesian minerals in the gabbro and basalt are subject to oxidation and chemical weathering
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Which one of the following statements concerning mechanical weathering is not true?
    A. involves a major change in the mineral composition of the weathered material
    B. is important in the formation of talus slopes
    C. disintegration and decomposition of rocks and minerals at the the surface
    D. allows for faster rates of chemical weathering
    A. involves a major change in the mineral composition of the weathered material
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Which one of the following statements best describes erosion?
    A. the combined process of leaching, eluviations, and mass wasting
    B. disintegration and decomposition of rocks and minerals at the surface
    C. movement of weathered rock and regolith toward the base of a slope
    D. the process by which weathered rock and mineral particles are removed from one area and transported elsewhere
    D. movement of weathered rock and regolith toward the base of a slope
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. Assuming that water filling a crack in a rock undergoes cycles of freezing and melting. Which of the following statements is true?
    A. water expands as it melts, causing the crack walls to be pushed apart
    B. water shrinks as it melts, causing the crack walls to be pulled closer together
    C. water expands as it freezes, causing the crack walls to be pushed apart
    D. water shrinks as it freezes, causing the crack walls to be drawn closer together
    C. water expands as it freezes, causing the crack walls to be pushed apart
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. What mineral particles are the dominant coloring agent in reddish, brownish, and yellowish soils?
    A. humus and calcium carbonate
    B. soluble potassium and sodium bicarbonates
    C. dust-sized grains of iron oxides
    D. very fine-sized, silica and calcite bicarbonates
    C. dust-sized grains of iron oxides
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Lateritic soils form under what climatic conditions?
    A. hot and dry as in the desert regions of North Africa and Arabia
    B. warm and moist as in the wet, tropical forest
    C. moist and temperate as in the northeastern US
    D. cool and relatively dry as in the northern Great Plains of the US
    B. warm and moist as in the wet, tropical forest
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. ____, a common mineral found in igneous rocks, is the most abundant mineral in detrital sedimentary rocks.
    A. orthoclase
    B. calcite
    C. quartz
    D. biotite
    C. quartz
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. Sandstone (Match the sediment with the appropriate rock name.)
    A. gravel
    B. all clay sediment
    C. sand
    D. clay and fine silt
    C. sand
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. Shale (Match the sediment with the appropriate rock name.)
    A. gravel
    B. all clay sediment
    C. clay and fine silt
    D. sand
    B. all clay sediment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. Mudstone (Match the sediment with the appropriate rock name.)
    A. clay and fine silt
    B. all clay sediment
    C. sand
    D. gravel
    A. clay and fine silt
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. Conglomerate (Match the sediment with the appropriate rock name.)
    A. gravel
    B. sand
    C. all clay sediment
    D. clay and fine silt
    A. gravel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. Which of the following best describes bedded gypsm and halite?
    A. evaporates; chemical, sedimentary rocks
    B. varieties of coal and peat
    C. varieties of dolostone
    D. detrital sedimentary rocks
    A. evaporates; chemical, sedimentary rocks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. ____ sandstone contains abundant feldspar, suggesting that the sand was derived by weathering and erosion of granitic bedrock.
    A. quart-rich
    B. arkosic
    C. oolitic
    D. lignitic
    B. arkosic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. What is the main difference between a conglomerate and a sedimentary breccia?
    A. a breccias is well stratified; a conglomerate is poorly startified
    B. breccia clasts are angular; conglomerate clasts are rounded
    C. breccia has a compacted, clay-rich matrix; conglomerate have no matrix
    D. breccia clasts are the size of baseballs; congolmerate clasts are larger
    B. breccia clasts are angular; conglomerate clasts are rounded
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. Which statement concerning sedimentary rocks is not true?
    A. they were originally deposited at depth below the bottom of the sea
    B. they may contain fossils that provide clues about ancient life forms
    C. they probably show some evidence of stratification
    D. they are composed of particles and constituents derived from weathering and erosion of other rocks.
    A. they were originally deposited at depth below the bottom of the sea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. ____ is not a common cementing agent for sandstones.
    A. quartz
    B. fluorite
    C. calcite
    D. iron oxides
    B. fluorite
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. Which of the following applies to the basic constituents of halite, gypsum, and sylvite?
    A. transported as dissolved ions; deposited by evaporation
    B. transported and deposited as mud-sized particles
    C. transported as detrital mud; deposited by evaporation
    D. transported as dissolved ions; deposited as detrital mud
    A. transported as dissolved ions; deposited by evaporation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. Flint, chert, and jasper are microcrystalline forms of ____
    A. hematite
    B. quartz
    C. halite
    D. calcite
    B. quartz
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. Which of the following sedimentary rocks would you expect to have originally been deposited by fast-moving streams?
    A. conglomerate
    B. mudstone
    C. greywacke
    D. oolitic limestone
    A. conglomerate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Detrital grains of which minerals are extremely rare in detrital sediments? Why?
    A. quartz; it is very hard and soluble
    B. feldspar; they occur only in granites
    C. clays; they are rare in soils and regoliths
    D. calcites; it is soft and relatively soluble
    D. calcites; it is soft and relatively soluble
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Which of the following sedimentary features would typically be found in shales but not in sandstones?
    A. mudcracks
    B. bedding
    C. ripple marks
    D. cross stratification
    A. mudcracks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. ____ is the most common type of chemical sedimentary rock.
    A. limestone
    B. chert
    C. quartz sandstone
    D. phosphate rock
    C. limestone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. Which of the following sedimentary features can each be used to determine paleocurrent directions?
    A. ripple marks and cross stratification
    B. grain size sorting and ripple marks
    C. fossils and mud cracks
    D. mud cracks and ripple marks
    A. ripple marks and cross stratification
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. Coal beds originate in -
    A. deep, marine basins below wave action
    B. channels of fast-moving streams
    C. shallow lakes in a dry, desert regions
    D. freshwater costal swamps and bogs
    D. freshwater costal swamps and bogs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. Which of the following forms is at the highest grade of regional metamorphism?
    a. schist
    b. hornsfel
    c. phyllite
    d. slate
    ??
  119. What platy, parallel, mineral grains are the most visual aspect of foliated metamorphic rocks?
    A. carbonates
    B. micas
    C. quartz
    D. feldspar
    B. micas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. What major change occurs during metamorphism of limestone to marble?
    A. calcite grains are dissolved away leaving only marble crystals
    B. clays crystallize to micas, forming a highly foliated, mica-rick rock
    C. calcite grains grow larger and increase in size
    D. limestone grains react to form quartz and feldspar
    C. calcite grains grow larger and increase in size
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. Which low-grade metamorphic rock, composed of extremely fine-sized mica and other mineral grains, typically exhibits well-developed rock cleavage?
    A. quartzite
    B. schist
    C. hornsfel
    D. slate
    D. slate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. _____ is a strong, parallel alignment of coarse mice flakes and/or of different mineral bands in a metamorphic rock.
    A. stress streaking
    B. rock cleavage
    C. foliation
    D. marbleizing
    B. foliation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. Which of the following best describes the conditions of contact metamorphism?
    A. pressures are very high, the rock is deeply buried, and temperatures are raised by the Earth's internal heat
    B. heat is generated by shearing and mechanical movements along faults
    C. pressures are fairly low, the rock is in the upper part of the crust, and heat is supplied from a nearby magma body
    D. depths are fairly shallow, but temperatures and pressures are so high that the rocks begin to partially melt
    C. pressures are fairly low, the rock is in the upper part of the crust, and heat is supplied from a nearby magma body
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. ____ forms from the metamorphism of limestone or dolostone
    A. quartzite
    B. migmatite
    C. marble
    D. amphibolite
    C. marble
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. ___ is characterized by segregation of light-and dark-colored minerals into thin layers or bands.
    A. slate
    B. garnet hornfels
    C. granitic gneiss
    D. quartzite
    C. granitic gneiss
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. Which of the following lists the rocks in order of increasing grain size and increasing grade of metamorphism?
    A. slate, schist, phyllite
    B. phyllite, slate, schist
    C. schist, slate, phyllite
    D. slate, phyllite, schist
    D. slate, phyllite, schist
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. What is the major source of heat for contact metamorphism?
    A. heat from grinding and shearing on faults
    B. heat from the spontaneous decomposition of micas and feldspar
    C. deep burial and heat from the Earth's interior
    D. heat from a nearby magma body
    D. heat from a nearby magma body
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. In which setting would regional metamorphism be most likely?
    A. at shallow depths below an oceanic ridge or rift zone
    B. at shallow depths along major transform faults in the continental crust
    C. at great depths in the crust where two continents are colliding
    D. at shallow depths beneath the sea floor where water pressures are immense
    C. at great depths in the crust where two continents are colliding
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. An Unconformity is a buried -
    a. fault or fracture with older rocks above and younger rocks below
    b. surface of erosion with older strata above and younger strata below
    c. fault or fracture with younger strata above and older strata below
    d. surface of erosion separating younger strata above from older strata below
    d. surface of erosion separating younger strata above from older strata below
  130. The radioactive isotopes Uranium-238, Uranium-235, and Thorium-232 eventually decay to different, stable, daughter isotopes of -
    A. strontium
    B. aragon
    C. lead
    D. iron
    C. lead
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. What fundamental concept states that in a horizontal sequence of conformable sedimentary strata, each higher bed is younger than the bed below it?
    A. law of superposition
    B. theory of supersition
    C. theory of correlative deposition
    D. law or original correleation
    A. law of superposition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. The ____ is the idea or concept that ancient life forms succeeded each other in a definite, evolutionary pattern and that the contained assemblage of fossils can determine geologic ages of strata?
    A. law or correlative indexing
    B. principle of cross correlation
    C. principle of faunal succession
    D. law of fossil regression
    C. principle of faunal succession
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. ____ refers to the process of fossilization where the internal cavities and pores of the original organism are filled with precipitated mineral matter.
    A. carbonization
    B. impression
    C. petrification
    D. replacement
    C. petrification
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. What is the age of the earth accepted by most scientists today?
    A. 6.4 million years
    B. 4.5 billion years
    C. 6.4 billions years
    D. 4.5 million years
    B. 4.5 billion years
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. Rocks near the surface deform mostly as brittle. T or F
    True
  136. Beds always dip in the direction of younger beds. T or F
    True
  137. Faults are clearly an example of brittle strain. T or F
    True
  138. Folds and thrust faults are caused by tension in the earths crust. T or F
    False
  139. Most sedimentary rocks were originally deposited as flat-lying beds. T or F
    True
  140. The difference in the arrival time of the P and S wave is related to-
    A. the density of the rocks through which the waves travel
    B. the distance to the earthquake from the seismic station
    C. the intensity of the earthquake
    D. the magnitude of the earthquake
    B. the distance to the earthquake from the seismic station
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. Which one of the following is consistent with deformation by folding?
    A. the crust is stretched
    B. the crust is shortened perpendicular to the fold axis
    C. folding is accompanied by normal faulting
    D. the crust is thinned
    B. the crust is shortened perpendicular to the fold axis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. A ___ is a prominent ridge formed by different erosion of a resistant layer of dopping strata.
    A. wadi
    B. horst
    C. hogback
    D. mesa
    C. hogback
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. A ____ is a flat topped hill that is usually an indication of flat lying strata.
    A. mesa
    B. wadi
    C. cuesta
    D. horst
    A. mesa
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. A sea large wave created by an earthquake is properly called a -
    A. tidal bore
    B. tidal surge
    C. rouge wave
    D. tsunami
    D. tsunami
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. If a deformed body recovers its original shape as stress is released, it is said to be -
    A. fluid
    B. elastic
    C. plastic
    D. brittle
    B. elastic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. Which of the hollowing would NOT be characteristic of an anticline:
    A. oldest beds in the center
    B. horizontal limbs
    C. beds dip away from the axial plane
    D. plastic strain response
    E. an upward arch
    B. horizontal limbs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. A structural basin is simply a circular:
    A. normal fault
    B. syncline
    C. dome
    D. anticline
    B. syncline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. The block of material overlying an inclined fault plane is the:
    A. foot wall
    B. hanging wall
    C. isoclinal wall
    D. plunging
    B. hanging wall
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. If the hanging wall has moved down, the fault is -
    A. normal
    B. strike-slip
    C. thrust
    D. reverse
    A. normal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. A bed that dips due east, must strike:
    A. North 45 degrees West
    B. North 45 degrees East
    C. dip to the east is unrelated to strike
    D. due west
    E. north-south
    E. north-south
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. If the surface exposures (map view) of folded beds resemble Avas or horseshoes, then the folds must be:
    A. isoclinal
    B. recumbent
    C. overturned
    D. plunging
    D. plunging
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. The San Andreas Fault system can be described as -
    A. strike-slip
    B. thrust dip-slip
    C. normal dip-slip
    D. reverse oblique-slip
    E. left lateral
    A. strike-slip
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. Geologic structures (faults and folds) are important in oil and gas exploration because -
    A. structures only form where there is oil and gas
    B. all geologic structures contain oil and gas deposits
    C. structures are caused by oil and gas generation
    D. structures can trap oil and gas
    D. structures can trap oil and gas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. A ___ is a fracture in bedrock along with movement has taken place
    A. joint
    B. fault
    C. strike
    D. plane
    B. fault
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  155. In an overturned fold, the limbs dip -
    A. in the same direction
    B. perpendicular to each other
    C. in the opposite direction
    D. at an obtuse angle to each other
    A. in the same direction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. If the fault dips toward the up-thrown block, the fault is-
    A. thrust
    B. normal
    C. strike-slip
    D. reverse
    D. reverse
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. If a sequence of beds gets younger toward the east, then they must be dipping to the-
    A. north
    B. east
    C. west
    D. no dip
    E. south
    B. east
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. We know what the mantle is made of because-
    A. samples of the shallow mantle are brought up in some volcanoes
    B. because the surface of the moon is made up of mantle material
    C. we have obtained samples from drill holes
    D. seismic waves are able to determine mineral composition of rocks traversed
    A. samples of the shallow mantle are brought up in some volcanoes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. Show me the Rift Valley of East Africa, and I'll show you a-
    A. transform plate boundary
    B. diverging plate boundary
    C. converging plate boundary
    D. back arc spreading center
    B. diverging plate boundary
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  160. The Himalayan Mountains formed by-
    A. spreading center
    B. continent-ocean convergence
    C. continent-continent convergence
    D. ocean-ocean convergence
    C. continent-continent convergence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. The Red Sea is interpreted as-
    A. a convergent plate boundary
    B. a transform margin
    C. a newly developed trench system
    D. a flooded rift valley
    D. a flooded rift valley
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  162. Most of the world's largest mountain belts were formed in response to-
    A. intrusions
    B. tensional stress
    C. compressional stress
    D. metamorphism
    C. compressional stress
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  163. The Basin and Range Province of the western US are characterized by a large number of-
    A. ice covered mountain peaks
    B. volcanoes
    C. fault block mountains
    D. folded mountains
    C. fault block mountains
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  164. A fold that exposes beds that dip in toward the center of the fold is a-
    A. anticline
    B. homocline
    C. syncline
    D. monocline
    C. syncline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. The low-standing plains between horst-blocks are-
    A. anti-horst
    B. monoclines
    C. draboids
    D. graben
    D. graben
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  166. According to the concept of ___, "floating" mountains adjust their elevation in response to the erosion by upward buoyancy as surface material is removed.
    A. isostasy
    B. block faulting
    C. delamination
    D. geosynclines
    A. isostasy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  167. The Alps, Himalayas, and Appalachains-
    A. are volcanic
    B. have little in common
    C. are folded mountains
    D. are horst blocks
    C. are folded mountains
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. The compass direction formed by the intersection of a dipping surface and a horizontal place is the-
    A. dip
    B. plunge
    C. rake
    D. strike
    D. strike
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  169. Fractures in rock without movement along the fractures are called-
    A. fracts
    B. dips
    C. ankles
    D. joints
    D. joints
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. Source materials for the sedimentary rocks in the Appalachian Mountains was located to the ____ of the present day mountains.
    A. east
    B. north
    C. south
    D. west
    A. east
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. The Coast Ranges of Washington, Oregon, and northern California are formed by-
    A. faulting
    B. volcanoes
    C. laccoliths
    D. folding
    B. volcanoes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. The Andres Mountains of South America are an example of mountains formed by-
    A. stretching the crust
    B. ocean plate-continental plate convergence
    C. rifting
    D. collision of China and South America
    B. ocean-continental convergence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  173. The Basin and Range topography of western US is related to-
    A. stretching the crust
    B. folding the crust
    C. squeezing the crust
    A. stretching the crust
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. The stable interior of the continent is known as its-
    A. craton
    B. cruton
    C. neutron
    D. futon
    A. craton
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. The Texas Hill Country and the Ozark Mountains are examples of mountain or hilly terrain formed by-
    A. dissection by stream erosion
    B. faulting
    C. vocanism
    D. folding
    A. dissection by stream erosion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. The core of the Sierra Nevada Mountains and Smoky Mountains exposes-
    A. igneous rock
    B. volcanic rock
    C. folded layers
    A. igneous rock
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  177. The North American continent has grown progressively-
    A. larger by continental accretion
    B. fatter by sedimentation
    C. taller by crustal loading
    D. smaller by transform faulting
    A. larger by continental accretion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  178. The term Aorogeny refers to-
    A. a type of fault
    B. mountain building
    C. a type of fold
    D. volcanism
    B. mountain building
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  179. The oldest rocks in North America can be found in-
    A. Florida
    B. California
    C. Canada
    D. Kansas
    C. Canada
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  180. rivers and glaciers get their energy from?
    solar energy and the external heat engine
  181. the internal heat engine provides the energy for?
    earthquakes
  182. the earths tectonic plates are moved by convection in the?
    mantle
  183. all of the earth's oceans floor was created in ?
    mid ocean ridges
  184. what feature is found when two oceanic plates converge
    trench
  185. compared to oceanic crust, continental crust is
    less dense
  186. the deepest earthquakes are
    where plates are converging
  187. the himalaya mountains formed
    as two continents collided
  188. a rift valley would be founded where tectonic plates are
    diverging
  189. the hawaiian islands are
    over a hot spot in the mantle
  190. the atomic particle with a positive electrical charge is called the
    proton
  191. which of the followings elements would form cations?
    iron
  192. the sun's energy is produced by
    nuclear fusion
  193. an amoprhous solid is a
    glass
  194. the type of chemical bond that is most flexiable is the
    metallic
  195. a mineral must be a........
    solid
  196. what is an example of something that is not a mineral
    wood
  197. what is an example of something that is not a mineral
    oil
  198. metallic, glassy, dull, and non metallic are examples of
    luster
  199. which property is useful in identifying almost all minerals
    hardness
  200. a mineral that breaks into curved irregular fragments is demonstrating
    fracture
  201. mafic minerals are rich in
    iron and magnesium
  202. a volcanic rock with a mafic composition is called
    basalt
  203. an ingneous rock with two different sizes of crystals in it is
    porphyritic
  204. sharp angular lava is called
    aa
  205. cinder cones
    are entirely made of pyroclastic material
  206. the largest volcanoes are
    shield volcanoes
  207. the type of volcano made of andesite is
    composite volcano
  208. a good example of caldera is
    crater lake
  209. a nuee ardante is
    a glowing cloud of hot gas and ash
  210. a lava that erupts underwater would have
    pillow structure
  211. a felsic intrusive rock would be called
    granite
  212. mineral usually known as fools gold
    pyrite
  213. biotite is a type of
    mafic mica
  214. decompression or the lowering of pressure can cause a rock to
    melt
  215. the rate that the temperature increases with depth downward into the earths is the
    geothermal gradient
  216. according to bowen's reaction series the first silicate mineral to melt ad a rock is heated will be
    quarts
  217. an example of a mineral not apart of the bowen's reaction series
    gypsum
  218. polymorphs are different minerals with the same
    chemical formula
  219. calcite dolomite and malachite are
    sulfides
  220. a igneous structure that is cuts the bedding in older rocks is called
    dike
  221. igneous rock made of giant crystals is called
    pegmatite
  222. element
    • basic substance that can never be subdivided by any chemical or physical means
    • 92 in nature
  223. ion
    an atom (or group) that had gained or lost electrons and it had an electric charge
  224. isotope
    an atom of the same element with different mad and different number of neutrons
  225. atomic bonding and there are 4 types
    • METALIC BONDING: between cations substaines, flexiable, good conductors
    • COVALENT BONDING: between anions, strongest bong, brittle, poor conductors
    • IONIC BONDING: cation and anion, poor conductors brittle medium to soft hardness
    • WEAK BONDING: between groups of atoms, brittle soft to medium hardness, low melting point
  226. minerals
    an inorganic naturally occuring crystaline solid with a definite composition and definite physical and chemical properties
  227. earth materials
    rock and minerals
  228. external process
    wind water rivers streams glaciers waves currents
  229. nuclear fusion
    small atoms combined and matter is turned into energy
  230. internal process
    earthquakes volcanos tectonic plated movemnt
  231. nuclear fissions
    large atoms split apart and miss is converted to energy
  232. felsic rocks are
    • rich in silicon and aliminum
    • lighter in color
    • less dense
  233. polymorphs
    different minerals with the same chemical formula nut different crystal structure
  234. ingneous rock
    produced by melting other rocks
  235. 3 ways to melt a rock
    • 1. raising the temperature
    • 2. lowering the pressure
    • 3. add volatiles
  236. plutons
    body of solidfied magma
  237. dike
    cut through the layers in a country rock
  238. partial melting
    produces a magma more felsic then the original rock
  239. plutonic or intrusive igneous
    • form below the earths surface and form magma
    • crystalize slowly
  240. volcanic or extrusive igneous
    • format the earths surface
    • crystalize quickly from lava
  241. felsic lave
    • lower tempertaure higher viscosity
    • explosive
  242. mafic lava
    • higher temperature
    • lower visersity;
    • less explosive
  243. lava dome
    • made of felsic lava
    • small up to 6000 feet
    • steep
    • explosive
  244. cinder cone
    • made entirely of pyroclastic material
    • mafic (basalt)
    • gas, rich lava
    • small volcanoes
    • steep
    • often found in groups
    • can appear suddenly
    • can flow from the base
  245. stratovolcano or composite cone
    "classic volcano"
    • andesite intermedite composition
    • layers of lava and pyroclosticas
    • large up to 20000 ft
    • explosive
  246. shield volcano
    mafic lava
    • biggest up to 30000 ft high
    • not explosive
    • gental slope
  247. flood basalts
    • very fluid mafic lava
    • no cone
    • can cover huge areas of land 1000s of miles
  248. caldera
    huge volcanic crater formed when a volcano collapes down into a particle empty magma chamber
  249. xenolithla
    partically melted pieces of country rock included in the magma
  250. what 4 steps make sedimentary rock
    • WEATHERING: parent rock is turned away to sediment (or ions solution)
    • TRANSPORT: sediment is carried away by water (steams, rivers, glaciers, ice)
    • DEPOSITION: sediment accumulates in a new location
    • LITHIFICATION: the sediment is turned into sedimentary rock
  251. 2 types of weathering
    • phyisical or metranical weathering
    • the parent rock is broken into fragments called clast and the reason for that is abrasion (the impact of clast being transported)
    • Chemical weathering:
    • parent rock is dissolved
  252. carbonic acid
    • all rain is slightly acidic
    • weak acid (dose not affect living things)
  253. suffic acid or hydrochlorie acid
    • strong acid
    • problem by human pollition
  254. organic acid
    • plant roots
    • rotting vegitations
  255. sediment maturity
    increases when sediement is carried by water and wind
  256. depostion
    important enviornment of depostion
  257. lithification
    • turing sediments into rock
    • 1. compaction
    • 2. cementation crystals: crystal overgrows precipitate out from the ground water and lock grains together
  258. ground levels
    • 0 horizon: organic matter
    • A horizon: mixed organic and sediment
    • E horizon: zone of solution
    • B horizon: zone of accumuliation
    • C horizon: weather rock fragments

    solid rock
  259. chemical sedimentary rock
    made of material transported as ions in a solution usually
  260. organic sedimentary rock
    made of organic living materials
  261. An Aquifer is
    A body of saturated rock or sediment though which water could move easily and is determined by its determined by its perosity & permeability( opposite of Aquitard or Aguiclude)
  262. What rock type is likely to posses the highest porosity
    Shale
  263. The rock type that is likely to posses the highest permeability
    Sandstone
  264. What determines how quickly ground water flows?
    Elevation, permeability, water pressure
  265. Artesian wells
    Water rises under own pressure
  266. Stalactites
    Hang down
  267. Stalagmites
    Hang up ^
  268. The decline in the levelin the level of the water table around a pumping well is known as
    The cone of depression
  269. Prolonged withdrawl of water from an aquifer
    can alter the porosity or permeabilty of an aquifer
  270. The top of the water saturated zoneis known as
    The water table
  271. Geyers and hotsprings
    are caused by groundwater being geothermaly heated
  272. Caves and cavern systems are formed by
    Ground water dissolving limestone and dolomite
  273. Gaining streams are those where
    water from a saturated zone flows into the stream
  274. Chapter 1: Which item listed below has helped to increase the carrying capacity of the earth?
    A. the development of nitrogen based fertilizers
    B. the development and application of chemical pesticides
    C. the development and application of chemical herbicides
    D. genetic modification of grains and other crops
    E. all of the above
    E. all of the above
  275. Chapter 1: What is the population of the world likely to be by the year 2050?
    A. 6 billion
    B. 90 million
    C. 900 million
    D. 9 billion
    E. 600 million
    D. 9 billion?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  276. Chapter 1: Which of the following statements is true regarding the world population growth since 1965?
    A. it has been increasing slowly
    B. it has been increasing at an alarming rate
    C. it has been decreasing slowly
    D. it has stayed the same
    E. it has been decreasing at an alarming rate
    C. it has been decreasing slowly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  277. Chapter 1: IPAT equation is about which of the following?
    A. earthquake prediction
    B. inflation
    C. environmental impact
    D. global warming trends
    E. slope stability
    C. environmental impact
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  278. Chapter 1: Which of the following is true of Environmental Geology?
    A. it is concerned with how natural geological process affect man
    B. it is concerned largely with surface geological processes
    C. it applies the science of geology to problems arising from the complex interactions of water, soil, air, soild earth and life
    D. it seeks ways for the earth's inhabitants to interact safely with their geological surroundings
    E. all of the above
    E. all of the above
  279. Chapter 1: The number of people/ animals that can be supported by a given area of land is called:
    A. population dynamics
    B. growth rate
    C. doubling time
    D. carrying capacity
    E. critical mass
    D. carrying capacity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  280. Chapter 1: Which of the following is true of the world population in the 20th century?
    A. it quintupled
    B. it quadrupled
    C. it tripled
    D. it remained the same because of wars
    E. it doubled
    B. it quadrupled
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  281. Chapter 1: Which of the following is not a variable in the IPAT equation?
    A. Impact
    B. Technology
    C. Affluence
    D. Natural Resources
    E. Populations
    D. Natural Resources?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  282. Chapter 1: Exceeding of carrying capacity is referred to as
    A. involutional melancholia
    B. diminishing returns
    C. negative feedback
    D. population dynamics
    E. ecological overshoot
    E. ecological overshoot
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  283. Chapter 1: Which of the following is NOT one of the environmental "successes" that have been accomplished since 1970?
    A. unleaded gasoline has reduced lead emission by 98%
    B. the California gray whale, the bald eagle, and the American alligator have been removed from the endangered species list
    C. the numer of large cities violating the clean-air standards has dropped significantly
    D. concentrations of atmospheric carbon dioxide have begun to decrease
    E. all of the above
  284. D. concentrations of atmospheric carbon dioxide have begun to decrease?
  285. Chapter 1: What factor other than decreased birth rates has contributed to the lower United Nations world population project (made in 2002) for the year 2050?
    A. HIV / AIDS
    B. highway deaths
    C. deaths from war
    D. pollution-related deaths
    E. acts of terrorism
    A. HIV / AIDS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  286. Chapter 1: Which of the following is NOT somethng that is included on derivative maps?
    A. landslide hazards zones
    B. depth to underground water
    C. areas susceptible to flooding
    D. seismic hazard zones
    E. all of the above
    E. all of the above
  287. Chapter 1: What is the computer system that assembles, stores, manipulates and displays geographic data according to location?
    A. GIS
    B. GSA
    C. GPS
    D. GPA
    E. GOP
    A. GIS?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  288. Chapter 1: What are lines of equal elevation called on a topographic maps?
    A. grid lines
    B. geological contacts
    C. isotherms
    D. lineations
    E. contours
    B. geological contacts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  289. Chapter 1: How much greater are population growth rates in the poorer countries than they are in the richer countries?
    A. 8 times
    B. 6 times
    C. 10 times
    D. 2 times
    E. 4 times
    B. 6 times
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  290. Chapter 1 True or False: The large argicultural yields obtained today are fundamentally dependant upon fossil fuels.
    True
  291. Chapter 1 True or False: An average American citizen consumes 35 times the resources of an average Indian citizen over the course of his/her lifetime.
    True.
  292. Chapter 1 True or False: Nearly half of the population of the world is living in cities.
    True
  293. Chapter 1 True or False: The main purpose of geological maps is to show the shape of the earth's surface.
    False.
  294. Chapter 1 True or False: Once the earth's carrying capacity is exceeded, population reduction will occur whether we want it to or not.
    True
  295. Chapter 1 True or False: GIS is a new navigational system that will soon replace GPS.
    False
  296. Chapter 1 True or False: Derivative maps are made from computer data sets that are analyzed and plotted for special applications.
    True.
  297. Chapter 1 True or False: Malthus posulated in 1812 that populations growth would soon cause global famine and collapse of society.
    True
  298. Chapter 1 True or False: Annual population growth rate of +1% corresponds to the situation where there were 100 more deaths per thousand individuals than live births in a given year.
    False
  299. Chapter 1 True or False: With a population growth rate of 0.7% it would take 100 years for the population to double.
    True
  300. Chapter 1 True or False: The highest soil degradation rates occur in Africa.
    False
  301. Chapter 1 True or False: Nations that tend to have the greatest environmental impacts are those with the lowest population growth rates.
    True
  302. Chapter 1 True or False: The size of our population is limited by the amount of food we can grow.
    True
  303. Chapter 1 True or False: Since 1950 about one third of all US cropland has been lost to erosion.
    True
  304. Chapter 1 True or False: The population density of the earth has tripled since World War II.
    True
  305. Chapter 2: The geological concept that processes active today have been active during the earth's past history is somethimes paraphrased as "the present is the key to the past" and is called
    A. evolution theory
    B. the law of thermodynamics
    C. involutional melancholia
    D. the law of superposition
    E. the law of Uniformaitarianism
    E. the law of Uniformaitarianism?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  306. Chapter 2: An atom having either a positive or negative electrical charge is called
    A. an ion
    B. none of the foregoing
    C. an electron
    D. an isotope
    E. a molecule
    A. an ion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  307. Chapter 2: A variet of an element that is heavier than normal because of the presences of extra neutrons is called
    A. an isotope
    B. an electron
    C. none of the foregoing
    D. a molecule
    E. an ion
    A. an isotope
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  308. Chapter 2: Most of the mass of an atom is located in its
    A. electrons
    B. nucleus
    C. ions
    D. outer orbits
    E. protons
    B. nucleus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  309. Chapter 2: Which of the following is NOT part of the general definition of a mineral?
    A. inorganic
    B. narrow range of chemical composition
    C. naturally occuring
    D. amorphous
    E. crystalline character
    D. amorphous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  310. Chapter 2: Most of the rocks of the earth's crust are made up of which of the following mineral groups?
    A. vanadates
    B. oxides
    C. tungstates
    D. silicates
    E. carbonates
    D. silicates
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  311. Chapter 2: Which silicate mineral is the most abundant in the earth's crust?
    A. feldspar
    B. calcite
    C. magnetite
    D. obsidian
    E. basalt
    A. feldspar?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  312. Chapter 2: Which property of minerals is variable and therefore the least reliable as a clue in identifying a mineral type?
    A. chemical composition
    B. cleavage
    C. hardness
    D. crystal form
    E. color
    E. color
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  313. Chapter 2: What are the three general classes of rocks that are defined based upon origin?
    A. slate, schist, and gneiss
    B. irgnorant, sedentary, and metaphysical
    C. basaltic, granitic, and andesitic
    D. igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic
    E. sandstone, shale and conglomerate
    D. igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  314. Chapter 2: Plutonic rocks are atype of
    A. metamorphic rock
    B. extrusive igneous rock
    C. volcanic rock
    D. intrusive igneous rock
    E. sedimentary rock
    D. intrusive igneous rock
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  315. Chapter 2: What is a common distinguishing characteristic of sedimentary rock masses?
    A. they are formed by solidification from a melt
    B. they are always very colorful
    C. they tend to be layered
    D. they tend to be extremely hard
    E. all of the above
    C. they tend to be layered
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  316. Chapter 2: In addition to particles, what other material can be found in sedimentary rocks?
    A. Inorganic chemical precipitates
    B. fossils (e.g. shell fragments)
    C. biogenic chemical precipitates
    D. lithified plant debris
    E. all of the above
    E. all of the above
  317. Chapter 2: What distinguishes the pairs of rocks listed in the igneous rock classification from each other?
    (Consider, for example, basalt and gabbro.)
    A. texture
    B. chemical composition
    C. mineral composition
    D. crystal system
    E. all of the above
    A. texture
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  318. Chapter 2: What would be the method of choice for dating an organic substance less than 100,000 years old?
    A. Europium-123
    B. Potassium-40
    C. Carbon-14
    D. Rubidum-87
    E. Uranium-238
    C. Carbon-14?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  319. Chapter 2: What is an aggregate composed of one or more varieties of interlocking mineral crystals called?
    A. quartz
    B. lava
    C. magma
    D. feldspar
    E. rock
    E. rock
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  320. Chapter 2 True or False: The chances of being struck by lightning are about three times higher than the chances of a non-smoker dying from asbestos-related disease.
    True
  321. Chapter 2 True or False: There are over 30,000 mineral species.
    False
  322. Chapter 2 True or False: Oxygen and Silicon alone comprise 75% of crustal rocks by weight.
    True
  323. Chapter 2 True or False: About 20 out of the thousands of known mineral species make up the bulk of the earth's crust.
    True
  324. Chapter 2 True or False: In comparison to white asbestos, blue asbesto is the less harmful type used for industrial purposes.
    False
  325. Chapter 2 True or False: Magma is the general term for molten rock including bother underground and surface occurrences.
    False.
  326. Chapter 2 True or False: Rapid cooling of molten rock produces large crystals.
    False.
  327. Chapter 2 True or False: Rocks such as basalt, on the ride of the igneous rock classification, are darker-colored and have higher specific gravity than do rocks such as granite, on the left side.
    True
  328. Chapter 2 True or False: Metamorphic rocks where minerals have been flattened into layers by directed pressure are saild to be foilated.
    True
  329. Chapter 2 True or False: Relative age dating enables scientists to determine the age in years of a rock mass, whereas absolute age dating can only determine the sequence of events.
    False
  330. Chapter 2 True or False:? Rock layers containing extensive fossils of organisms with hard parts represent only about 12% of geologic time.
    True
  331. Chapter 2 True or False: In two "half-lives," one fourth of a radioactive substance will remain.
    True
  332. Chapter 2 True or False: Dates on zircons from western Australia suggest that the oldest crustal rocks are more than 4 billion years old.
    True
  333. Chapter 2 True or False: The earliest evidence of life on earth is over 3 billion years old.
    True.
  334. Chapter 2 True or False: Most of the world's diamonds come from South America.
    False.
  335. Chapter 3: Which of the following is NOT one of the lines of evidence cited by Alfred Wegener in support of the Continental Drift hypothesis?
    A. the puzzle piece like fit of the edges of continents
    B. glacial patterns
    C. fossil animals
    D. fossil plants
    E. studies of the earth's magnetic field
    E. studies of the earth's magnetic field
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  336. Chapter 3: Which of the following is NOT part of the lithosphere?
    A. continental crust
    B. oceanic crust
    C. mantle lid
    D. asthenosphere
    E. all are part of the lithosphere
    D. asthenosphere
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  337. Chapter 3: Which of the following is a type of plate boundary where new sea floor is formed?
    A. convergent
    B. transform
    C. passive
    D. divergent
    E. emergent
    D. divergent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  338. Chapter 3: At what type of plate boundary do compression and subduction take place?
    A. transform
    B. passive
    C. emergent
    D. divergent
    E. convergent
    E. convergent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  339. Chapter 3: What essential line of evidence in the 1960's helped to confirm the motion of the continents?
    A. fossil plants
    B. studies of the earth's magentic field
    C. fossil animals
    D. puzzle piece like fit of the edges of the continents
    E. glacial patterns
    B. studies of the earth's magentic field
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  340. Chapter 3: The sequence of events that describes the opening and closing of ocean basins is called
    A. the Wilson cycle
    B. the lithologic cycle
    C. die Vershiebung der Kontinente
    D. the geophysical cycle
    E. orogenesis
    A. the Wilson cycle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  341. Chapter 3: What force is thought to be an important cause of plate tectonic motion?
    A. volcanic eruptions
    B. thermal convection currents
    C. earth tides
    D. earthquakes
    E. shear strain
    B. thermal convection currents
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  342. Chapter 3: What was the name given by Alfred Wegener for the single large continent that he believed existed at the end of the Paleozoic Era?
    A. Pangea
    B. Eurasia
    C. Eurasis
    D. Laurentia
    E. Gondwanaland
    A. Pangea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  343. Chapter 3: What type of plate boundary is the San Andreas Fault?
    A. divergent
    B. transform
    C. convergent
    D. passive
    E. none of the above
    B. transform
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  344. Chapter 3: Which of the following is a characteristic or feature of a convergent plate boundary?
    A. compressive stress
    B. subduction complex
    C. volcanic arc
    D. trench
    E. all of the above
    E. all of the above
  345. Chapter 3: What does a Benioff-Wadati zone refer to?
    A. a subduction zone
    B. an area lacking deep earthquakes
    C. an area of high heat flow
    D. an area of extensional stress
    E. a transform plate boundary
    A. a subduction zone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  346. Chapter 3: What was the name of the concept proposed by Harry Hess in 1960 that provided a mechanism for the Continental Drift hypothesis?
    A. polar wandering
    B. the expanding earth theory
    C. sea floor spreading
    D. obduction
    E. dynamic physiography
    C. sea floor spreading
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  347. Chapter 3: What was the main objection to the Continental Drift hypothesis?
    A. its German name, die Verschiebung der Kontinente, was too difficult to pronouce
    B. Wegener's paleomagnetic data was fault
    C. Wegener could not provide a mechanism for moving the continents
    D. Wegener was not even a certified geologist
    E. all of the above
    C. Wegener could not provide a mechanism for moving the continents
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  348. Chapter 3: What do VLBI, SLR, and GPS have in common with respect to plate tectonics?
    A. they are methods of measuring the velocity of plate motion
    B. they are abbreviations of the names of various lithospheric plates
    C. they are funding organizations that support research
    D. they refer to ways of expressing the intensity of earthquakes shaking in a subduction zone
    E. they are types of heat sensors
    A. they are methods of measuring the velocity of plate motion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  349. Chapter 3: Which statement below is true about the oceanic crust in comparison to continental crust?
    A. oceanic crust is heavier and has about the same thickness
    B. oceanic crust is thicker and lighter (lower specific gravity)
    C. oceanic crust is thicker and heavier (higher specific gravity)
    D. oceanic crust is thinner and heavier (higher specific gravity)
    E. oceanic crust is thinner and lighter (lower specific gravity)
    D. oceanic crust is thinner and heavier (higher specific gravity)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  350. Chapter 3 True or False: Alfred Wegener is credited with developing the modern theory of Plate Tectonics back in the year 1910
    False
  351. Chapter 3 True or False: The crust of the earth is thickest under mountain ranges and thinnest in oceanic areas
    True
  352. Chapter 3 True or False: The lithospheric plates are thought to move primarily as a result of thermal conduction
    False
  353. Chapter 3 True or False:? Transform plate boundaries are places where shear stresses dominate.
    True.
  354. Chapter 3 True or False: There are 3 types of convergent plate boundaries.
    True.
  355. Chapter 3 True or False: The earth's magnetic field has reversed itself many times in the geologic past.
    True
  356. Chapter 3 True or False: The oldest ocean floor is less than 200 million years old.
    True.
  357. Chapter 3 True or False: Sea floor spreading happens at a rate of several meters per year.
    False.
  358. Chapter 3 True or False: The Mediterranean Sea has dried up completely during the geologic past and then rapidly refilled again.
    True
  359. Chapter 3 True or False: People living along a passive margin have a low probability of experience volcanoes and earthquakes
    True
  360. Chapter 3 True or False: There are 70 major plates that cover the outer surface of the earth
    False
  361. Chapter 3 True or False: Volcanic mountain ranges and deep earthquakes are common features of continental-oceanic convergent plate boundaries.
    True
  362. Chapter 3 True or False: The highest mountain ranges on earth occur along oceanic-oceanic convergent plate boundaries.
    False.
  363. Chapter 3 True or False: The Hawaiian Islands formed at a spreading ridge.
    False
  364. Chapter 3 True or False: Yellowstone is considered to be a potentially hazardous volcanic center because it's located above a hot spot.
    True
  365. Chapter 4: Reverse, normal and strike-slip all refer to types of
    A. plays in football
    B. tectonic plates
    C. faults
    D. earthquakes
    E. none of the foregoing
    C. faults?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  366. Chapter 4: What is the map location of an earthquake called?
    A. epicenter
    B. ground zero
    C. nexus
    D. focus
    E. a bad place to be
    A. epicenter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  367. Chapter 4: What is stress?
    A. change in position
    B. change in shape
    C. change in volume
    D. force applied to an area
    E. all of the above
    D. force applied to an area
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  368. Chapter 4: What is the point of subsurface origin of an earthquake called?
    A. ground zero
    B. focus
    C. a bad place to be
    D. nexus
    E. epicenter
    B. focus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  369. Chapter 4: Which type of earthquake wave moves the fastest?
    A. P-waves
    B. Permanent waves
    C. S-waves
    D. Rayleigh waves
    E. Love waves
    A. P-waves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  370. Chapter 4: Which type of earthquake wave could travel through a vaccum?
    A. P-waves
    B. S-waves
    C. surface waves
    D. all of the above
    E. none of the above
    E. none of the above
  371. Chapter 4: Which type of earthquake wave most closely resembles sound waves?
    A. S-waves
    B. P-waves
    C. Love waves
    D. Rayleigh waves
    E. none of the above
    B. P-waves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  372. Chapter 4: Which type of earthquake body wave cannot pass through liquids?
    A. Love waves
    B. Surface waves
    C. S-waves
    D. Rayleigh waves
    E. P-waves
    C. S-waves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  373. Chapter 4: How much more energy does a magnitude 8 earthquake release than a magnitude 7 earthquake?
    A. 30 times more
    B. 900 times more
    C. 10 times more
    D. 27,000 times more
    E. 2 times more
    A. 30 times more
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  374. Chapter 4: How is the distance to the epicenter of an earthquake determined using a seismograph?
    A. the arrival times of surface waves are notes
    B. by considering the delay time between the P-waves and the slower S-waves
    C. by how hard the seismograph needle swings back and forth
    D. travel time is clocked and then compared to the reported time of the earthquake at the epicenter
    E. you can't do this with a single seismograph
    B. by considering the delay time between the P-waves and the slower S-waves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  375. Chapter 4: What is one way that earthquake intensities are determined?
    A. with seismeters
    B. with seismographs
    C. with postal questionnaires
    D. with satellites
    E. with accelerometers
    C. with postal questionnaires?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  376. Chapter 4: How much more energy does a magnitude 8 earthquake release than a magitude 6 earthquake?
    A. 30 times more
    B. 10 times more
    C. 27,000 times more
    D. 2 times more
    E. 900 times more
    E. 900 times more
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  377. Chapter 4: What did the San Francisco (1906) and Kobe (1995) earthquakes have in common?
    A. there were large uncontrolled fires
    B. landslides were a major cause of death
    C. there were huge tsunamis
    D. they were the same size
    E. all of the above
    A. there were large uncontrolled fires
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  378. Chapter 4: What can be concluded from the observation that objects were thrown into the air during the earthquake?
    A. the site was not constructed according to code
    B. the ground acceleration was greater than 1.0 g
    C. the first motion of the ground was down
    D. there was an elastic ground response
    E. the earthquake had a magnitude of greater than 7.5
    B. the ground acceleration was greater than 1.0 g
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  379. Chapter 4: Where is the safest place, among those listed below, in the 48 continguous states with respect to earthquake seismic risk?
    A. South Carolina
    B. Maine
    C. all have low seimic risk
    D. Missouri
    E. South Dakota
    E. South Dakota
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  380. Chapter 4 True or False: Movements on faults must be abrupt in order for earthquakes to occur.
    True
  381. Chapter 4 True or False: All earthquakes break the ground surface
    False
  382. Chapter 4 True or False: Compression is the kind of force that produces normal faults.
    False
  383. Chapter 4 True or False: The focus of an earthquake is the point on the ground surface directly above the epicenter.
    False
  384. Chapter 4 True or False: Shear forces characterize the San Andreas fault.
    True
  385. Chapter 4 True or False: Earthquakes below about 300 kilometers in depth cause little or no damage.
    True
  386. Chapter 4 True or False: Earthquake waves that travel along the surface of the earth are called body waves.
    False.
  387. Chapter 4 True or False: Body waves generally slow down as they go deeper into the earth.
    False
  388. Chapter 4 True or False: Surface waves are generated by body waves.
    True
  389. Chapter 4 True or False:? p-waves travel slower than S-waves.
    False
  390. Chapter 4 True or False: A single seismograph can determine the location of an earthquake.
    False
  391. Chapter 4 True or False: No earthquake has been observed with the Richter Magnitude of greater than 8.9
    True
  392. Chapter 4 True or False: The "moment magnitude scale" has replaced the Richter Scale.
    True
  393. Chapter 4 True or False: Mercalli intensities are determined from seismographs.
    False
  394. A magnitude 7 earthquake releases 27,000 times more energy than a magnitude 4 earthquake.
    True
  395. what is albedo
    fraction of solar energy reflected by surface of planet or moon
  396. carbon cycle
    geosystem of the movement of carbon among atmosphere & lithosphere, hydro & bio
  397. el nino
    anomalous warming of easter tropical pacific ocean occurs 3-7 yrs, lasting +/- year
  398. green house effect
    global warming via atmosphere w/ greenhouse gases radiating solar energy back less efficiently
  399. milankovitch cycle
    astronomical; causes periodic variations in the amount of heart earth gets from sun. cycles include: eccentricity of earths orbit, tilt of earth & precession: wobble on axis of rotation
  400. hanging valley
    valley left by melted tributary glacier that enters large glacial valley, high on wall
  401. kettle
    hollow depression w/ steep sides & maybe occupied of water: formed in glacial deposit
  402. moraine
    accumulation of rock, sandy, clayey material carried by glacial ice & deposited as till
  403. permafrost
    permanently frozen rock & ice: below 0 degrees for 2 yrs
  404. plastic flow
    total of all small movement of ice crystals that make up glacier -> results in large movement
  405. striation
    scratch/groove on bedrock by overriding ice
  406. till
    unsaturated & poorly sorted sediment w/ all sizes of fragments deposited by glacial action
  407. ablation
    the total amount of ice that a glacier loses each year
  408. basal slip
    the sliding of a glacier along its base
  409. cirque
    hollow, half inverted cone-like shape formed at the head of glacial valley by tearing & plucking action of ice
  410. crevasse
    vertical crack on surface of glacier from movement of brittle surface ice via plastic flow
  411. drumlin
    streamlined hill of till & bedrock that parallels ice movement of continental glacier
  412. esker
    long, narrow ridge of sand/gravel in middle of a ground moraline
  413. fjord
    formed glacial valley occupied by sea
  414. principal or original horizontality
    sediments are deposited under the influence of gravity as nearly horizontal beds
  415. principle of superposition
    each sedimentary layer of an undisturbed sequence is younger than 1 beneath it & older than above -> a younger layer cannot be deposited under old
  416. principle of faunal succession
    the layers of sedimentary rocks in out crop have fossils in sequence
  417. cross-cutting relationships
    dikes can cut through sedimentary layers, sills can be intruded parallel & faults can displace bedding planes, dikes & sills
  418. sequence stratigraphy
    basic geologic unit observed by the seismic imagine of sediments in a series of beds bounded above & below by unconformities
  419. chemical stratigraphy
    chemical finger prints that extend regionally/globally which can help match sedimentary rocks
  420. paleomagnetic straitgraphy
    reversals of earths magnetic field recorded in the orientation of magnetic minerals in volcanic rocks
  421. detrital sedimentary
    made of pieces of pre-existing rocks -> differientated by grain size (micro, sand, macro)
  422. organic sedimentary
    made of organic material produced by plants/animals -> distinguishable by hardness
  423. inorganic chemical sedimentary
    when sediment precipitates from water
  424. non-foliated metamorphic
    macro texture -> formed by contact metamorphism, generally 1 mineral
  425. foliated metamorphic
    maybe shiny -> quartzite & marble
  426. P-Wave
    the 1st seismic wave to arrive from the focus of an earthquake
  427. S-Wave
    • the 2nd seismic wave to arrive from the focus of an earthquake
    • *Travel 1/2 as fact as P-Waves (17000m/hr OR 8km/sec)
    • *The longer the P-S interval, the further away the quake
    • *distance to an earthquake = measure P-S interval & compare a time v. distance graph
  428. polar cell
    air circulated in troposphere, warm air rises at lower latitudes & moves poleward through upper troposphere, when it reaches poles, it cools & descends as cold, dry high pressure area
  429. coriolis effect:
    • deflection of moving object when viewed from rotating reference frame
    • *earths rotation on axis
  430. doldrum
    intertropical convergence zone, low calm winds
  431. jet stream:
    fast flowing, narror air current between troposphere & stratosphere
  432. thermohaline circulation
    3D pattern of ocean circulation driven by differences in temperature & salinity: important of ocean-atmosphere climate system
  433. atmosphere
    mixture of gases: 78% nitrogen, 21% nitrogen
  434. troposphere
    3/4 mass of atmosphere, lowest level (11 KM), responsible for weather
  435. stratosphere
    cold, dry layer above troposphere going to 50 km has most of the ozone
  436. hadley cell
    closed circulation loop beginning at equator w/ warm, moist air, lifted in low pressure areas
  437. ferrel cell
    mixing between hadley & polar southern overrides hadley, northern overrides polar
  438. continental interior desert
    inland desert formed b/c by the time air masses reach interior, they have lost moisture
  439. polar desert
    annual precipitation less than 250 mm & high temp of 10 degree c
  440. ephemeral stream:
    stream that flows only after rain/snow-melt & has no base flow component
  441. sand dune prerequisites (3)
    • 1) abundant supply of loose sand in a region generally void of vegetation
    • 2)a wind energy source sufficient to move sand
    • 3) topography where the sand loses momentum & settles
  442. kinds of sedimentary rocks (3)
    detrital, organic & inorganic
  443. playa lake
    permanent/temporary lake in arid mountain valley or basins
  444. slip face
    steep lee slope of a dune on which sand is deposited in cross-beds at angle of repose
  445. ventifact
    wind-faceted pebble with several curved/flat surfaces that meet at sharp ridges via sandblast
  446. subtropical desert
    warm & arid, average temp above 32 degree f w/ annual rainfall less than 50cm & usually less than 25 cm, no vegetation
  447. trade wind desert
    little rain & high temp that occurs when winds blow over land
  448. rain shadow desert
    area of land that receives reduced precipitation due to close proximity to mountain
  449. deflation
    removal of dust, silt & sand from dry soil by strong winds that make depressions
  450. desert pavement
    ground too large for the wind to move, deflation removes fine particles
  451. desert varnish
    dark brown, shiny mix of clay, manganese & iron oxides on rock surfaces
  452. loess
    blanket of unstratified, wind-deposited, fine-grain sediment rich in clay minerals
  453. pediment
    broad, gently sloping platform of bedrock left behind as a mountain front erodes
  454. igneous rocks
    form by crystallization from magma
  455. intrusive igneous
    crystallie when magma intrudes into unmelted rock
  456. extrusive igneous
    • form from rapidly cooled magmas that erupt at surface via volcano
    • *quartz, feldspar, mica, pyroxene, olivine
  457. sedimentary rocks
    • formed by sediments of sand, silt, shells. layer when deposited
    • *lithified (held together) by: compact or cementation
  458. metamorphic rock
    formed by high pressures on igneous, sedimentary or metamorphic which chemically changes them
  459. what are the physical properties of minerals (5)
    hardness, clevage, fracture, color & streak
  460. what is hardness (in terms of properties of minerals)
    • measure of the ease w/ which the surface can be scratched
    • *depends on chemical bonds
  461. what is cleavage (in terms of properties of minerals)
    • tendency of a crystal to break along flat planar surfaces
    • *high bond strength = poor cleavage
    • * low bond strength =good cleavage
    • *covalent bond = poor/no cleavage
    • *ionic bond = very good cleavage
  462. fracture (in terms of properties of mineral)
    tendency to break on irregular surfaces
  463. barchans
    cresent-like dunes usually in groups. horns of crescent go downwind. products of limited sand & unidirectional wind
  464. blowout dunes
    reverse of barchans -> slip face is convex downwind
  465. transverse dunes
    long ridges oriented at right angles to the wind direction. form in arid place w/ abundant sand & no vegetation
  466. linear dunes
    long ridges of sand oriented parallel to wind direction reach height of 100 M. formed w/ moerate sand supple rough pavement & constant wind direction
  467. thermal inversion
    • movement of cold air above & hot air below in reverse positions
    • *Thermal inversion occurs when a layer of warm air settles over a layer of cooler air that lies near the ground. The warm air holds down the cool air and prevents pollutants from rising and scattering.
  468. background radiation
    radiation that is always occuring
  469. groundwater aquifier
    underground water that flows downhill, cannot permeate clay
  470. horn
    glaciers that changed the appearance of a land form to sharp & jagged
  471. Phaneritic:
    Large crystals
  472. Aphanitic:
    Microscopic crystals
  473. Porphyritic:
    large crystals embedded in a matrix of smaller crystals
  474. Pegmatitic:
    coarse grained
  475. Bowen's reaction series:
    Minerals crystallize in a systematic fashion based on their melting points
  476. Example of a shield volcano:
    Mauna Loa
  477. What kind of lava do shield volcanoes have?
    basaltic lava
  478. Example of a composite cone volcano:
    Mt. St. Helens
  479. Which type of volcano is the largest:
    composite cone
  480. Which volcano is the shortest and most short-lived?
    Cinder cone
  481. The four major sediment types:
    • cosmogenous
    • byogenous
    • hydrogenous
    • lithogenous
  482. Schistosity:
    layered structure, platy minerals that are discernible with the unaided eye
  483. Where do wave fronts radiate from an eartquake?
    Epicenter
  484. Where do most earthquakes occur?
    Plate Boundaries
  485. Great earthquakes are associated with what kind of motion?
    Stick-slip
  486. P-Waves:
    • travels through solids and liquids
    • Short
    • Short in height
  487. L-Waves:
    • travel at earth's surface
    • tall
    • long
  488. S-Waves:
    Travel only through solids
  489. Scale of hardness; fingernail:
    2-2.5
  490. Scale of hardness; copper coin:
    3.5
  491. Scale of hardness; glass:
    5-5.5
  492. Scale of hardness; steel nail:
    5-6
  493. Scale of hardness; streak plate:
    6.5-7
  494. Fool's Gold (Pyrite), like gold, is soft and malleable. T or F
    False
  495. The earth is uniform is composition (all the same stuff) from the center to the surface. T or F
    False
  496. The minerals in igneous rocks all crystallize out of the melt at the same time and temperature. T or F
    False
  497. Minerals are always crystalline solids. T or F
    True
  498. Basalt is the most common intrusive igneous rock. T or F
    False
  499. The "discontinuous series" of Bowen's Reaction Series consists of dark colored minerals. T or F
    True
  500. Rubies and sapphires are composed of exactly the same chemicals. T or F
    True
  501. Present day geologic process are very different than those of the distant past. T or F
    False
  502. The texture of igneous rocks is determined by the cooling rate of the magma. T or F
    True
  503. There are more oxygen atoms in the crust of the earth than in the atmosphere. T or F
    True
  504. The ocean crust is formed mostly of -
    A. Basalt
    B. Granite
    C. Quartz-rick Rock
    D. Sedimentary Rock
    A. Basalt
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  505. Rubies and sapphires are gem quality varieties of -
    A. Topaz
    B. Feldspar
    C. Corundum
    D. Quartz
    C. Corundum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  506. The earth's core is inferred to be -
    A. mostly iron
    B. silica-rich
    C. very cold
    D. hollow
    A. mostly iron
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  507. The premise that present-day processes have operated throughout geologic time is know as the principle of -
    A. catastrophism
    B. uniformitarianism
    C. plate tectonics
    D. modernism
    B. uniformitarianism
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  508. Ocean-ocean convergence zones are marked by the occurrence of -
    A. volcanic island arcs
    B. continental volcanic
    C. mid-oceanic ridges
    D. folded, collision mountains
    A. volcanic island arcs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  509. Dark minerals in igneous rocks are -
    A. iron-magnesium silicates
    B. iron oxides
    C. aluminum-rich minerals
    D. the last minerals to form
    A. iron-magnesium silicates
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  510. Continental crust -
    A. is compressed and thickened at converging plate margins
    B. is composed mostly of basalt
    C. sinks and is consumed at subduction zones
    D. is formed at mid-oceanic rift zones
    A. is compressed and thickened at converging plate margins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  511. The steps to the library are made of
    A. calcite
    B. granite
    C. marble
    D. concrete
    B. granite
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  512. The mid-oceanic ridges are sites of -
    A. compressive stresses
    B. explosive volcanism
    C. sea floor spreading
    D. granite formation
    C. sea floor spreading
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  513. ____ is a rock composed of olivine and pyroxene that similar to the composition of the mantle.
    A. gabbro
    B. anorthosite
    C. perodotite
    D. feldspar
    C. perodotite
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  514. Calcite is composed of -
    A. potassium prochlorate
    B. silicon dioxide
    C. calcium carbonate
    D. magnesium oxide
    C. calcium carbonate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  515. Thin, sheet-like, disconcordant igneous intrusions are -
    A. stocks
    B. sills
    C. laccoliths
    D. dikes
    D. dikes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  516. The tendency for some minerals to break along smooth, flat surfaces is known as -
    A. cleavage
    B. fracture
    C. streak
    D. crystallinity
    A. cleavage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  517. The earth is estimated to be ___ years old?
    A. 4.6 million
    B. 6 thousand
    C. 4.6 billion
    D. 460 million
    C. 4.6 billion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  518. The most abundant mineral group in the crust is -
    A. mica
    B. amphibole
    C. feldspar
    D. pyroxene
    C. feldspar
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  519. Rapid cooling of magma results in a fine-grained texture called -
    A. phaneritic
    B. porphyritic
    C. aphanitic
    D. pornographic
    A. phaneritic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  520. Igneous rocks that have a ___ texture have grains that can be seen with the named or unaided eye.
    A. pornographic
    B. phaneritic
    C. aphanitic
    D. porphyritic
    B. phaneritic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  521. A natural glass formed by rapid cooling of lava is called -
    A. phyolite
    B. quartz
    C. obsidian
    D. tuff
    C. obsidian
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  522. Basalt has the same mineral and chemical composition as -
    A. granite
    B. gabbro
    C. rhyolite
    D. diorite
    B. gabbro
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  523. The mineral assemblage of quartz, K-spar, Na-plagioclase, with minor biotite or hornblende would be recognized readily by you as the minerals found in the rock know as -
    A. scoria
    B. diorite
    C. granite
    D. gabbro
    C. granite
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  524. The dark, rock-forming minerals are rich in -
    A. Al and Si
    B. Ca and Mg
    C. Ca and Na
    D. Fe and Mg
    D. Fe and Mg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  525. The early-formed light-colored mineral in a melt [magma[ is -
    A. plagioclase
    B. k-spar
    C. quartz
    D. olivine
    D. olivine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  526. Pyroclastic rocks form by -
    A. two periods of cooling
    B. lava cooling at the surface
    C. violent, explosive volcanic eruptions
    D. a magma cooling in the subsurface
    C. violent, explosive volcanic eruptions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  527. Phenocrysts are evidence of -
    A. rapid loss of gas from the magma
    B. rapid cooling
    C. two periods of cooling
    D. explosive eruptions
    C. two periods of cooling
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  528. Vesicles (holes) form in igneous rock (such as scoria and vesicular basalt) fro m-
    A. fast cooling
    B. escaping gas
    C. abundant silica
    D. two periods of cooling
    B. escaping gas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  529. The common lava extruded from stratovolcanoes is -
    A. basalt
    B. stradalitite
    C. rhyolite
    D. andesite
    D. andesite
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  530. Shield volcanoes have low, angle slopes because they are composed of -
    A. viscous rhyolites
    B. pillow lavas
    C. pyroclastic layers
    D. fluid basaltic lava
    D. fluid basaltic lava
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  531. Steep-sided, classic, "volcano-shaped" cones are called -
    A. shield cones
    B. collapsed caldera
    C. stratovolcanoes
    D. maars
    C. stratovolcanoes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  532. Mt. St. Helens is an excellent example of a -
    A. explosive caldera
    B. lava dome
    C. shield cone
    D. cinder cone
    A. explosive caldera
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  533. Rugged, blocky lava flows are called -
    A. pahoehoe
    B. welded tuffs
    C. Aa
    D. pillow lavas
    C. Aa
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  534. A volcanic rock that floats is -
    A. scoria
    B. obsidian
    C. pumice
    D. tuff
    C. pumice
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  535. Which one of the follow minerals can you scratch with your finger nail?
    A. gypsum
    B. fluorite
    C. calcite
    D. sphalerite
    A. gypsum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  536. An igneous rock possessing a combination of mineral grains with markedly different grain sizes is -
    A. a porphyry
    B. natural glass
    C. never found in nature
    D. formed by explosive volcanism
    A. porphyry
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  537. My. Fuji in Japan and Mt. Etna on Sicily are classic examples of -
    A. shield cones
    B. collapse caldera
    C. batholiths
    D. stratovolcanoes
    D. stratavolcanoes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  538. The mid-oceanic ridges are -
    A. sites of new oceanic material
    B. subduction of oceanic material
    C. birthing place of new continents
    D. old oceanic material
    A. sites of new oceanic material
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  539. All plate margins are characterized by -
    A. rift zones
    B. high earthquake activity
    C. abundant volcanoes
    D. great, high mountains
    B. high earthquake activity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  540. Mid-oceanic ridges are sites of ____ plate boundaries
    A. divergent
    B. transform
    C. porcelan
    D. convergent
    A. divergent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  541. Rocks composed on only pyroxene and olivine may form by-
    A. crystal settling
    B. pyrolivity
    C. crystal floating
    D. stoping
    A. crystal settling
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  542. Which one of the following groups do most minerals in the earth's crust belong?
    A. oxides
    B. carbonates
    C. sulfates
    D. silicates
    D. silicates
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  543. Most granite forms by -
    A. melting oceanic crust in subduction zone
    B. melting of lower continental crustal material
    C. melting mantle rocks
    D. volcanism in island arcs
    B. melting of lower continental crustal material
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  544. Enchanted rock is
    A. an exposed portion of granite batholiths
    B. the home of fairies
    C. a laccolith
    D. a recently erupted volcano
    A. an exposed portion of granite batholiths
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  545. Dikes and sills are probably empaled in the crust by -
    A. injection of magma into fractures
    B. leakage from the core of the earth
    C. burying lava flows
    D. melting of rocks in place
    A. injection of magma into fractures
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  546. The first minerals of crystallize out of magma are -
    A. Na-plagioclase and olivine
    B. Ca-plagioclase and olivine
    C. pyroxene and olivine
    D. quartz and k-spar
    B. Ca-plagioclase and olivine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  547. ___ is composed of minerals found in the mid-range of Bowen's Reaction series.
    A. anorthosite
    B. diorite
    C. granite
    D. rhyolite
    E. gabbro
    B. diorite
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  548. The minerals in the rock diorite are -
    A. olivine and pyroxene
    B. olivine, k-spar, and quartz
    C. quartz, feldspar, muscovite
    D. augite, hornblende, and plagioclase
    D. augite, hornblende and plagioclase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  549. The minerals in igneous rocks that is rich in aluminum are -
    A. mica and feldspar
    B. olivine and pyroxene
    C. quartz and pyrite
    D. calcite and augite
    A. mica and feldspar
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  550. The rock cycle implies that-
    A. once formed, a rock remains unaltered forever and ever
    B. igneous rocks form only from metamorphic rocks
    C. sedimentary rocks form only from weathering of igneous rocks
    D. any rock type can form from any other rock type
    D. any rock type can form from any other rock type
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  551. The bright regions of the moon are made up of the rock -
    A. granite
    B. anorthosite
    C. calite
    D. basalt
    B. anorthosite
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  552. Forty percent of the near side of the moon consists of smooth, dark plains made up of-
    A. andesite
    B. feldspar
    C. lake deposits
    D. basalt
    D. basalt
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  553. If you had to find K-spar where it occurs naturally in the state of Texas, one place that you would be certain to find it is -
    A. Enchanted Rock
    B. Canyon lake
    C. the library
    D. lab
    A. Enchanted Rock
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  554. Plagioclase
    A. dark, brown to black grains with 60 degree and 120 degree cleavage
    B. dark brown sheets
    C. white or grey, box-shaped grains
    D. glassy, green grains
    E. glass, clear or translucent grains
    C. white or grey, box-shaped grains
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  555. Amphibole (hornblende) -
    A. glassy, green grains
    B. dark, brown to black grains with 60 degree and 120 degree cleavage
    C. glass, clear or translucent grains
    D. dark brown sheets
    E. white or grey, box-shaped grains
    B. dark, brown to black grains....
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  556. Olivine
    A. dark brown sheets
    B. white or grey, box-shaped grains
    C. dark, brown to black grains with 60 degree and 120 degree cleavage
    D. glassy, green grains
    E. glass, clear or translucent grains
    D. glassy, green grains
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  557. Quartz -
    A. white or grey, box-shaped grains
    B. dark, brown to black grains with 60 degree and 120 degree cleavage
    C. dark brown sheets
    D. glassy, green grains
    E. glass, clear or translucent grains
    E. glass, clear or translucent grains
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  558. Biotite (mica)
    A. white or grey, box-shaped grains
    B. dark, brown to black grains with 60 degree and 120 degree cleavage
    C. glass, clear or translucent grains
    D. dark brown sheets
    E. glassy, green grains
    D. dark brown sheets
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  559. Define a glacier.
    A glacier is a natural body of ice formed by the accumulation, compaction and recrystallization of snow that is thick enough to flow.
  560. Why is a glacier considered to be a geologic system?
    Glacial ice is really a type of metamorphic rock that begins as sediment (aggregate of mineral particles, or snow) and is then metamorphosed by compaction and recrystallization into glacial ice.
  561. What happens in the zone of accumulation?
    snow is transformed into glacial ice through compaction and recrystallization
  562. What happens in the zone of ablation?
    ice leaves the system by melting, calving, and evaporating
  563. What is the boundary between the zone of accumulation and ablation called?
    snow line
  564. Define calving.
    shedding of large blocks of ice from a glacier edge, usually into a body of water
  565. What are the two main types of glaciers?
    Valley and continental glaciers
  566. A valley glacier that emerges from the mountain front and spreads out as a large love at the foot of the mountain is commonly called what?
    piedmont glacier
  567. Define the condition of extending flow.
    Velocities of ice flow in the zone of accumulation increase progressively from the head to the snow line. Here, the ice is under tension and is constantly pulling away from upvalley ice.
  568. Define the condition of compressing flow.
    Below the snow line, velocities progressively decrease, therefore, upvalley ice is continually pushing against downvalley ice
  569. How fast do glaciers flow?
    The flow of glacial ice is not constant but varies significantly with time and place.
  570. The flow of glacial ice is constant. T or F?
    False
  571. An extremely rapid flow of glacial ice, with velocities more than 100 times normal, is referred to as a -?
    glacial surge
  572. What are the three purposed causes of glacial surge?
    • basal slip
    • sudden slippages along the bases of glaciers
    • sudden addition of mass to the glacier
  573. What are crevasses?
    large cracks opened by fracturing of a brittle upper layer of ice as the underlying ice continues to flow
  574. Glacial plucking is the-
    lifting out and removal of fragments of bedrock by the moving ice
  575. Describe the process of Abrasion
    The angular blocks plucked and quarried by the moving ice freeze firmly into the glacier; thus firmly gripped, they are ground against the bedrock over which the glacier moves. The fragments become abraded and worn down as they grind against the bedrock surface. As a result, glacial boulders usually develop flat surfaces that are deeply scratched.
  576. What are two evidences of abrasion?
    roches moutonees and glacial striations
  577. Name valley glacier's distinctive landforms. (6)
    U-shaped valleys, cirques, hanging valleys, horns, moraines, and outwash plains
  578. How do lateral moraines form?
    As ice moves, it picks up rock and debris along its margins from abrasion, forming a marginal zone of dirty ice. The mass movement of rock debris from the valley walls above the glacier contributes to the rock debris along the ice margin. Below the snowline, the melting of the dirty ice concentrates the debris into a linear band along the side of the glacier
  579. Where a tributary glacier joins the main stream, the two adjacent lateral moraines merge to form a -?
    medial moraine
  580. _____ are scoped out parts of a mountain.
    Cirque
  581. Where there two or more cirques they sculpt the mountain crest into a sharp peak called a ____.
    horn
  582. The ridge along two cirques are called ____.
    aretes
  583. The tributaries that lead into the main glacier are on the same level but with then glacier retreats the floor of the tributaries are higher than floor of the U-shaped valley. This area is known as what?
    hanging valleys
  584. Name the types of landforms continental glaciers produce. (6)
    Moraines, drumlins, eskers, kettles, lake sediment, and outwash plains.
  585. In rugged terrain, especially in areas close to the margins, the direction of ice movement of continental glaciers is greatly influenced by mountains ranges, and the ice moves through mountain passes in large streams of ____.
    outlet glaciers
  586. Streams of meltwater flow in tunnels within and beneath the ice and carry a large bed load, which is ultimately deposited to form a long, sinuous ridge known as an -?
    esker
  587. Till and outwash plain sediment, can be reshaped by subsequent advances of ice to produce streamlined hills called _____. They usually resemble a raindrop.
    drumlins
  588. Why are varves in a series of alternating light and dark layer
    The coarse, light-colored material accumulates during spring and summer runoff. During the winter, when the lake is frozen over, o new sediment enters the lake, and the fine mud settles out of suspension to form the thin, dark layers.
  589. How do kettles form?
    Ice blocks, left behind by the retreating glacier front, can be partly or completely buried in the outwash plain or in moraines. Where an isolated block of debris-covered ice melts a depression is left.
  590. What are erratics?
    Erratics are large boulders transported by glaciers and then dropped far from their pointed of origin.
  591. What were the major effects of the ice age? (9)
    • glacial erosion and deposition over large parts of the continents that modified river systems
    • creation of millions of lakes
    • changes in sea level
    • pluvial lakes developed far from ice margins
    • isostatic adjustments of the crust
    • abnormal winds
    • impact on the oceans
    • catastrophic flooding
    • modifications of biologic communities
  592. Milankovitch climate cycles are caused by periodic changes with time in Earth's orbital elements, including ...?
    orbital eccentricity, obliquity or tilit of the spin axis, precession or wobble of the spin axis
  593. Chapter 1: Which item listed below has helped to increase the carrying capacity of the earth?
    A. the development of nitrogen based fertilizers
    B. the development and application of chemical pesticides
    C. the development and application of chemical herbicides
    D. genetic modification of grains and other crops
    E. all of the above
    E. all of the above
  594. Chapter 1: What is the population of the world likely to be by the year 2050?
    A. 9 billion
    B. 900 million
    C. 600 million
    D. 6 billion
    E. 90 million
    A. 9 billion?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  595. Chapter 1: Which of the following statements is true regarding the world population growth since 1965?
    A. it has been decreasing slowly
    B. it has been decreasing at an alarming rate
    C. it has been increasing at an alarming rate
    D. it has been increasing slowly
    E. it has stayed the same
    A. it has been decreasing slowly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  596. Chapter 1: IPAT equation is about which of the following?
    A. earthquake prediction
    B. inflation
    C. slope stability
    D. global warming trends
    E. environmental impact
    E. environmental impact
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  597. Chapter 1: Which of the following is true of Environmental Geology?
    A. it is concerned with how natural geological process affect man
    B. it is concerned largely with surface geological processes
    C. it applies the science of geology to problems arising from the complex interactions of water, soil, air, soild earth and life
    D. it seeks ways for the earth's inhabitants to interact safely with their geological surroundings
    E. all of the above
    E. all of the above
  598. Chapter 1: The number of people/ animals that can be supported by a given area of land is called:
    A. growth rate
    B. carrying capacity
    C. critical mass
    D. doubling time
    E. population dynamics
    B. carrying capacity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  599. Chapter 1: Which of the following is true of the world population in the 20th century?
    A. it quadrupled
    B. it doubled
    C. it quintupled
    D. it remained the same because of wars
    E. it tripled
    A. it quadrupled
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  600. Chapter 1: Which of the following is not a variable in the IPAT equation?
    A. Impact
    B. Technology
    C. Affluence
    D. Natural Resources
    E. Populations
    D. Natural Resources?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  601. Chapter 1: Exceeding of carrying capacity is referred to as
    A. population dynamics
    B. diminishing returns
    C. negative feedback
    D. ecological overshoot
    E. involutional melancholia
    D. ecological overshoot
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  602. Chapter 1: Which of the following is NOT one of the environmental "successes" that have been accomplished since 1970?
    A. unleaded gasoline has reduced lead emission by 98%
    B. the California gray whale, the bald eagle, and the American alligator have been removed from the endangered species list
    C. the numer of large cities violating the clean-air standards has dropped significantly
    D. concentrations of atmospheric carbon dioxide have begun to decrease
    E. all of the above
  603. D. concentrations of atmospheric carbon dioxide have begun to decrease?
  604. Chapter 1: What factor other than decreased birth rates has contributed to the lower United Nations world population project (made in 2002) for the year 2050?
    A. highway deaths
    B. deaths from war
    C. acts of terrorism
    D. pollution-related deaths
    E. HIV / AIDS
    E. HIV / AIDS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  605. Chapter 1: Which of the following is NOT somethng that is included on derivative maps?
    A. landslide hazards zones
    B. depth to underground water
    C. areas susceptible to flooding
    D. seismic hazard zones
    E. all of the above
    E. all of the above
  606. Chapter 1: What is the computer system that assembles, stores, manipulates and displays geographic data according to location?
    A. GPS
    B. GSA
    C. GOP
    D. GPA
    E. GIS
    E. GIS?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  607. Chapter 1: What are lines of equal elevation called on a topographic maps?
    A. contours
    B. geological contacts
    C. grid lines
    D. lineations
    E. isotherms
    B. geological contacts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  608. Chapter 1: How much greater are population growth rates in the poorer countries than they are in the richer countries?
    A. 6 times
    B. 10 times
    C. 4 times
    D. 2 times
    E. 8 times
    A. 6 times
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  609. Chapter 1 True or False: The large argicultural yields obtained today are fundamentally dependant upon fossil fuels.
    True
  610. Chapter 1 True or False: An average American citizen consumes 35 times the resources of an average Indian citizen over the course of his/her lifetime.
    True.
  611. Chapter 1 True or False: Nearly half of the population of the world is living in cities.
    True
  612. Chapter 1 True or False: The main purpose of geological maps is to show the shape of the earth's surface.
    False.
  613. Chapter 1 True or False: Once the earth's carrying capacity is exceeded, population reduction will occur whether we want it to or not.
    True
  614. Chapter 1 True or False: GIS is a new navigational system that will soon replace GPS.
    False
  615. Chapter 1 True or False: Derivative maps are made from computer data sets that are analyzed and plotted for special applications.
    True.
  616. Chapter 1 True or False: Malthus posulated in 1812 that populations growth would soon cause global famine and collapse of society.
    True
  617. Chapter 1 True or False: Annual population growth rate of +1% corresponds to the situation where there were 100 more deaths per thousand individuals than live births in a given year.
    False
  618. Chapter 1 True or False: With a population growth rate of 0.7% it would take 100 years for the population to double.
    True
  619. Chapter 1 True or False: The highest soil degradation rates occur in Africa.
    False
  620. Chapter 1 True or False: Nations that tend to have the greatest environmental impacts are those with the lowest population growth rates.
    True
  621. Chapter 1 True or False: The size of our population is limited by the amount of food we can grow.
    True
  622. Chapter 1 True or False: Since 1950 about one third of all US cropland has been lost to erosion.
    True
  623. Chapter 1 True or False: The population density of the earth has tripled since World War II.
    True
  624. Chapter 2: The geological concept that processes active today have been active during the earth's past history is somethimes paraphrased as "the present is the key to the past" and is called
    A. the law of thermodynamics
    B. the law of superposition
    C. the law of Uniformaitarianism
    D. involutional melancholia
    E. evolution theory
    C. the law of Uniformaitarianism?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  625. Chapter 2: An atom having either a positive or negative electrical charge is called
    A. none of the foregoing
    B. a molecule
    C. an ion
    D. an electron
    E. an isotope
    C. an ion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  626. Chapter 2: A variet of an element that is heavier than normal because of the presences of extra neutrons is called
    A. a molecule
    B. an ion
    C. an isotope
    D. an electron
    E. none of the foregoing
    C. an isotope
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  627. Chapter 2: Most of the mass of an atom is located in its
    A. protons
    B. electrons
    C. ions
    D. outer orbits
    E. nucleus
    E. nucleus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  628. Chapter 2: Which of the following is NOT part of the general definition of a mineral?
    A. naturally occuring
    B. crystalline character
    C. amorphous
    D. inorganic
    E. narrow range of chemical composition
    C. amorphous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  629. Chapter 2: Most of the rocks of the earth's crust are made up of which of the following mineral groups?
    A. tungstates
    B. vanadates
    C. oxides
    D. silicates
    E. carbonates
    D. silicates
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  630. Chapter 2: Which silicate mineral is the most abundant in the earth's crust?
    A. obsidian
    B. basalt
    C. magnetite
    D. calcite
    E. feldspar
    E. feldspar?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  631. Chapter 2: Which property of minerals is variable and therefore the least reliable as a clue in identifying a mineral type?
    A. crystal form
    B. hardness
    C. chemical composition
    D. color
    E. cleavage
    D. color
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  632. Chapter 2: What are the three general classes of rocks that are defined based upon origin?
    A. sandstone, shale and conglomerate
    B. slate, schist, and gneiss
    C. irgnorant, sedentary, and metaphysical
    D. basaltic, granitic, and andesitic
    E. igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic
    E. igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  633. Chapter 2: Plutonic rocks are atype of
    A. metamorphic rock
    B. extrusive igneous rock
    C. intrusive igneous rock
    D. volcanic rock
    E. sedimentary rock
    C. intrusive igneous rock
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  634. Chapter 2: What is a common distinguishing characteristic of sedimentary rock masses?
    A. they tend to be layered
    B. they are always very colorful
    C. they are formed by solidification from a melt
    D. they tend to be extremely hard
    E. all of the above
    A. they tend to be layered
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  635. Chapter 2: In addition to particles, what other material can be found in sedimentary rocks?
    A. Inorganic chemical precipitates
    B. fossils (e.g. shell fragments)
    C. biogenic chemical precipitates
    D. lithified plant debris
    E. all of the above
    E. all of the above
  636. Chapter 2: What distinguishes the pairs of rocks listed in the igneous rock classification from each other?
    (Consider, for example, basalt and gabbro.)
    A. crystal system
    B. mineral composition
    C. texture
    D. chemical composition
    E. all of the above
    C. texture
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  637. Chapter 2: What would be the method of choice for dating an organic substance less than 100,000 years old?
    A. Europium-123
    B. Uranium-238
    C. Potassium-40
    D. Carbon-14
    E. Rubidum-87
    D. Carbon-14?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  638. Chapter 2: What is an aggregate composed of one or more varieties of interlocking mineral crystals called?
    A. feldspar
    B. quartz
    C. lava
    D. magma
    E. rock
    E. rock
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  639. Chapter 2 True or False: The chances of being struck by lightning are about three times higher than the chances of a non-smoker dying from asbestos-related disease.
    True
  640. Chapter 2 True or False: There are over 30,000 mineral species.
    False
  641. Chapter 2 True or False: Oxygen and Silicon alone comprise 75% of crustal rocks by weight.
    True
  642. Chapter 2 True or False: About 20 out of the thousands of known mineral species make up the bulk of the earth's crust.
    True
  643. Chapter 2 True or False: In comparison to white asbestos, blue asbesto is the less harmful type used for industrial purposes.
    False
  644. Chapter 2 True or False: Magma is the general term for molten rock including bother underground and surface occurrences.
    False.
  645. Chapter 2 True or False: Rapid cooling of molten rock produces large crystals.
    False.
  646. Chapter 2 True or False: Rocks such as basalt, on the ride of the igneous rock classification, are darker-colored and have higher specific gravity than do rocks such as granite, on the left side.
    True
  647. Chapter 2 True or False: Metamorphic rocks where minerals have been flattened into layers by directed pressure are saild to be foilated.
    True
  648. Chapter 2 True or False: Relative age dating enables scientists to determine the age in years of a rock mass, whereas absolute age dating can only determine the sequence of events.
    False
  649. Chapter 2 True or False:? Rock layers containing extensive fossils of organisms with hard parts represent only about 12% of geologic time.
    True
  650. Chapter 2 True or False: In two "half-lives," one fourth of a radioactive substance will remain.
    True
  651. Chapter 2 True or False: Dates on zircons from western Australia suggest that the oldest crustal rocks are more than 4 billion years old.
    True
  652. Chapter 2 True or False: The earliest evidence of life on earth is over 3 billion years old.
    True.
  653. Chapter 2 True or False: Most of the world's diamonds come from South America.
    False.
  654. Chapter 3: Which of the following is NOT one of the lines of evidence cited by Alfred Wegener in support of the Continental Drift hypothesis?
    A. studies of the earth's magnetic field
    B. fossil plants
    C. the puzzle piece like fit of the edges of continents
    D. fossil animals
    E. glacial patterns
    A. studies of the earth's magnetic field
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  655. Chapter 3: Which of the following is NOT part of the lithosphere?
    A. asthenosphere
    B. continental crust
    C. mantle lid
    D. oceanic crust
    E. all are part of the lithosphere
    A. asthenosphere
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  656. Chapter 3: Which of the following is a type of plate boundary where new sea floor is formed?
    A. transform
    B. passive
    C. divergent
    D. emergent
    E. convergent
    C. divergent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  657. Chapter 3: At what type of plate boundary do compression and subduction take place?
    A. transform
    B. divergent
    C. convergent
    D. passive
    E. emergent
    C. convergent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  658. Chapter 3: What essential line of evidence in the 1960's helped to confirm the motion of the continents?
    A. glacial patterns
    B. studies of the earth's magentic field
    C. puzzle piece like fit of the edges of the continents
    D. fossil plants
    E. fossil animals
    B. studies of the earth's magentic field
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  659. Chapter 3: The sequence of events that describes the opening and closing of ocean basins is called
    A. orogenesis
    B. the Wilson cycle
    C. the lithologic cycle
    D. die Vershiebung der Kontinente
    E. the geophysical cycle
    B. the Wilson cycle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  660. Chapter 3: What force is thought to be an important cause of plate tectonic motion?
    A. shear strain
    B. volcanic eruptions
    C. earth tides
    D. earthquakes
    E. thermal convection currents
    E. thermal convection currents
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  661. Chapter 3: What was the name given by Alfred Wegener for the single large continent that he believed existed at the end of the Paleozoic Era?
    A. Eurasia
    B. Eurasis
    C. Pangea
    D. Gondwanaland
    E. Laurentia
    C. Pangea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  662. Chapter 3: What type of plate boundary is the San Andreas Fault?
    A. convergent
    B. transform
    C. passive
    D. divergent
    E. none of the above
    B. transform
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  663. Chapter 3: Which of the following is a characteristic or feature of a convergent plate boundary?
    A. compressive stress
    B. subduction complex
    C. volcanic arc
    D. trench
    E. all of the above
    E. all of the above
  664. Chapter 3: What does a Benioff-Wadati zone refer to?
    A. a transform plate boundary
    B. an area lacking deep earthquakes
    C. an area of high heat flow
    D. an area of extensional stress
    E. a subduction zone
    E. a subduction zone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  665. Chapter 3: What was the name of the concept proposed by Harry Hess in 1960 that provided a mechanism for the Continental Drift hypothesis?
    A. the expanding earth theory
    B. sea floor spreading
    C. obduction
    D. polar wandering
    E. dynamic physiography
    B. sea floor spreading
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  666. Chapter 3: What was the main objection to the Continental Drift hypothesis?
    A. Wegener could not provide a mechanism for moving the continents
    B. its German name, die Verschiebung der Kontinente, was too difficult to pronouce
    C. Wegener was not even a certified geologist
    D. Wegener's paleomagnetic data was fault
    E. all of the above
    A. Wegener could not provide a mechanism for moving the continents
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  667. Chapter 3: What do VLBI, SLR, and GPS have in common with respect to plate tectonics?
    A. they refer to ways of expressing the intensity of earthquakes shaking in a subduction zone
    B. they are abbreviations of the names of various lithospheric plates
    C. they are funding organizations that support research
    D. they are methods of measuring the velocity of plate motion
    E. they are types of heat sensors
    D. they are methods of measuring the velocity of plate motion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  668. Chapter 3: Which statement below is true about the oceanic crust in comparison to continental crust?
    A. oceanic crust is thinner and lighter (lower specific gravity)
    B. oceanic crust is heavier and has about the same thickness
    C. oceanic crust is thinner and heavier (higher specific gravity)
    D. oceanic crust is thicker and lighter (lower specific gravity)
    E. oceanic crust is thicker and heavier (higher specific gravity)
    C. oceanic crust is thinner and heavier (higher specific gravity)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  669. Chapter 3 True or False: Alfred Wegener is credited with developing the modern theory of Plate Tectonics back in the year 1910
    False
  670. Chapter 3 True or False: The crust of the earth is thickest under mountain ranges and thinnest in oceanic areas
    True
  671. Chapter 3 True or False: The lithospheric plates are thought to move primarily as a result of thermal conduction
    False
  672. Chapter 3 True or False:? Transform plate boundaries are places where shear stresses dominate.
    True.
  673. Chapter 3 True or False: There are 3 types of convergent plate boundaries.
    True.
  674. Chapter 3 True or False: The earth's magnetic field has reversed itself many times in the geologic past.
    True
  675. Chapter 3 True or False: The oldest ocean floor is less than 200 million years old.
    True.
  676. Chapter 3 True or False: Sea floor spreading happens at a rate of several meters per year.
    False.
  677. Chapter 3 True or False: The Mediterranean Sea has dried up completely during the geologic past and then rapidly refilled again.
    True
  678. Chapter 3 True or False: People living along a passive margin have a low probability of experience volcanoes and earthquakes
    True
  679. Chapter 3 True or False: There are 70 major plates that cover the outer surface of the earth
    False
  680. Chapter 3 True or False: Volcanic mountain ranges and deep earthquakes are common features of continental-oceanic convergent plate boundaries.
    True
  681. Chapter 3 True or False: The highest mountain ranges on earth occur along oceanic-oceanic convergent plate boundaries.
    False.
  682. Chapter 3 True or False: The Hawaiian Islands formed at a spreading ridge.
    False
  683. Chapter 3 True or False: Yellowstone is considered to be a potentially hazardous volcanic center because it's located above a hot spot.
    True
  684. Chapter 4: Reverse, normal and strike-slip all refer to types of
    A. tectonic plates
    B. plays in football
    C. faults
    D. earthquakes
    E. none of the foregoing
    C. faults?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  685. Chapter 4: What is the map location of an earthquake called?
    A. a bad place to be
    B. ground zero
    C. focus
    D. epicenter
    E. nexus
    D. epicenter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  686. Chapter 4: What is stress?
    A. force applied to an area
    B. change in shape
    C. change in position
    D. change in volume
    E. all of the above
    A. force applied to an area
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  687. Chapter 4: What is the point of subsurface origin of an earthquake called?
    A. ground zero
    B. focus
    C. a bad place to be
    D. nexus
    E. epicenter
    B. focus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  688. Chapter 4: Which type of earthquake wave moves the fastest?
    A. P-waves
    B. Love waves
    C. Permanent waves
    D. Rayleigh waves
    E. S-waves
    A. P-waves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  689. Chapter 4: Which type of earthquake wave could travel through a vaccum?
    A. P-waves
    B. S-waves
    C. surface waves
    D. all of the above
    E. none of the above
    E. none of the above
  690. Chapter 4: Which type of earthquake wave most closely resembles sound waves?
    A. Rayleigh waves
    B. S-waves
    C. P-waves
    D. Love waves
    E. none of the above
    C. P-waves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  691. Chapter 4: Which type of earthquake body wave cannot pass through liquids?
    A. Surface waves
    B. S-waves
    C. Rayleigh waves
    D. Love waves
    E. P-waves
    B. S-waves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  692. Chapter 4: How much more energy does a magnitude 8 earthquake release than a magnitude 7 earthquake?
    A. 30 times more
    B. 900 times more
    C. 2 times more
    D. 10 times more
    E. 27,000 times more
    A. 30 times more
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  693. Chapter 4: How is the distance to the epicenter of an earthquake determined using a seismograph?
    A. you can't do this with a single seismograph
    B. the arrival times of surface waves are notes
    C. travel time is clocked and then compared to the reported time of the earthquake at the epicenter
    D. by considering the delay time between the P-waves and the slower S-waves
    E. by how hard the seismograph needle swings back and forth
    D. by considering the delay time between the P-waves and the slower S-waves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  694. Chapter 4: What is one way that earthquake intensities are determined?
    A. with seismographs
    B. with accelerometers
    C. with seismeters
    D. with satellites
    E. with postal questionnaires
    E. with postal questionnaires?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  695. Chapter 4: How much more energy does a magnitude 8 earthquake release than a magitude 6 earthquake?
    A. 2 times more
    B. 30 times more
    C. 900 times more
    D. 10 times more
    E. 27,000 times more
    C. 900 times more
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  696. Chapter 4: What did the San Francisco (1906) and Kobe (1995) earthquakes have in common?
    A. there were huge tsunamis
    B. there were large uncontrolled fires
    C. they were the same size
    D. landslides were a major cause of death
    E. all of the above
    B. there were large uncontrolled fires
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  697. Chapter 4: What can be concluded from the observation that objects were thrown into the air during the earthquake?
    A. the earthquake had a magnitude of greater than 7.5
    B. the site was not constructed according to code
    C. there was an elastic ground response
    D. the ground acceleration was greater than 1.0 g
    E. the first motion of the ground was down
    D. the ground acceleration was greater than 1.0 g
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  698. Chapter 4: Where is the safest place, among those listed below, in the 48 continguous states with respect to earthquake seismic risk?
    A. South Carolina
    B. South Dakota
    C. all have low seimic risk
    D. Missouri
    E. Maine
    B. South Dakota
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  699. Chapter 4 True or False: Movements on faults must be abrupt in order for earthquakes to occur.
    True
  700. Chapter 4 True or False: All earthquakes break the ground surface
    False
  701. Chapter 4 True or False: Compression is the kind of force that produces normal faults.
    False
  702. Chapter 4 True or False: The focus of an earthquake is the point on the ground surface directly above the epicenter.
    False
  703. Chapter 4 True or False: Shear forces characterize the San Andreas fault.
    True
  704. Chapter 4 True or False: Earthquakes below about 300 kilometers in depth cause little or no damage.
    True
  705. Chapter 4 True or False: Earthquake waves that travel along the surface of the earth are called body waves.
    False.
  706. Chapter 4 True or False: Body waves generally slow down as they go deeper into the earth.
    False
  707. Chapter 4 True or False: Surface waves are generated by body waves.
    True
  708. Chapter 4 True or False:? p-waves travel slower than S-waves.
    False
  709. Chapter 4 True or False: A single seismograph can determine the location of an earthquake.
    False
  710. Chapter 4 True or False: No earthquake has been observed with the Richter Magnitude of greater than 8.9
    True
  711. Chapter 4 True or False: The "moment magnitude scale" has replaced the Richter Scale.
    True
  712. Chapter 4 True or False: Mercalli intensities are determined from seismographs.
    False
  713. A magnitude 7 earthquake releases 27,000 times more energy than a magnitude 4 earthquake.
    True
  714. Chemical Weathering
    When minerals react w/ air & water to form new minerals
  715. chemical stability
    measure of a substance tendency to retain its chemical identity rather than reacting spontaneously to become a different chemical
  716. physical weathering
    fractured large rock into smaller pieces which are more easily transported & eroded
  717. strike
    compass direction of a rock as it intersects with a horizontal surface
  718. dip
    measured at right angles to the strike, is the amount of tilting angle at which the bed inclines from the horizontal
  719. geologic maps
    represents the rock formation exposed at earths surface
  720. folding a common form of deformation in?
    layered rocks - rarely stay horizontal
  721. syncline
    downfold into trought
  722. limbs
    2 sides of a fold
  723. basin
    synclinal structure, bowl shaped depression of rock layers that beds dip radially toward central point
  724. dome
    anticlinal structure, broad circular or oval bulge of rock layers
  725. relative humidity
    amount of water vapor in air, relative to saturation of air
  726. rain shadow
    areas of low rainfall on downwind slopes
  727. what are the 3 main types of tetonic force
    tensional, compressive, shearing
  728. tensional
    in brittle crust, produce normal faulting my split apart, causing a rift valley
  729. compressive
    when 2 plates collide, crust can be compressed across a wide zone. fold & thrust belt
  730. shearing
    long transform in faults are rarely straight. faults have bends & jogs -> change tectonic forces. cause secondary faulting & folding
  731. recharge
    infiltration of water into any subsurface formation, often from the surface by rain/melthing snow
  732. what did william smith discover
    fossils can help to order relative ages of sedimentary rock
  733. principle of faunal succession
    layers of sedimentary rocks in outcrop contain fossils in a defininte sequence. the same sequence can be found at other location
  734. ground water
    mass of water stored under earths surface
  735. porosity
    % of rock, soil or sedminets total volume that is taken up by pores
  736. aquifier
    bed that store & transmit groundwater in sufficient quantity to supply wells
  737. unsaturated zone
    level at which the pores contain some air and are not completely filled with water
  738. groundwater table
    boundary between 2 zones
  739. saturated zone
    level at which the pored of the soil or rock are completely filled with water
  740. reservoir
    each place that stores water
  741. hydrologic cycle
    cyclical movement of water from ocean -> atmosphere by evaporation -> surface by rain -> streams by runoff & groundwater -> ocean
  742. droughts
    periods of months/years when precipitation is lower than normal
  743. foliated rock 4 main criteria
    • 1. size of crystals
    • 2. nature of foliation
    • 3. depree that minerals are segregated in color bands
    • 4. metamorphic grade
  744. principle of original horizontality
    sediments are deposited under influence of gravity as nearly horizontal beds. if we find folded/faulted the strata layers were deformed by tectonic forces after sediment deposit
  745. principle of superposition
    each sediment layer of undisturbed sequence is younger than one beneath it & older than one above
  746. suspension
    sediment/rocks suspended in stream
  747. water table
    barrier between saturated & unsaturated water
  748. weathered
    general process that breaks rocks into fragments by combination of physical fracturing & chemical decomposition
  749. subduction
    sinking of oceanic plate under overriding plate at ca convergent plate boundary. overriding plate maybe oceanic or continental
  750. rock rall
    very rapid movement in which newly detached individual block of rock plummet suddenly in free fall from a cliff or steep mountain side
  751. saltation
    an intermittent jumping motion or sand or fine sediment alon a steam bed in which grain are suck up into the flow by turbulent eddies move with the current for a short distance & then fall back to the bottom
  752. plunge
    a fold whose axis is not horizontal but dip
  753. grading
    fine particles settle to bottom & heavy at top. occurs in slow moving water
  754. inverse grading
    heavy particles at bottom & small at top. occurs in fast moving bodies of water
  755. longshore current
    a current that flows parallel to the shoreline, the summed longshore components of water motion of waves that break. obliquely with respect to the shore
  756. bedding
    formation of parallel layer of sediment as particles settle to the bottom of the sea, a river or a land surface
  757. perched
    the groundwater table in a shallow upper surface of an aquifier that is perched above & separated from the main body of groundwater by aquilude
  758. plastic
    total of all the small movement of the ice crystals that make up a glacier, resulting in a large movement of ice
  759. half-life
    time required for half of the original number of radioactive atoms in an element to decay
  760. weathering
    one of major geological processes in rock cycle, shapes earths surface/alters rock materials, converting all kinds of rock into sediment -> soil
  761. 4 key factos that control rock fragmentation & decay
    • 1. properties of parent rock
    • 2. climate
    • 3. presence/absence of soil
    • 4. length of time rocks are exposed to atmosphere
  762. mass wasting
    all the processes by which masses of rock & soil move downhill under the influence of gravity
  763. erosion
    set of processes that loosen soil & rock & move them downhill/strem where they are depisted as sedimentary layers.
  764. what 4 precipitations cause decay & breakdown
    rain, wind, ice & snow
  765. what are the processes that loosen & transport soil/rock down?
    erosion & mass wasting
  766. outcrop
    basic source of deformation information where bedrock that underlies surface is exposed
  767. what is an important clue to overall structure of outsrop
    orientation of layers
  768. what described the orientation of a rock layer exposed at an outcrop
    strike & dip
  769. what are the 4 types of metamorphism
    regional, contact, seafloor, shock
  770. regional metamorphism
    caused by high pressures & temperatures that extend over large regions
  771. contact metamorphism
    changes in minerology & texture of rock resulting from the heat & pressure in small area
  772. seafloor metamorphism
    associated with mid ocean ridges in which changes in chemical composition produced by fluid transport
  773. shock metamorphism
    occurs when minerals are subject to high pressure & temperature of shock waves when meteor collides with earth
  774. metamorphism p-t
    history of changes in conditions of pressure & temperature
  775. what are 3 principal factors of metamorphism
    • 1. internal heat of earth
    • 2. pressure
    • 3. fluid composition
  776. push rocks at earths surface down to great depths subjecting them to high pressure & temperature
  777. role of temperature in metamorphism
    heat effects chemical composition, minerology, & texture.
  778. geothermal gradient
    increase of temperature with increasing depth
  779. role of pressure in metamorphism
    confining & directed
  780. confining pressure
    general force applied equally in all directions
  781. directed pressure
    force exerted in a part direction pressure, like temp increases with depth
  782. role of fluids in metamorphism
    metasomatism
  783. metasomatism
    change in a rocks bulk chemical composition by fluid transport of chemical components into or out of rock
  784. Reverse thrust fault
  785. Plunging fold
  786. Left lateral strike slip
  787. Horizontal fold
  788. Normal Faulting
  789. overturned folds
  790. oblique slip fault
  791. asymmetrical folds
  792. tensional tectonics
    normal faults w/ hih dip angles in upper crust, flatten w/ depth
  793. compressive tectonics
    compression on continental crust on thrust faults with low dip angle
  794. shearing tectonics
    shearing continental crust on nearly vertical strike-slip fault
  795. plunging anticline, plunging syncline
  796. right lateral strike slip
  797. symmetrical folds
  798. the maximum angle between a planar surface and a horizontal plane
    dip
  799. forces acting in opposite directions
    compressional stress
  800. a fold with only one limb
    monocline
  801. a structure that has dips towards it from all sides
    basin
  802. recumbent folds
    are overturned to the point that limbs are horizontal
  803. the angle between the axis of a fold and the ground surface
    plunge
  804. if a anticline on a geologic map forms a nose pointing towards the east it is plunging towards that
    east
  805. a break in rocks there has been relative motion in called
    fault
  806. the exposed face of a fault
    scarp
  807. the fault that divided the Basin and Range PRovince from the Mojava Province is called
    garlock fault
  808. mountains formed a "pressure ridges"
    san gabriels
  809. a very flat (low angle) normal fault is called
    detachment fault
  810. the main type of faults in the basin and range province of the western UNited States is
    normal
  811. the mountain ranges in the Basin and Range Province are
    horsts
  812. p waves
    are compressional waves
  813. type of surface waves
    L
  814. triagulation from 3 seismographs locations is done to
    locate the epicenter
  815. the difference in arrivale time between the P and S waves tells
    the distance from the epicenter
  816. the epicenter of an earthquake, by definition, must always be
    at the surface of the earth
  817. rivers and glaciers get their energy from
    solar energy and the external heat engine
  818. the internal heat engine provides the energy for
    earthquakes
  819. the earths tectonic plates are moves by convection in the
    mantle
  820. all of the earths ocean flood was created in
    mid ocean ridges
  821. what feature is found when two oceanic plates converge
    trench
  822. compared to oceanic crust, continental crust is less dense
  823. the deepest earthquakes are
    where plates are converging
  824. the himalaya mountains formed
    as two continents collided
  825. a rift valley would be found where tectonic plates are
    diverging
  826. the hawaiian island are
    over a hot spot in the mantle
  827. the atomic particle with a positive electrical charge is called the
    proton
  828. the this element would from a cation
    iron
  829. the suns energy is produced by
    nuclear fusion
  830. an amoprhous solid is a
    glass
  831. the type of chemical bond that is most flexible is
    metallic
  832. a mineral must be a
    solid
  833. what is a example of a non mineral
    wood, oil
  834. metallic glassy and dull are examples of
    luster
  835. which property is useful in identifying almost all minerals
    hardness
  836. a mineral that breaks into curved or irregular fragments is demonstration
    fracture
  837. the streak of a mineral describes
    the powder left on a white plate
  838. mafic minerals are rich in
    iron and magnesium
  839. silica tetrahedra contain a silicon atom surrounded by atoms of what element
    oxygen
  840. a volcanic rock with a mafic composition is called
    basalt
  841. a igneous rock with 2 different sizes of crystals in it is
    porphyritic
  842. sharp angular lava is called
    aa
  843. cinder cones
    are entirely made of pyroclastic material
  844. the largest volcanoes are
    shield volcano
  845. the type of volcano made of andesite is
    composite volcano
  846. a good example of caldera is
    crater lake
  847. the city of Armenro Colombis was destroyed in 1985 by
    volcanic mudflows
  848. a nuee ardante is
    a glowing cloud of hot gas and ash
  849. a lava that erupts underwater would have
    pillow structures
  850. a felsic intrusive rock would be called
    basalt
  851. the mineral commonly known as "fools gold" is
    pyrite
  852. biotite is
    a mafic mica
  853. decompression, or lowering of pressure will help rocks
    to melt
  854. the rate that temperture increases with depth downward into the earth is the
    benioff zone
  855. according to Bowen's reaction series, the first silicate mineral to melt as a rock is heated will be
    quartz
  856. which of the following minerals is not part of discontinuous series of bowen;s reaction series
    gypsum
  857. polymorphs are different minerals with the same
    chemical formula
  858. calcite, dolomite, malchite are
    carbonates
  859. the chain silicate minerals groups are amphiboles and the
    pyroxenes
  860. rock are more likey to melt
    when water is present
  861. an igneous structure that is cuts the bedding in older rock is called a
    dike
  862. an igneous rock made of giant crystals (up to 10 meters) is called
    pegmatite
  863. the force that drives mass wasting is
    gravity
  864. the greatest annual property in the U S is from
    floods
  865. a type of mass wasting where the interior sturcture of the material will not be preserved
    flow
  866. a desirable feature from the perspective of avoiding mass wasting is
    bedding in the opposite direction to the slope
  867. the volume of water flowing down a river is called the
    discharge
  868. rock grains that move alone the bed of a stream in a jumping motion are said to move by
    saltation
  869. the type of drainage pattern shown in the stream map below is
    dendritic
  870. a perfectly straight river would have a sinuosity of
    1
  871. a youthful stream will not have
    a wide flood plain
  872. sandbars deposited on the inside of meander curves are called
    point bar
  873. the sediment deposited by a meandering stream
    get finer upward
  874. darcys law is used to calculate
    porosity
  875. a rock that prevents any water from flowing through is called an
    aquiclude
  876. in order to have a flowing artesian well you must have
    a recharge area at a higher elevation than the well
  877. above the water table is
    the vabose zone
  878. a feature sticking up from the floor of a cave would be a
    stalagmite
  879. if there is more than one water table in an area the higher waterable is
    perched
  880. a large crack into a glacier is called
    creavasse
  881. firn is
    partially recrystallized snow
  882. a sharp ridge between two glaciers is called
    arete
  883. unsorted glacial sediment is called
    till
  884. which moraine is a type of end moraine
    recessional
  885. roc that prevents any water from flowing through is called an
    aquiclude
  886. in order to have a flowing artesian well you must have
    a recharge areas at a higher elevation that the well
  887. above the water table is
    vadose zone
  888. a feature sticking up from the floor of a cave would be a
    stalagmite
  889. if there is more than one water table in an area the higher water table is
    perched
  890. a large crack into a glacier is called
    crevasse
  891. firm is
    partially recrystallized snow
  892. a sharp ridge between two glaciers is called
    arete
  893. the energy for waves comes from
    the wind
  894. most beaches have the largest waves in the
    winter
  895. the highest point on a wave is the
    crest
  896. wave refraction tends to
  897. bend waves parallel to the shoreline
  898. the vertical distance from the trough to the crest of a wave is the
  899. height
  900. the circular motions of the water beneath a wave are called
    orbitals
  901. wave base for a wave is equale to
    half the wavelength
  902. between the berm and the seacliffs you would fine what part of a beach
    backshore
  903. if you are caught in a rip current you should
    swim parallel to the shore
  904. upper newport bay and bolsa chica are good examples of
    estuaries
  905. which of the following protective measures actually increase the erosion on a beach
    sea walls
  906. beach erosion is a greater problem today then in then past mainly because of
    most rivers are dammed
  907. the greatest loss of sand from beaches occurs when the sand
    flows down submarine canyons
  908. if a groin is built then there will be
    some depostition on the side that the longsore current is coming from, but an equal amount of erosion on the downcurrent side
  909. a sand bar attached to the coast on one side is called
    spit
  910. offshore rocks left behind as a coastline erodes are called
    stacks
  911. a world wide change in sealevel is called
    eustatic
  912. the steepest part of a continental margin is the
    continental slope
  913. the edge of the continental shelf is called the
    shelf break
  914. a flat topped seamount is called a
    guyot
  915. which is not part of an ophiolite sequence
    rhyolite
  916. the deepest part of the oceans are the
    trenches
  917. a ring shaped coral island is called a
    atoll
  918. the place where you would find life forms that get their energy from the "internal heat engine" rather than the "external heat engine: would be
    around "black smokers"

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