Blood Bank ASCP BOC

Card Set Information

Author:
mbailey585
ID:
225575
Filename:
Blood Bank ASCP BOC
Updated:
2013-07-05 19:27:34
Tags:
Blood Bank ASCP BOC Products Group Systems Physiology Pathophysiology Serology Transfusion Practice
Folders:

Description:
Blood Bank ASCP BOC: 1-57 Blood Products, 58-118 Blood Group Systems, 119-165 Physiology and Pathophysiology, 166-260 Serology, and 260-330 Transfusion Practice.
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user mbailey585 on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is:

    A. 12.0g/dL (120g/L)
    B. 13.5g/dL (135g/L)
    C. 15.0g/dL (150g/L)
    D. 12.5g/dL (125g/L)
    D. 12.5g/dL (125g/L)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. A cause for permanent deferral of blood donation is:

    A. diabetes
    B. residence in an endemic malaria region
    C. history of jaundice of uncertain cause
    D. history of therapeutic rabies vaccine
    C. history of jaundice of uncertain cause
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation?

    A. 45-year-old woman who has just recovered from a bladder infection and is still taking antibiotics
    B. 22-year-old college student who has a temperature of 99.2oF (37.3oC) and states that he feels well, but is nervous about donating
    C. 32-year-old woman who received a transfusion in a complicated delivery 5 months previously 
    D. 19-year-old sailor who has been stateside for 9 months and stopped taking his anti-malarial medication 9 months previously
    B. 22-year-old college student who has a temperature of 99.2oF (37.3oC) and states that he feels well, but is nervous about donating
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Which one of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor?

    A. a tattoo 5 months previously
    B. recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
    C. 2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously
    D. confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously
    D. confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be accepted as a blood donor?

    A. resides with a known hepatitis patient
    B. traveled to an area endemic for malaria 9 months previously
    C. spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously
    D. received a blood transfusion 22 weeks previously
    C. spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Below are the results of the history obtained from a prospective female blood donor:

    age: 16
    temperature: 99.0F (37.2C)
    Hct: 36%
    history: tetanus toxoid immunization 1 week previously

    How many of the above results excludes this donor from giving blood for a routine transfusion?

    A. 1
    B. 3
    C. none
    D. 2
    A. 1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. For apheresis donors who donate platelets more frequently than every 4 weeks, a platelet count must be performed prior to the procedure and be at least:

    A. 250 x 10^3/uL (250 x 10^9/L)
    B. 150 x 10^3/uL (150 x 10^9/L)
    C. 200 x 10^3/uL (200 x 10^9/L)
    D. 300 x 10^3/uL (300 x 10^9/L)
    B. 150 x 10^3/uL (150 x 10^9/L)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution containing:

    A. PVP iodine complex
    B. 10% acetone
    C. hypochlorite
    D. isopropyl alcohol
    A. PVP iodine complex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. All donor blood testing must include:

    A. anti-CMV testing
    B. complete Rh phenotyping
    C. serological test for syphilis
    D. direct antiglobulin test
    C. serological test for syphilis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. During the preparation of Platelet Concentrates from Whole Blood, the blood should be:

    A. cooled towards 6oC
    B. warmed to 37oC
    C. cooled towards 20o-24oC
    D. heated to 57oC
    C. cooled towards 20o-24oC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. The most common cause of posttransfusion hepatitis can be detected in donors by testing for:

    A. anti-HBe
    B. HBsAg
    C. anti-HCV
    D. anti-HAV IgM
    B. HBsAg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. The Western blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of:

    A. anti-HIV-1
    B. CMV antibody
    C. HBsAg
    D. serum protein abnormalities
    A. anti-HIV-1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus:

    A. anti-HBc
    B. HBsAg
    C. anti-HIV 1,2
    D. ALT
    C. anti-HIV 1,2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection is:

    A. enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
    B. thin-layer-chromatography (TLC)
    C. latex agglutination
    D. radioimmunoassay (RIA)
    A. enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Rejuvenation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is a method used to:

    A. filter blood clots and other debris
    B. inactivate viruses and bacteria
    C. restore 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels
    D. remove antibody attached to RBCs
    C. restore 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8 AM. The expiration time for each aliquot is now:

    A. the original date of the unsplit unit
    B. 8 PM on the same day
    C. 8 AM the next morning
    D. 4 PM on the same day
    A. the original date of the unsplit unit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. A unit of Red Blood Cells expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small aliquots using a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in:

    A. 5 days
    B. 35 days
    C. 6 hours
    D. 12 hours
    B. 35 days
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air temperature must be recorded:

    A. every 4 hours
    B. every hour
    C. twice a day
    D. once a day
    A. every 4 hours
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component listed?

    A. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP), -20oC
    B. Platelets, 37oC
    C. Cryoprecipitated AHF, 4oC
    D. Red Blood Cells, Frozen, -40oC
    A. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP), -20oC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. A unit of Red Blood Cells is issued at 9:00 AM. At 9:10 AM the unit is returned to the Blood Bank. The container has not been entered, but the unit has not been refrigerated during this time span. The best course of action for the technologist is to:

    A. store the unit at room temperature
    B. culture the unit for bacterial contamination
    C. record the return and place the unit into inventory
    D. discard the unit if not used within 24 hours
    C. record the return and place the unit into inventory
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. The optimum storage temperature for Red Blood Cells, Frozen is:

    A. -12oC
    B. -20oC
    C. 4oC
    D. -80oC
    D. -80oC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. The optimum storage temperature for Red Blood Cells is:

    A. -80oC
    B. 4oC
    C. -12oC
    D. -20oC
    B. 4oC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. If the seal is entered on a unit of Red Blood Cells stored at 1oC to 6oC, what is the maximum allowable storage period, in hours?

    A. 72
    B. 48
    C. 6
    D. 24
    D. 24
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. The optimum storage temperature for cryoprecipitated AHF is:

    A. 4oC
    B. -12oC
    C. -20oC
    D. 22oC
    C. -20oC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling?

    A. 8 hours
    B. 24 hours
    C. 4 hours
    D. 12 hours
    C. 4 hours
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Platelets prepared in a polyolefin type container, stored at 22o-24oC in 50 mL of plasma, and gently agitated can be used for up to:

    A. 5 days
    B. 48 hours
    C. 3 days
    D. 24 hours
    A. 5 days
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. The optimum storage temperature for platelets is:

    A. -20oC
    B. -12oC
    C. 4oC
    D. 22oC
    D. 22oC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. According to AABB standards, Fresh Frozen Plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing?

    A. 36 hours
    B. 72 hours
    C. 24 hours
    D. 48 hours
    C. 24 hours
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Cryoprecipitated AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at -18oC or below, has a shelf life of:

    A. 6 months
    B. 12 months
    C. 42 days
    D. 36 months
    B. 12 months
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Once thawed, Fresh Frozen Plasma must be transfused within:

    A. 4 hours
    B. 8 hours
    C. 12 hours
    D. 24 hours
    D. 24 hours
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. An important determinant of platelet viability following storage is:

    A. plasma pH
    B. prothrombin time
    C. activated partial thromboplastin time
    D. plasma potassium concentration
    A. plasma pH
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. In the liquid state, plasma must be stored at:

    A. 37oC
    B. 56oC
    C. 22oC
    D. 1o-6oC
    D. 1o-6oC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. During  storage, the concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) decreases in a unit of:

    A. Fresh Frozen Plasma
    B. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    C. Platelets
    D. Red Blood Cells
    D. Red Blood Cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Cryoprecipitated AHF:

    A. is indicated for the treatment of hemophilia B
    B. should be stored at 4oC prior to administration
    C. is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies
    D. will not transmit hepatitis B virus
    C. is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Which apheresis platelets product should be irradiated?

    A. a directed donation given by a mother for her son
    B. autologous unit collected prior to surgery
    C. random stock unit going to a patient with DIC
    D. a directed donation given by an unrelated family friend
    A. a directed donation given by a mother for her son
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Irradiation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is done to prevent the replication of donor:

    A. granulocytes
    B. lymphocytes
    C. platelets
    D. red cells
    B. lymphocytes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing units of FFP in 37oC water baths because they prevent:

    A. the entry ports from becoming contaminated with water
    B. water from slowly dialyzing across the bag membrane
    C. the label from peeling off as the water circulates in the bath
    D. the FFP bag from cracking when it contacts the warm water
    A. the entry ports from becoming contaminated with water
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Which of the following blood components must be prepared within 8 hours after phlebotomy?

    A. Red Blood Cells, Frozen
    B. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    C. Fresh Frozen Plasma
    D. Red Blood Cells
    C. Fresh Frozen Plasma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Cryoprecipitated AHF contains how many units of Factor VIII?

    A. 130
    B. 40
    C. 250
    D. 80
    D. 80
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Which of the following blood components contains the most Factor VIII concentration relative to volume?

    A. Single-Donor Plasma
    B. Fresh Frozen Plasma
    C. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    D. Platelets
    C. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. The most effective component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency is:

    A. Platelets
    B. Fresh Whole Blood
    C. Fresh Frozen Plasma
    D. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    D. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. A blood component prepared by thawing Fresh Frozen Plasma at refrigerator temperature and removing the fluid portion is:

    A. Factor IX Complex
    B. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    C. Plasma protein Fraction
    D. FP24
    B. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Upon inspection, a unit of platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appears normal. The technologist should:

    A. issue without concern
    B. quarantine for Gram stain and culture
    C. centrifuge to express off the clots
    D. filter to remove the clots
    B. quarantine for Gram stain and culture
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. According to AABB Standards, at least 90% of all Apheresis Platelets units tested shall contain a minimum of how many platelets?

    A. 3.0 x 10^11
    B. 6.5 x 10^10
    C. 5.0 x 10^11
    D. 5.5 x 10^10
    A. 3.0 x 10^11
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. According to AABB Standards, Platelets prepared from Whole Blood shall have at least:

    A. 8.5 x 10^10 platelets per unit in 95% of the units tested
    B. 6.5 x 11^10 platelets per unit in 90% of the units tested
    C. 5.5 x 10^10 platelets per unit in at least 90% of the units tested
    D. 7.5 x 10^10 platelets per unit in 100% of the units tested
    C. 5.5 x 10^10 platelets per unit in at least 90% of the units tested
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of Platelets from Whole Blood?

    A. light spin followed by a hard spin
    B. 2 light spins
    C. light spin followed by 2 hard spins
    D. hard spin followed by a light spin
    A. light spin followed by a hard spin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. According to AABB Standards, what is the minimum pH required for Platelets at the end of the storage period?

    A. 7.0
    B. 6.2
    C. 6.8
    D. 6.0
    B. 6.2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. According to AABB Standards, Platelets must be:

    A. gently agitated if stored at room temperature
    B. prepared only from Whole Blood units that have been stored at 4oC for 6 hours
    C. suspended in sufficient plasma to maintain a pH of 5.0 or lower
    D. separated within 12 hours of Whole Blood collection
    A. gently agitated if stored at room temperature
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. A unit of Whole Blood-derived (random donor) Platelets should contain at least:

    a 1.0 x 10^10 platelets
    b. 5.5 x 10^10 platelets
    c. 5.5 x 10^11 platelets
    d. 90% of the platelets from the original unit of Whole Blood
    b. 5.5 x 10^10 platelets
  50. Platelets prepared by apheresis should contain at least:

    A. 1 x 10^10 platelets
    B. 3 x 10^10 platelets
    C. 5 x 10^11 platelets
    D. 3 x 10^11 platelets
    D. 3 x 10^11 platelets
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Leukocyte-Reduced Red Blood Cells are ordered for a newly diagnosed bone marrow candidate. What is the best way to prepare this product?

    A. wash the unit with saline prior to infusion
    B. crossmatch only CMV-seronegative units
    C. irradiate the unit with 1,500 rads
    D. transfuse through a Log3 leukocyte-removing filter
    D. transfuse through a Log3 leukocyte-removing filter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Of the following blood components, which one should be used to prevent HLA alloimmunization of the recipient?

    A. Granulocytes
    B. Irradiated Red Blood Cells
    C. Leukocyte-Reduced Red Blood Cells
    D. Red Blood Cells
    C. Leukocyte-Reduced Red Blood Cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. A father donating Platelets for his son is connected to a continuous flow machine, which uses the principle of centrifugation to separate Platelets from Whole Blood. As the Platelets are harvested, all other remaining elements are returned to the donor. This method of Platelet collection is known as:

    A. apheresis
    B. fractionation
    C. homologous
    D. autologous
    A. apheresis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. To qualify as a donor for autologous transfusion a patient's hemoglobin should be at least:

    A. 15g/dL (150g/L)
    B. 13g/dL (130g/L)
    C. 8g/dL (80g/L)
    D. 11g/dL (110g/L)
    D. 11g/dL (110g/L)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. What is/are the minimum pretransfusion testing requirement(s) for autologous donations collected and transfused by the same facility?

    A. no pretransfusion testing is required for autologous donations
    B. ABO/Rh type, antibody screen
    C. ABO/Rh type, antibody screen, crossmatch
    D. ABO and Rh typing only
    D. ABO and Rh typing only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. In a quality assurance program, Cryoprecipitated AHF must contain a minimum of how many international units of Factor VIII?

    A. 90
    B. 60
    C. 80
    D. 70
    C. 80
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. An assay of plasma from a bag of Cryoprecipiated AHF yields a concentration of 9 international units (IU) of Factor VIII per mL of Cryoprecipitated AHF. If the volume is 9mL, what is the Factor VIII content of the bag in IU?

    A. 27
    B. 81
    C. 18
    D. 9
    B. 81
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Refer to the following diagram:
    Given the most probable genotypes of the parents, which of the following statements best describes the most probable Rh genotypes of the 4 children?


    A. 1 is R0r, 1 is R1r, 2 are R1R1
    B. 1 is R0r', 1 is R1R1, 2 are R1r
    C. 3 are R1r, 1 is rr
    D. 2 are R1r, 2 are R1R1
    D. 2 are R1r, 2 are R1R1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. The linked HLA genes on each chromosome constitute a(n):

    A. trait
    B. haplotype
    C. phenotype
    D. allele
    B. haplotype
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. An individual's red blood cells give the following reactions with Rh antisera:

    anti-D   anti-C   anti-E   anti-c   anti-e   Rh control
        4+         3+        0           3+         3+          0
    The individual's most probable genotype is:

    A. Dce/dce
    B. DcE/dce
    C. DCe/DcE
    D. DCe/dce
    D. DCe/dce
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. A blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. What is his red blood cell phenotype?

    A. O
    B. B
    C. AB
    D. A
    A. O
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. An individual has been sensitized to the k antigen and has produced anti-k. What is her most probable Kell system genotype?

    A. K0K0
    B. KK
    C. kk
    D. Kk
    B. KK
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Given the following typing results, what is this donor's racial ethnicity?

         Le(a-b-); Fy(a-b-); Js(a+b+)

    A. Asian American
    B. African American
    C. Native American
    D. Caucasian
    B. African American
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. A mother has the red cell phenotype D+C+E-c-e+ with anti-c (titer of 32 at AHG) in her serum. The father has the phenotype D+C+E-c+e+. The baby is Rh-negative and not affected with hemolytic disease of the newborn. What is the baby's most probable Rh genotype?

    A. R1r
    B. r'r'
    C. r'r
    D. R1R1
    B. r'r'
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. In an emergency situation, Rh-negative red cells are transfused into an Rh-positive person of the genotype CDe/CDe. The first antibody most likely to develop is:

    A. anti-c
    B. anti-E
    C. anti-e
    D. anti-d
    A. anti-c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Most blood group systems are inherited as:

    A. sex-linked dominant
    B. autosomal codominant
    C. sex-linked recessive
    D. autosomal recessive
    B. autosomal codominant
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. The mating of an Xg(a+) man and an Xg(a-) woman will only produce:

    A. Xg(a+) sons and Xg(a+) daughters
    B. Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a+) daughters
    C. Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a-) daughters
    D. Xg(a+) sons and Xg(a-) daughters
    B. Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a+) daughters
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Refer to the following data:

    anti-C      anti-D      anti-E      anti-c      anti-e
        +              +               +            +            +
    Given the reactions above, which is the most probable genotype?

    A. R1r'
    B. R0r"
    C. R1R2
    D. R1R1
    C. R1R2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. A patient's red cells type as follows:

    anti-D           anti-C          anti-E   
        4+                 +                  +   

    Which of the following gentype would be cosnistent with these results?

    a. R0R0
    b. R1r
    c. R1R2
    d. Rzr
    a. R0R0
  70. The red cells of a nonsecretor (se/se) will most likely type as:

    A. Le(a+b-)
    B. Le(a-b-)
    C. Le(a+b+)
    D. Le(a-b+)
    A. Le(a+b-)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Whcih of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f?

    A. rr
    B. R1R1
    C. R1R2
    D. R2R2
    A. rr
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. A patient's red blood cells gave the following reactions:

    anti-C   anti-D    anti-E    anti-c    anti-e    anti-f
        +           +            +            +            +          0

    The most probable genotype of this patient is:

    A. RzRz
    B. R1R2
    C. R2r"
    D. Rzr
    B. R1R2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. Anti-N is identified in a patient's serum. If random crossmatches are performed on ten donor units,  how many would be expected to be compatible?

    A. 10
    B. 7
    C. 0
    D. 3
    D. 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. A woman types as Rh-positive. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a negative DAT and is not affected by hemolytic disease of the newborn. What is the father's most likely Rh phenotype?

    A. R2r
    B. r"r
    C. R1r
    D. rr
    C. R1r
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Which of the following red cell typings are commonly found in the African American donor population?

    A. Jk(a-b-)
    B. K-k-
    C. Lu(a-b-)
    D. Fy(a-b-)
    D. Fy(a-b-)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. Four units of blood are needed for elective surgery. The patient's serum contained anti-c, anti-e, anti-Fya and anti-Jkb. Which of the following would be the best source of donor blood?

    A. test all units in current stock
    B. test 100 group O, Rh-negative donors
    C. test 100 group-compatible donors
    D. rare donor file
    D. rare donor file
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. A donor is tested with Rh antisera with the following results:

    anti-D    anti-C    anti-E    anti-c    anti-e    Rhcontrol
        +            +            0            +            +            0

    What is his most probable Rh genotype?

    A. R1r
    B. R2r
    C. R0r
    D. R1R1
    A. R1r
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. A family has been typed for HLA because 1 of the children needs a stem cell donor. Typing results are listed below:

    father: A1,3;B8,35
    mother: A2,23;B12,18
    child #1: A1,2;B8,12
    child #2: A1,23;B8,18
    child #3: A3,23;B18,?

    What is the expected B antigen in child #3?

    A. A2
    B. A1
    C. B12
    D. B35
    D. B35
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. Which of the following is the best source of HLA-compatible platelets?

    A. siblings
    B. mother
    C. cousins
    D. father
    A. siblings
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. A patient is group O, Rh-negative with anti-D and anti-K in her serum. What percentage of the general Caucasian donor population would be compatible with this patient?

    A. 2.0
    B. 3.0
    C. 6.0
    D. 0.5
    C. 6.0
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. The observed phenotypes in a particular population are:

    phenotype             Number of persons
    Jk(a+b-)                122
    Jk(a+b+)               194
    Jk(a-b+)                84

    What is the gene frequency of Jka in this population?

    A. 0.55
    B. 0.45
    C. 0.31
    D. 0.60
    A. 0.55
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. In a random population, 16% of the people are Rh-negative (rr). What percentage of the Rh-positive population is heterozygous for r?

    A. 48%
    B. 36%
    C. 57%
    D. 66%
    A. 48%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. In relationship testing, a "direct exclusion" is established when a genetic marker is:

    A. absent in the child, present in the mother and absent in the alleged father
    B. present in the child, absent in the mother and present in the alleged father
    C. absent in the child, but present in the mother and alleged father
    D. present in the child, but absent in the mother and alleged father
    D. present in the child, but absent in the mother and alleged father
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. Relationship testing produces the following red cell phenotyping results:

                           ABO              Rh
    alleged father:   B                 D+C-c+E+e-
    mother:            O                 D+C+E-c-e+
    child:               O                 D+C+E-c+e+

    What conclusions may be made?

    A. paternity may be excluded on the basis of both ABO and Rh typing
    B. paternity may be excluded on the basis of Rh typing
    C. paternity may be excluded on the basis of ABO typing
    D. there is no exclusion of paternity
    B. paternity may be excluded on the basis of Rh typing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. In the relationship testing case, the child has a genetic marker that is absent in the mother and cannot be demonstrated in the alleged father. What type of paternity exclusion is this known as?

    A. prior probability
    B. indirect
    C. direct
    D. Hardy-Weinberg
    C. direct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. A patient is typed with the following results:

    Patient's cells with        Patient's serum with
    anti-A 0                          A1 red cells 2+
    anti-B 0                           B red cells 4+
    anti-A,B 2+                      Ab screen 0

    The most probable reason for these findings is that the patient is group:

    A. A1; with an anti-A
    B. Ax; with an anti-A1
    C. O; confusion due to faulty group O antiserum
    D. O; with an anti-A1
    B. Ax; with an anti-A1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. Human blood groups were discovered around 1900 by:

    A. PL Mollison
    B. Louis Pasteur
    C. Jules Bordet
    D. Karl Landsteiner
    D. Karl Landsteiner
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. Cells of the A3 subgroup will:

    A. give a mixed-field reaction with anti-A,B
    B. bE- with anti-A
    C. bE- with anti-H
    D. react with Dolichos biflorus
    A. give a mixed-field reaction with anti-A,B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. The enzyme responsible for conferring H activity on the red cell membrane is alpha-:

    A. N-acetylgalactosaminyl transferase
    B. N-acetylglucosaminyl transferase
    C. galactosyl transferase
    D. L-fucosyl transferase
    D. L-fucosyl transferase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. Even in the absence of prior transfusion or pregnancy, individuals with the Bombay phenotype (Oh) will always have naturally occurring:

    A. anti-H
    B. anti-Ko
    C. anti-U
    D. antiRh
    A. anti-H
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. The antibody in the Lutheran system that is best detected at lower temperatures is:

    A. anti-Lub
    B. anti-Luab
    C. anti-Lu3
    D. anti-Lua
    D. anti-Lua
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. Which of the following antibodies is neutralizable by pooled human plasma?

    A. anti-Yka
    B. anti-Ch
    C. anti-Csa
    D. anti-Kna
    B. anti-Ch
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. Anti-Sda is strongly suspected if:

    A. the agglutinates are mixed-field and refractile
    B. the patient is group A or B
    C. only a small number of panel cells are reactive
    D. the patient has been previously transfused
    A. the agglutinates are mixed-field and refractile
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. HLA antibodies are:

    A. frequently cause hemolytic transfusion reactions
    B. induced by multiple transfusions
    C. naturally occurring
    D. directed against granulocyte antigens only
    B. induced by multiple transfusions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Genes of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC):

    A. contribute to the coordination of cellular and humoral immunity
    B. code for HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C antigens only
    C. are the primary genetic sex-determinants
    D. are linked to genes in the ABO system
    A. contribute to the coordination of cellular and humoral immunity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Isoimmunization to platelet antigen HPA-1a and the placental transfer of maternal antibodies would be expected to cause newborn:

    A. thrombocytopenia
    B. leukocytosis
    C. erythroblastosis
    D. leukopenia
    A. thrombocytopenia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. Saliva from which of the following individuals would neutralize an auto anti-H in the serum of a group A, Le(a-b+) patient?

    A. group O, Le(a-b+)
    B. group A, Le(a+b-)
    C. group O, (Le(a+b-)
    D. group A, Le(a-b-)
    A. group O, Le(a-b+)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. Inhibition testing can be used to confirm antibody specificity for which of the following antibodies?

    A. anti-Lua
    B. anti-Lea
    C. anti-Fya
    D. anti-M
    B. anti-Lea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Which of the following Rh antigens has the highest frequency in Caucasians?

    A. D
    B. c
    C. E
    D. e
    D. e
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Anti-D and anti-C are identified in the serum of a transfused pregnant woman, gravida 2, para 1. Nine months previously she received Rh immune globulin (RhIG) after delivery. Tests of the patient, her husband, and the child revealed the following:

                  anti-D      anti-C      anti-E      anti-c      anti-e
    patient       0              0           0           +           +
    father        +              0           0           +           +
    child          +              0           0           +           +

    The most likely explanation for the presence of anti-C is that this antibody is:

    A. naturally occurring
    B. actually anti-G
    C. from the RhIG dose
    D. actually anti-Cw
    B. actually anti-G
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. The phenomenon of an Rh-positive person whose serum contains anti-D is best explained by:

    A. gene inhibition
    B. gene deletion
    C. missing antigen epitopes
    D. trans position effect
    C. missing antigen epitopes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. When the red cells of an individual fail to react with anti-U, they usually fail to react with:

    A. anti-Leb
    B. anti-P1
    C. anti-S
    D. anti-M
    C. anti-S
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycoprotein-A?

    A. Lea, Leb
    B. P, P1, Pk
    C. S,s
    D. M, N
    D. M, N
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. Paroxysomal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is associated with antibody specificity toward which of the following?

    A. Duffy system antigens
    B. P antigen
    C. Kell system antigens
    D. I antigen
    B. P antigen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?

    A. detected at lower temperatures in the serum of normal individuals
    B. found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis
    C. associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
    D. found only in the serum of group O individuals
    B. found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. In case of cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the patient's serum would most likely react 4+ at immediate spin with:

    A. cord cells not his own or other adult cells
    B. only penicillin-treated panel cells, not his own cells
    C. all cells of a group O cell panel and his own cells
    D. group A cells, B cells and O cells, but not his own cells
    C. all cells of a group O cell panel and his own cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. Cold agglutinin syndrome is associated with an antibody specificity toward which of the following?

    A. I
    B. Fy:3
    C. P
    D. Rh:1
    A. I
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?

    A. often associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn
    B. reacts best at room temperature or 4oC
    C. is usually IgG
    D. reacts best at 37oC
    B. reacts best at room temperature or 4oC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. The Kell (K1) antigen is:

    A. strongly immunogenic
    B. absent from the red cells of neonates
    C. has a frequency of 50% in the random population
    D. destroyed by enzymes
    A. strongly immunogenic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. In chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), granulocyte function is impaired. An association exits between this clinical condition and a depression of which of the following antigens?

    A. Duffy
    B. Kell
    C. P
    D. Rh
    B. Kell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. The antibodies of the Kidd blood group system:

    A. react best by the indirect antiglobulin test
    B. often cause allergic transfusion reactions
    C. are predominantly IgM
    D. do not generally react with antigen-positive, enzyme-treated RBCs
    A. react best by the indirect antiglobulin test
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen?

    A. Fya
    B. E
    C. k
    D. Jka
    A. Fya
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Anti-Fya is:

    A. often an autoagglutinin
    B. capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions
    C. more reactive when tested with enzyme-treated red blood cells
    D. usually a cold-reactive agglutinin
    B. capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Resistance to malaria is best associated with which of the following blood groups?

    A. Duffy
    B. I/i
    C. P
    D. Rh
    A. Duffy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. What percent of group O donors would be compatible with a serum sample that contained anti-X and anti-Y if X antigen is present on red cells of 5 of 20 donors, and Y antigen is present is present on red cells of 1 of 10 donors?

    A. 68.0
    B. 6.8
    C. 25.0
    D. 2.5
    A. 68.0
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. How many Caucasians in a population of 100,000 will have the following combination of phenotypes?

    System       Phenotype       Frequency (%)
    ABO                   O                    45
    Gm                    Fb                   48     
    PGM1                 2-1                  37
    EsD                    2-1                  18

    A. 14
    B. 144
    C. 1,438
    D. 1
    C. 1,438
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. What is the approximate probability of finding compatible blood among random Rh-positive units for a patient who has anti-c and anti-K? (Consider that 20% of Rh-positive donors lack c and 90% lack K)

    A. 10%
    B. 45%
    C. 18%
    D. 1%
    C. 18%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. A 25-year-old Caucasian woman, gravida 3, para 2, required 2 units of Red Blood Cells. The antibody screen was positive and the results of the antibody panel are shown below:


    What is the most probable genotype of this patient?

    A. R0r
    B. r'r'
    C. R1R1
    D. rr
    C. R1R1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. A man suffering from gastrointestinal bleeding has received 20 units of Red Blood Cells in the last 24 hours and is still oozing post-operatively. The following results were obtained:

    What blood product should be administered?

    a. Fresh Frozen Plasma
    b. Red Blood Cells
    c. Factor VIII Concentrate
    d. Platelets
  120. Transfusion of which of the following is needed to help correct hypofibrogenemia due to DIC?

    A. Cryoprecipiated AHF
    B. Whole Blood
    C. Platelets
    D. Fresh Frozen Plasma
    A. Cryoprecipiated AHF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. A blood component used in the treatment of hemophilia A is:

    A. Platelets
    B. Whole Blood
    C. Fresh Frozen Plasma
    D. Factor VIII Concentrate
    D. Factor VIII Concentrate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. Which of the following blood components is most appropriate to transfuse to an 8-year-old male hemophiliac who is about to undergo minor surgery?

    A. Factor VIII Concnetrate
    B. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    C. Platelets
    D. Red Blood Cells
    A. Factor VIII Concnetrate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. A unit of Fresh Frozen Plasma was inadvertently thawed and then immediately refrigerated at 4oC on Monday morning. On Tuesday evening this unit may still be transfused as a replacement for:

    A. Factor V
    B. Factor IX
    C. Factor VIII
    D. all coagulation factors
    B. Factor IX
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. A newborn demonstrates petechiae, ecchymosis and mucosal bleeding. The preferred blood component for this infant would be:

    A. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    B. Red Blood Cells
    C. Platelets
    D. Fresh Frozen Plasma
    C. Platelets
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. Which of the following would be the best source of Platelets for transfusion in case of alloimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia?

    A. polycythemic donor
    B. pooled platelet-rich plasma
    C. mother
    D. father
    C. mother
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. An obstetrical patient has had 3 previous pregnancies. Her first baby was healthy, the second was jaundiced at birth and required an exchange transfusion, while the third was stillborn. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

    A. Rh incompatibility
    B. immune deficiency disease
    C. congenital spherocytic anemia
    D. ABO incompatibility
    A. Rh incompatibility
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. A specimen of cord blood is submitted to the transfusion service for routine testing. The following results are obtained:


    It is known that the father is group B, with the genotype of cde/cde. Of the following 4 antibodies, which 1 is the most likely cause of the positive direct antiglobulin test?

    A. anti-A
    B. anti-C
    C. anti-c
    D. anti-D
    C. anti-c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. ABO-hemolytic disease of the newborn:

    A. most often occurs in first born children
    B. frequently results in stillbirth
    C. usually requires an exchange transfusion
    D. is usually seen only in the newborn of group O mothers
    D. is usually seen only in the newborn of group O mothers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. Which of the following antigens is most likely to be involved in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

    A. M
    B. Lea
    C. P1
    D. Kell
    D. Kell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) differs from Rh HDFN in that:

    A. Rh HDFN occurs in the first pregnancy
    B. Rh HDFN is clinically more severe than ABO HDFN
    C. the mother's antibody screen is positive in ABO HDN
    D. the direct antiglobulin test is weaker in Rh HDFN than ABO
    B. Rh HDFN is clinically more severe than ABO HDFN
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. The following results were obtained:

    Which of the following is the most probable explanation for these results?

    A. large fetomaternal hemorrhage
    B. Rh hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, infant has a false-negative Rh typing
    C. Rh hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn; infant has received intrauterine transfusions
    D. ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
    B. Rh hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, infant has a false-negative Rh typing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. A group A, Rh-positive infant of a group O, Th-positive mother has a weekly positive direct antiglobulin test and a moderately elevated bilirubin 12 hours after birth. The most likely cause is:

    A. ABO incompatibility
    B. neonatal jaundice not associated with blood group
    C. Rh incompatibility
    D. blood group incompatibility due to an antibody to low frequency antigen
    A. ABO incompatibility
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. In suspected cases of hemolytic disease of the newborn, what significant information is based on the amniotic fluid:

    A. marked increase in immature neutrophils (shift to the left)
    B. a differential to estimate the absolute number of lymphocytes present
    C. determination of the presence of spherocytes
    D. estimation of WBC, RBC, and platelet counts
    C. determination of the presence of spherocytes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. The Liley method of predicting the severity of hemolytic disease of the newborn is based on the amniotic fluid:

    A. ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin
    B. bilirubin concentration by standard methods
    C. change in optical density measured at 450 nm
    D. Rh determination
    C. change in optical density measured at 450 nm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. These laboratory results were obtained on maternal and cord blood samples:

    mother: A-
    baby: AB+, DAT:3+ cord hemoglobin: 10 g/dL (100 d/L)

    Does the baby have HDN?

    A. no, a diagnosis of HDN cannot be established without cord bilirubin levels
    B. no, as indicated by the cord hemoglobin
    C. yes, although the cord hemoglobin is normal, the DAT indicates HDN
    D. yes, the DAT and cord hemoglobin level both support HDN
    D. yes, the DAT and cord hemoglobin level both support HDN
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. The main purpose of performing antibody titers on serum from prenatal immunized women is to:

    A. determine of early induction of labor is indicated
    B. decide if the baby needs an intrauterine transfusion
    C. determine the identity of the antibody
    D. identify candidates for amniocentesis or percutaneous umbilical blood sampling
    D. identify candidates for amniocentesis or percutaneous umbilical blood sampling
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. Which unit should be selected for exchange transfusion is the newborn is group A, Rh-positive and the mother is group A, Rh-positive with anti-c?

    A. A, cDE/cDE
    B. A, cde/cde
    C. A, CDe/CDe
    D. O, cde/cde
    C. A, CDe/CDe
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. A mother is group A, with anti-D in her serum. What would be the perfect blood product if an intrauterine transfusion is indicated?

    A. O, Rh-negative Red Blood Cells, Irradiated
    B. A, Rh-negative Red Blood Cells
    C. A, Rh-negative Red Blood Cells, Irradiated
    D. O, Rh-negative Red Blood Cells
    A. O, Rh-negative Red Blood Cells, Irradiated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. Laboratory studies of maternal and cord blood yield the following results:

    Maternal blood             Cord Blood
    O, Rh-negative              B, Rh-positive
    anti-E in serum              DAT = 2+
                                        anti-E in eluate

    If exchange transfusion is necessary, the best choice of blood is:

    A. B, Rh-negative, E+
    B. B, Rh-positive, E+
    C. O, Rh-negative, E-
    D. O, Rh-positive, E-
    D. O, Rh-positive, E-
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. A blood specimen from a pregnant woman is found to be group B, Rh-negative and the serum contains anti-D with a titer of 512. What would be the most appropriate type of blood to have available for a possible exchange transfusion for her infant?

    A. B, Rh-positive
    B. B, Rh-negative
    C. O, Rh-positive
    D. O, Rh-negative
    D. O, Rh-negative
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. Blood selected for exchange transfusion must:

    A. be <3 days old
    B. be the same Rh type as the baby
    C. lack red blood cell antigens corresponding to maternal antibodies
    D. be ABO compatible with the father
    C. lack red blood cell antigens corresponding to maternal antibodies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. When the main objective of an exchange transfusion is to remove the infant's antibody-sensitized red blood cells and to control hyperbilirubinemia, the blood product of choice is ABO compatible:

    A. heparinized Red Blood Cells
    B. Fresh Whole Blood
    C. RBC suspended in Fresh Frozen Plasma
    D. Red Blood Cells (RBC) washed
    C. RBC suspended in Fresh Frozen Plasma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. To prevent graft-vs-host disease, Red Blood Cells prepared for infants who have received intrauterine transfusions should be:

    A. irradiated
    B. frozen and deglycerolized
    C. group- and Rh-compatible with the mother
    D. saline-washed
    A. irradiated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. Which of the following is the preferred specimen for the initial compatibility testing in exchange transfusion therapy?

    A. maternal serum
    B. eluate prepared from infant's red blood cells
    C. infant's postexchange serum
    D. paternal serum
    A. maternal serum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. Rh-Immune Globulin is requested for an Rh-negative mother who has the following results:

    What is the most likely explanation:

    A. mother is a genetic weak D
    B. mother's red cells are coated weakly with IgG
    C. mother had a fetomaternal hemorrhage of D+ cells
    D. anti-D reagent is contaminated with an atypical antibody
    C. mother had a fetomaternal hemorrhage of D+ cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. The following results are seen on amaternal postpartum sample:

    The most appropriate course of action is to:

    A. investigate for a fetomaternal hemorrhage
    B. report the mother as Rh-positive
    C. perform an elution on mother's RBCs
    D. report the mother as Rh-negative
    A. investigate for a fetomaternal hemorrhage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. What is the most appropriate interpretation for the laboratory data given below when an Rh-negative woman has an Rh-positive child?



    A. mother needs 1 vial of RhIg
    B. mother needs 2 vials of RhIg
    C. the fetal-maternal hemorrhage needs to be quantitated
    D. mother is not a candidate for RhIg
    A. mother needs 1 vial of RhIg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. Refer to the following information:
    What is the best interpretation for the laboratory data given above?

    A. mother has had a fetal-maternal hemorrhage
    B. mother has a positive DAT
    C. mother is weak D+
    D. mother is Rh-positive
    A. mother has had a fetal-maternal hemorrhage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. A weakly anti-D is detected in a postpartum specimen from an Rh-negative woman. During her prenatal period, all antibody screening tests were negative. These findings indicate:

    A. a need for further investigation to determine candidacy for Rh immune globulin
    B. that she is not a candidate for Rh immune globulin
    C. the presence of Rh-positive cells in her circulation
    D. that she is a candidate for Rh immune globulin
    A. a need for further investigation to determine candidacy for Rh immune globulin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. The results of a Kleihauer-Betke stain indicate a fetomaternal hemorrhage of 35 mL of whole blood. How many vials of Rh immune globulin would be required?

    A. 4
    B. 1
    C. 3
    D. 2
    D. 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. A fetomaternal hemorrhage of 35 mL of fetal Rh-positive packed RBCs has been detected in an Rh-negative woman. How many vials of Rh immune globulin should be given?

    A. 1
    B. 3
    C. 2
    D. 0
    B. 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. Criteria determining Rh immune globulin eligibility include:

    A. infant has a positive direct antiglobulin test
    B. infant is Rh-negative
    C. mother has not been previously immunized to the D antigen
    D. mother is Rh-positive
    C. mother has not been previously immunized to the D antigen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. While performing routine postpartum testing for an Rh immune globulin (RhIG) candidate, a weakly positive antibody screening test was found. Anti-D was identified. This antibody is most likely the result of:

    A. antenatal admission of Rh immune globulin at 28 weeks gestation
    B. massive fetomaternal hemorrhage occurring at the time of this delivery
    C. mother having a positive direct antiglobulin test
    D. contamination of the blood sample with Wharton jelly
    A. antenatal admission of Rh immune globulin at 28 weeks gestation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. Rh immune globulin administration would not be indicated in an Rh-negative woman who has a(n):

    A. first trimester abortion
    B. anti-D titer of 1:4,096
    C. husband who is Rh-positive
    D. positive direct antiglobulin test
    B. anti-D titer of 1:4,096
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  155. A Kleihauer-Betke stain of a postpartum blood film revealed 0.3% fetal cells. What is the estimated volume (mL) of the fetomaternal hemorrhage expressed as whole blood?

    A. 35
    B. 15
    C. 25
    D. 5
    B. 15
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. Based upon Kleihauer-Betke test results, which of the following formulas is used to determine the volume of fetomaternal hemorrhage expressed in mL of whole blood?

    A. % of fetal cells present x 30
    B. % of maternal cells present x 50
    C. % of maternal cells present x 30
    D. % of fetal cells present x 50
    D. % of fetal cells present x 50
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. An acid elution stain was made using a 1-hour post-delivery maternal blood sample. Out of 2,000 cells that were counted, 30 of them appeared tocontain fetal hemoglobin. It is the policy of the medical center to add 1 vial of Rg immune globulin to the calculated dose when the estimated volume of the hemorrhage exceeds 20 mL of whole blood. Calculate the number of vials of Rh immune globulin that would be indicated under these circumstances.

    A. 4
    B. 3
    C. 2
    D. 5
    A. 4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. The rosette test will detect a fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH) as small as:

    A. 10 mL
    B. 15 mL
    C. 30 mL
    D. 20 mL
    A. 10 mL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. A 10 mL fetal maternal hemorrhage in an Rh-negative woman who delivered an Rh-positive baby means that the:

    A. mother's antibody screen will be positive for anti-D
    B. rosette test will be positive
    C. mother is not a candidate for Rh immune globulin
    D. mother should receive 2 doses of Rh immune globulin
    B. rosette test will be positive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  160. Mixed leukocyte culture (MLC) is a biological assay for detecting which of the following?

    A. HLA-D antigens
    B. immunoglobulins
    C. HLA-A antigens
    D. HLA-B antigens
    A. HLA-D antigens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. A 40-year-old man with autoimmune hemolytic anemia due to anti-E has a hemoglobin level of 10.8 g/dL (108 g/L). This patient will most likely be treated with:

    A. Fresh Frozen Plasma
    B. no transfusion
    C. Whole Blood
    D. Red Blood Cells
    B. no transfusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  162. A patient in the immediate post bone marrow transplant period has a hematocrit of 21%. The red cell product of choice for this patient would be:

    A. packed
    B. saline washed
    C. microaggregate filtered
    D. irradiated
    D. irradiated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  163. HLA antigen typing is important in screening for:

    A. ABO incompatibility
    B. a blood donor
    C. a kidney donor
    D. Rh incompatibility
    C. a kidney donor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  164. DR antigens in the HLA system are:

    A. significant in organ transplantation
    B. expressed on granulocytes
    C. expressed on platelets
    D. not detectable in the lymphocytotoxicity test
    A. significant in organ transplantation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. Anti-E is identified in a panel at the antiglobulin phase. When check cells are added to the tubes, no agglutination is seen. The most appropriate course of action would be to:

    A. record the check cell reactions and report the antibody panel result
    B. open a new vial of AHG for subsequent testing that day
    C. open a new vial of check cells for subsequent testing that day
    D. quality control the AHG reagent and check cells and repeat the panel
    D. quality control the AHG reagent and check cells and repeat the panel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  166. A serological centrifuge is recalibrated for ABO testing after major repairs.

    Given the data above, the centrifuge time for this machine should be:

    A. 30 seconds
    B. 20 seconds
    C. 25 seconds
    D. 15 seconds
    B. 20 seconds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  167. Which of the following represents an acceptably identified patient for sample collection and transfusion?

    A. a handwritten band with patient's name and hospital identification number affixed to the patient's leg
    B. the chart transported with the patient contains his armband not yet attached
    C. the addressographed hospital band is taped to the patient's bed
    D. an unbanded patient resopnds positively when his name is called
    A. a handwritten band with patient's name and hospital identification number affixed to the patient's leg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. Samples from the same patient were received on 2 consecutive days. Test results are summarized below:


    How should the request for crossmatch be handled?

    A. collect a new sample and repeat the tests
    B. crossmatch AB, Rh-positive units with both samples
    C. crossmatch A, Rh-positive units with sample from day 1
    D. crossmatch B, Rh-positive units with sample from day 2
    A. collect a new sample and repeat the tests
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  169. The following test results are noted for a unit of blood labeled group A, Rh-negative:


    What should be done next?

    A. discard the unit
    B. transfuse as a group A, Rh-negative
    C. notify the collecting facility
    D. transfuse as a group A, Rh-positive
    C. notify the collecting facility
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. What information is essential on patient blood sample labels drawn fro compatibility testing?

    A. discard the unit
    B. unique patient medical number
    C. biohazard sticker for AIDS patients
    D. patient's room number
    B. unique patient medical number
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. Granulocytes for transfusion should:

    A. be administered through a microaggregate filter
    B. never be transfused to patients with a history of febrile transfusion reactions
    C. be infused within 72 hours of collection
    D. be ABO compatible with the recipient's serum
    D. be ABO compatible with the recipient's serum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. A neonate will be transfused for the first time woth group O red blood cells. Which of the following is appropriate compatibility testing?

    A. no crossmatch is necessary if initial plasma screening is negative
    B. no screening or crossmatching is necessary for neonates
    C. crossmatch with mother's serum
    D. crossmatch with baby's serum
    A. no crossmatch is necessary if initial plasma screening is negative
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  173. A group B, Rh-negative patient has a positive DAT. Which of the following situations would occur?

    A. the forward and reverse ABO groupings would not agree
    B. the antibody screening test would be positive
    C. all major crossmatches would be incompatible
    D. the weak D test and control would be positive
    D. the weak D test and control would be positive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. The following reactions were obtained:

    The technologist washed the patient's cells with saline, and repeated the forward typing. A saline replacement technique was used with the reverse typing. The following results were obtianed:

    The results are consistent with:

    A. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
    B. acquired "B" antigen
    C. acquired immunodeficiency disease
    D. multiple myeloma
    D. multiple myeloma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. What is the most likely cause of the following ABO discrepancy?

    A. antigen depression due to leukemia
    B. recent transfusion with group O blood
    C. obtained from a heel stick of a 2-month old baby
    D. false-negative cell typing due to rouleaux
    C. obtained from a heel stick of a 2-month old baby
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. Which of the following patient data best reflects the discrepancy seen when a person's red cells demonstrate the acquired-B phenotype?

    A. B
    B. D
    C. A
    D. C
    A. B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  177. Which of the following is characteristic of Tn polyagglutinable red cells?

    A. they react with Arachis hypogaea lectin
    B. the polyagglutination is a transient condition
    C. they show strong reactions when the cells are enzyme-treated
    D. if group O, they may appear to have acquired a group A antigen
    D. if group O, they may appear to have acquired a group A antigen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  178. Mixed field agglutination encountered in ABO grouping with no history of transfusion would most likely be due to:

    A. T activation
    B. positive indirect antiglobulin test
    C. Bombay phenotype (Oh)
    D. A3 red cells
    D. A3 red cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  179. Which of the following is a characteristic of polyagglutinable red cells?

    A. are agglutinated by most adult sera
    B. can be classified by reactivity with Ulex europaeus
    C. autocontrol is always positive
    D. are always an acquired condition
    A. are agglutinated by most adult sera
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  180. Consider the following ABO typing results:

    What is the most likely cause of this discrepancy?

    A. acquired-A phenomenon
    B. cold alloantibody
    C. A2 with anti-A1
    D. cold autoantibody
    D. cold autoantibody
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  181. Consider the following ABO typing results:

    What should be done next?

    A. test serum against a panel of group O cells
    B. perform serum type at 37oC
    C. neutralization
    D. elution
    B. perform serum type at 37oC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  182. The following results were obtained on a patient's blood sample during  routine ABO and Rh testing:


    Select the course of action to resolve this problem: 

    A. perform antibody screening procedure at immediate spin using group O cells
    B. draw a new blood sample from the patient  and repeat all test procedures
    C. repeat the ABO antigen grouping using 3x washed saline-suspended cells
    D. test the patient's serum A2 cells and the patient's red cells with anti-A1 lectin
    A. perform antibody screening procedure at immediate spin using group O cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  183. Which of the following explains an ABO discrepancy caused by problems with the patient's red blood cells?

    A. Tn activation
    B. agammaglobulinemia
    C. rouleaux
    D. an unexpected antibody
    A. Tn activation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  184. The test for weak D is performed by incubating patient's red cells with:

    A. anti-D serum followed by washing and antiglobulin serum
    B. anti-Du serum
    C. several different dilutions of anti-D serum
    D. antiglobulin serum
    A. anti-D serum followed by washing and antiglobulin serum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  185. Refer to the following data:

    Which of the following antibody screen results would you expect with the ABO discrepancy seen above?

    A. positive with all screen cells at the 37oC phase
    B. positive with all screen cells and the autocontrol cells at the RT phase
    C. positive with all screen cells at the RT phase; autocontrol is negative
    D. negative
    C. positive with all screen cells at the RT phase; autocontrol is negative
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  186. The following results were obtained when testing a sample from a 20-year-old, first-time blood donor:

    What is the most likely cause of this ABO discrepancy?

    A. loss of antigen due to disease
    B. weak subgroup of A
    C. phenotype Oh "Bombay"
    D. acquired B
    B. weak subgroup of A
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  187. A mother is Rh-negative and the father is Rh-positive. Their baby is Rh-negative. It may be concluded that:

    A. the father is homozygous for D
    B. the mother is heterozygous for D
    C. the father is heterozygous for D
    D. at least 1 of the 3 Rh typings must be incorrect
    C. the father is heterozygous for D
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  188. Some blood group antibodies characteristically hemolyze appropriate red cells in the presence of:

    A. complement
    B. pencillin
    C. preservatives
    D. anticoagulants
    A. complement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  189. Review the following schematic diagram:

    The next step would be to:

    A. add "check cells" as a confirmatory measure
    B. perform a direct antiglobulin test
    C. identify the cause of the agglutination
    D. perform an elution technique
    C. identify the cause of the agglutination
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  190. The following results were obtained in pretransfusion testing:



    The most probable cause of these results is:

    A. a cold autoantibody
    B. multiple alloantibodies
    C. a warm autoantibody
    D. rouleaux
    C. a warm autoantibody
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  191. A patient is typed as group O, Rh-positive and crossmatched with 6 units of blood. At the indirect antiglobulin (IAT) phase of testing, both antibody screening cells and 2 crossmatched units are incompatible. What is the most likely cause of the incompatibility?

    A. recipient autoantibody
    B. rouleaux
    C. recipient alloantibody
    D. donors have positive DATs
    C. recipient alloantibody
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  192. Refer to the following data:



    Which clinical condition is consistent with the lab results shown above?

    A. penicillin-induced hemolytic anemia
    B. cold hemagglutinin disease
    C. delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
    D. warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
    D. warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  193. A patient received 2 units of Red Blood Cells and had a delayed transfusion reaction. Pretransfusion antibody screening records indicate no agglutination except after the addition of IgG sensitized cells. Repeat testing of the pretransfusion specimen detected an antibody at the antiglobulin phase. What is the most likely explanation for the original results?

    A. red cells were overwashed
    B. patient's serum was omitted from the original testing
    C. antiglobulin reagent was neutralized
    D. centrifugation time was prolonged
    B. patient's serum was omitted from the original testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  194. At the indirect antiglobulin phase of testing, there is no agglutination between patient serum and screening cells. One of 3 donor units was incompatible.

    A. patient has an antibody directed against a low incidence antigen
    B. patient has an antibody directed against a high incidence antigen
    C. donor has an antibody directed against donor cells
    D. donor has a positive antibody screen
    A. patient has an antibody directed against a low incidence antigen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  195. The major crossmatch will detect a(n):

    A. group A patient mistyped as group O
    B. recipient antibody directed against antigens on the donor red cells
    C. Rh-negative donor unit mislabeled as Rh-positive
    D. unexpected red cell antibody in the donor unit
    B. recipient antibody directed against antigens on the donor red cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  196. A 42-year-old female is undergoing surgery tomorrow and her physician requests that 4 units of Red Blood Cells be crossmatched. The following results were obtained:



    What is the most likely cause of the incompatibility of donor 1?

    A. Rh incompatibilities
    B. multiple alloantibody
    C. single alloantibody
    D. donor 1 has a positive DAT
    C. single alloantibody
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  197. Which of the following would most likely be responsible for an incompatible antiglobulin crossmatch?

    A. recipient's red cells are polyagglutiable
    B. donor red cells have a positive direct antiglobulin test
    C. recipient's red cells possess a low frequency antigen
    D. anti-K antibody in donor serum
    B. donor red cells have a positive direct antiglobulin test
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  198. A reason why a patient's crossmatch may be incompatible while the antibody screen is negative is:

    A. the patient's serum contains warm autoantibody
    B. cold agglutinins are interfering in the crossmatch
    C. the patient has an antibody against a high-incidence antigen
    D. the incompatible donor unit has a positive direct antiglobulin
    D. the incompatible donor unit has a positive direct antiglobulin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  199. A blood specimen types as A, Rh-positive with a negative antibody screen. 6 units of group A, Rh-positive Red Blood Cells were crossmatched and 1 unit was incompatible in the antiglobulin phase. The same result was obtained when the test was repeated. Which should be done first?

    A. obtain a new specimen and repeat the crossmatch
    B. repeat the ABO grouping on the incompatible unit using a more sensitive technique
    C. test a panel of red cells that possesses low-incidence antigens
    D. perform a direct antiglobulin test on the donor unit
    D. perform a direct antiglobulin test on the donor unit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  200. During emergency situations when there is no time to determine ABO group and Rh type on a current sample for transfusion, the patient is known to be A, Rh-negative. The technologist should:

    A. release A Rh-negative Red Blood Cells
    B. release O Rh-positive Red Blood Cells
    C. release O Rh-negative Red Blood Cells
    D. refuse to release any blood until the patient's sample has been typed
    C. release O Rh-negative Red Blood Cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  201. A 29-year-old male is hemorrhaging severely. He is AB, Rh-negative. 6 units of blood are required STAT. Of the following types available in the blood bank, which would be most preferable for crossmatch?

    A. O, Rh-negative
    B. AB, Rh-positive
    C. A, Rh-positive
    D. A, Rh-negative
    D. A, Rh-negative
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. A patient is group A2B, Rh-positive and has an antiglobulin- reacting anti-A1 in his serum. He is in the operating room bleeding profusely and group A2B Red Blood Cells are not available. Which of the following blood types is first choice for crossmatch?

    A. O, Rh-negative
    B. B, Rh-negatice
    C. B, Rh-positive
    D. A1B, Rh-positive
    C. B, Rh-positive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  203. A 10% red cell suspension in saline is used in a compatibility test. Which of the following would most likely occur?

    A. a false-negative result due to prozone phenomenon
    B. a false-positive result due to antigen excess
    C. a false-negative result due to antigen excess
    D. a false-positive result due to the prozone phenomenon
    C. a false-negative result due to antigen excess
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  204. A patient serum reacts with 2 of the 3 antibody screening cells at the AHG phase. 8 of the 10 units crossmatched were incompatible at the AHG phase. All reactions are markedly enhanced by enzymes. These results are most consistent with:

    A. anti-M
    B. anti-E
    C. anti-c
    D. anti-Fya
    C. anti-c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  205. A patient received 4 units of blood 2 years previously and now has multiple antibodies. He has not been transfused since that time. It would be most helpful to:

    A. use proteolytic enzymes to destroy the "in vitro" activity of some of the antibodies
    B. phenotype his cells to determine which additional alloantibodies may be produced
    C. freeze the patient's serum to use for antigen typing of compatible units
    D. recommend the use of directed donors, which are more likely to be compatible
    B. phenotype his cells to determine which additional alloantibodies may be produced
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  206. Autoantibodies demonstrating blood group specificity in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia are associated more often with which blood group system?

    A. Duffy
    B. I
    C. Rh
    D. P
    C. Rh
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  207. An antibody that causes in vitro hemolysis and reacts with the red cells of 3 out of ten crossmatched donor units is most likely:

    A. anti-s
    B. anti-E
    C. anti-k
    D. anti-Lea
    D. anti-Lea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  208. A patient's serum reacted weakly positive (1+w) with 16 of 16 group O panel cells at AHG test phase. The autocontrol was negative. Tests with ficin-treated panel cells demonstrated no reactivity at the AHG phase. Which antibody is most likely responsible for these results?

    A. anti-Ch
    B. anti-k
    C. anti-e
    D. anti-Jsb
    A. anti-Ch
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  209. An antibody identification study is performed with the 5-cell panel shown below:




    An antibody against which of the following antigens could not be excluded?

    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 4
    D. 3
    A. 1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  210. A 25-year-old Caucasian woman, gravida 3, para 2, required 2 units of Red Blood Cells. The antibody screen was positive and the results of the antibody panel are shown below:




    Which of the following antibodies may be the cause of the positive antibody screen?

    A. anti-M and anti-K
    B. anti-Jka and anti-c
    C. anti-c and anti-E
    D. anti-P1 and anti-c
    C. anti-c and anti-E
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  211. A 25-year-old Caucasian woman, gravida 3, para 2, required 2 units of Red Blood Cells.  The antibody screen was positive and the results of the antibody panel are shown below:




    Which common antibody has not been ruled out by the panel?

    A. anti-C
    B. anti-Jka
    C. anti-E
    D. anti-Leb
    C. anti-E
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  212. In the process of identifying an antibody, the technologist observed 2+ reactions with 3 of the 10 cells in a panel after the immediate spin phase. There was no reactivity after incubation at 37oC and after the anti-human globulin test phase. The antibody most likely is:

    A. anti-Lea
    B. anti-Fya
    C. anti-P1
    D. anti-C
    A. anti-Lea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  213. Transfusion of Ch+ (Chido-positive) red cells to a patient with anti-Ch has been reported to cause:

    A. febrile transfusion reactions
    B. no clinically significant red cell destruction
    C. decreased 51Cr red cell survivals
    D. clinically significant immune red cell destruction
    B. no clinically significant red cell destruction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  214. Results of a serum sample tested against a panel of reagent red cells gives presumptive evidence of an alloantibody directed against a high incidence antigen. Further investigation to confirm the specificity should include which of the following?

    A. testing of an eluate prepared from the patient's red cells
    B. serum testing against red cells from random donors
    C. serum testing against red cells known to lack high incidence antigens
    D. serum testing against enzyme-treated autologous red cells
    C. serum testing against red cells known to lack high incidence antigens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  215. Refer to the following data:




    The ABO discrepancy seen above is most likely due to:

    A. anti-H
    B. rouleaux
    C. unexpected IgG antibody present
    D. anti-A1
    A. anti-H
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  216. Refer to the following panel:




    aBased on the results of the above panel, the most likely antibodies are:

    A. anti-E, anti-Jka and anti-K
    B. anti-E and anti-Leb
    C. anti-Jka and anti-M
    D. anti-M and ani-K
    A. anti-E, anti-Jka and anti-K
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  217. Which characteristic are true of all 3 of the following antibodies: anti-Fya, anti-Jka, and anti-K?

    A. not detected with enzyme treated cells; may cause delayed transfusion reactions
    B. may show dosage effect; may cause severe hemolytic transfusion reactions
    C. detected at IAT phase and may cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) and transfusion reactions
    D. requires the IAT technique for detection; usually not responsible for causing HDFN
    C. detected at IAT phase and may cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) and transfusion reactions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  218. Refer to the following cell panel:



    aBased on these results, which of the following antibodies is most likely present?

    A. anti-D
    B. anti-C
    C. anti-E
    D. anti-K
    B. anti-C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  219. A pregnant woman has a positive antibody screen and the panel results are given below:




    aWhat is the association of the antibody(ies) with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDFN)?

    A. HDFN cannot be determined
    B. is not associated with HDFN
    C. may cause HDFN
    D. usually fatal HDFN
    C. may cause HDFN
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  220. Which of the following tests is most commonly used to detect antibodies attached to a patient's red blood cells in vivo?

    A. complement fixation
    B. indirect antiglobulin
    C. direct antiglobulin
    D. immunofluorescence
    C. direct antiglobulin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  221. Anti-I may cause a positive direct anti globulin test (DAT) because of:

    A. anti-I agglutinating the cells
    B. T-activation
    C. C3c remaining on the red cells after cleavage of C3b
    D.  C3d bound to the red cells
    D.  C3d bound to the red cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  222. Which direct antiglobulin test results are associated with an anamnestic antibody response in a recently transfused patient?



    A. result B
    B. result C
    C. result A
    D. result D
    C. result A
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  223. In the direct (DAT) and indirect (IAT) antiglobulin tests, false-negative reactions may result if the:

    A. addition of AHG is delayed for 40 minutes or more after washing the serum/cell mixture
    B. saline used for washing the serum/cell mixture has been stored in glass or metal containers
    C. patient's blood specimen was collected into tubes containing silicon gel
    D. patient's blood specimen was contaminated with bacteria
    A. addition of AHG is delayed for 40 minutes or more after washing the serum/cell mixture
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  224. Polyspecific reagents used in the direct antiglobulin test should have specificty:

    A. IgM and C3d
    B. IgM and IgA
    C. IgG and IgA
    D. IgG and C3d
    D. IgG and C3d
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  225. In the direct antiglobulin test, the antiglobulin reagent is used to:

    A. measure antibodies in a test serum by fixing complement
    B. precipitate anti-erythrocyte antibodies
    C. detect preexisting antibodies on erythrocytes
    D. mediate hemolysis of indicator red blood cells by providing complement
    C. detect preexisting antibodies on erythrocytes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  226. AHG (Coombs) control cells:

    A. can be used as a positive control for anti-C3 reagents
    B. cab be used only for the indirect antiglobulin test
    C. must be used to confirm all positive antiglobulin reactions
    D. are coated only with IgG antibody
    D. are coated only with IgG antibody
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  227. A 56-year-old female with cold agglutinin disease has a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT). When the DAT is repeated using monospecific antiglobulin sera, which of the following is most likely to be detected?

    A. C3d
    B. IgG
    C. IgM
    D. C4a
    A. C3d
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  228. The mechanism that best explains hemolytic anemia due to penicillin is:

    A. drug-dependent with autoantibody production
    B. nonimmunologic protein adsorption with positive DAT
    C. drug-dependent antibodies reacting in the presence of drug
    D. drug-dependent antibodies reacting with drug-treated cells
    D. drug-dependent antibodies reacting with drug-treated cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  229. Use of EDTA plasma prevents activation of the classical complement pathway by:

    A. causing rapid decay of complement components
    B. preventing chemotaxis
    C. chelating Ca++ ions, which prevents assembly of C1
    D. chelating Mg++ ions, which prevents the assembly of C6
    C. chelating Ca++ ions, which prevents assembly of C1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  230. Which of the following medications is most likely to cause production of autoantibodies?

    A. cephalothin
    B. penicillin
    C. tetracycline
    D. methyldopa
    D. methyldopa
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  231. Serological results on an untransfused patient were:

    antibody screen:            negative at AHG
    direct antiglobulin test:   3+ with anti-C3d
    eluate:                          negative

    These results are most likely due to:

    A. warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
    B. drug induced hemolytic anemia
    C. paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
    D. cold agglutinin syndrome
    D. cold agglutinin syndrome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  232. The drug cephalosporin can cause a positive direct antiglobulin test with hemolysis by which of the following mechanisms?

    A. drug-independent with autoantibody production
    B. drug-dependent antibodies reacting with drug-treated cells
    C. nonimmunologic protein adsorption with positive DAT
    D. drug-dependent antibodies reacting in the presence of a drug
    D. drug-dependent antibodies reacting in the presence of a drug
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  233. Crossmatch results at the antiglobulin phase were negative. When 1 drop of check cells was added, no agglutination was seen. The most likely explanation is that the:

    A. centrifuge speed was set too high
    B. residual patient patient serum inactivated the AHG reagent
    C. red cells were overwashed
    D. laboratorian did not add enough check cells
    B. residual patient patient serum inactivated the AHG reagent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  234. Which of the following might cause a false-negative indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)?

    A. too heavy a cell suspension
    B. over-reading
    C. addition of an extra drop of serum
    D. IgG-coated screening cells
    A. too heavy a cell suspension
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  235. The purpose of testing with anti-A,B to detect:

    A. anti-A1
    B. anti-A2
    C. subgroups of B
    D. subgroups of A
    D. subgroups of A
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  236. What is the most appropriate diluent for preparing a solution of 8% bovine albumin for a red cell control reagent?

    A. deionized water
    B. distilled water
    C. normal saline
    D. Alsever solution
    C. normal saline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  237. Which of the following antigens gives enhanced reactions with its corresponding antibody following treatment of the red cells with proteolytic enzymes?

    A. E
    B. Fya
    C. M
    D. S
    A. E
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  238. In a prenatal workup, the following results were obtained:




    ABO discrepancy was thought to be due to an antibody directed against a component of the typing sera. Which test would resolve this discrepancy?

    A. A1 lectin
    B. wash patient's RBCs and repeat testing
    C. anti-A,B and extend incubation of the reverse group
    D. repeat reverse group using A2 cells
    B. wash patient's RBCs and repeat testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  239. Refer to the following panel:




    Based on the results of the above panel, which technique would be most helpful in determining antibody specificity?

    A. autoadsorption
    B. saliva inhibition
    C. proteolytic enzyme treatment
    D. urine neutralization
    C. proteolytic enzyme treatment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  240. Of the following, the most useful technique(s) in the identification and classification of high-titer, low-avidity (HTLA) antibodies is/are:

    A. cold autoadsorption
    B. titration and inhibition
    C. adsorption and elution
    D. reagent red cell panels
    B. titration and inhibition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  241. To confirm a serum antibody specificity identified as anti-P1, a neutralization study was performed and the following results obtained:

    What conclusion can be made from these results?

    A. anti-P1 is confirmed
    B. anti-P1 cannot be confirmed due to the results of the negative control
    C. anti-P1 is ruled out
    D. a second antibody is suspected due to the results of the negative control
    B. anti-P1 cannot be confirmed due to the results of the negative control
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  242. What happens to an antibody in neutralization study when a soluble antigen is added to the test?

    A. complement fixation
    B. hemolysis
    C. dilution
    D. inhibition
    D. inhibition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  243. To confirm the specificity of anti-Leb, an inhibition study using Lewis substance was performed with the following results:

    What conclusion can be made from these results?

    A. a second antibody is suspected due to the positive control
    B. anti-Leb is confirmed because the tubes with Lewis substance are negative
    C. anti-Leb cannot be confirmed because the saline positive is control
    D. anti-Leb is not confirmed because the tubes with Lewis substance are negative
    B. anti-Leb is confirmed because the tubes with Lewis substance are negative
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  244. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this saliva neutralization testing?


    A. group B secretor
    B. group AB secretor
    C. group O secretor
    D. group A secretor
    C. group O secretor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  245. A person's saliva incubated with the following antibodies and tested with the appropriate A2, O, and B indicator cells, gives us the following test results:

    The person's red cells ABO phenotype is:

    A. B
    B. O
    C. A
    D. AB
    A. B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  246. An antibody screen performed using solid phase technology revealed a diffuse layer of red blood cells on the bottom of the well. These results indicate:

    A. a positive reaction
    B. serum was not added
    C. red cells have a positive direct antiglobulin test
    D. a negative reaction
    A. a positive reaction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  247. On Monday, a patient's K antigen typing result was positive. Two days later, the patient's K typing was negative. The patient was transfused with 2 units of Fresh Frozen Plasma. The tech might conclude that the:

    A. results are normal
    B. transfusion of FFP affected the K typing
    C. anti-K reagent was omitted on Monday
    D. wrong patient was drawn
    D. wrong patient was drawn
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  248. Which one of the following is an indicator of polyagglutination?

    A. presence of red cell autoantibody
    B. decreased serum bilirubin
    C. RBCs typing as weak D+
    D. agglutination with normal adult ABO compatible sera
    D. agglutination with normal adult ABO compatible sera
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  249. While performing an antibody screen, a test reaction is suspected to be rouleaux. A saline replacement test is performed and the reaction remains. What is the best interpretation?

    A. original reaction of rouleaux is confirmed
    B. replacement test is invalid and should be repeated
    C. original reaction was due to true agglutination
    D. antibody screen is negative
    C. original reaction was due to true agglutination
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  250. A 10-year-old girl was hospitalized because her urine had a distinct red color. The patient had recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection and appeared very pale and lethargic. Tests were performed with the following results:


    The patient probably has:

    A. hereditary erythroblastic multinuclearity with a positive acidified serum test (HEMPAS)
    B. warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
    C. paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)
    D. paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)
    D. paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  251. Which of the following is useful for removing IgG from red blood cells with a positive DAT to perform a phenotype?

    a bromelin
    b. chloroquine
    c. LISS
    d. DTT
    b. chloroquine
  252. A patient's serum contains a mixture of antibodies. One of the antibodies is identified as anti-D. Anti-Jka, anti-Fya and possibly another antibody are present. What technique(s) may be helpful to identify the other antibody(ies)?

    A. enzyme panel; select cell panel
    B. thiol reagents
    C. lowering the pH and increasing the incubation time
    D. using albumin as an enhancement media in combination with selective adsorption
    A. enzyme panel; select cell panel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  253. A sample gives the following results:


    Which lectin should be used first to resolve this discrepancy?

    A. Dolichos biflorus
    B. Vicia graminea
    C. Ulex europaeus
    D. Arachis hypogaea
    A. Dolichos biflorus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  254. The serum of group O, Cde/Cde donor contains anti-D. In order to prepare a suitable anti-D reagent from this donor's serum, which of the following cells would be suitable for the adsorption?

    A. group A2B, CDe/cde cells
    B. group O, Cde/cde cells
    C. group A1B, cde/cde cells
    D. group O, cde/cde cells
    C. group A1B, cde/cde cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  255. A 26-year-old female is admitted with anemia of undetermined origin. Blood samples are received with a crossmatch request for 6 units of Red Blood Cells. The patient is group A, Rh-negative and has no history of transfusion or pregnancy. The following results were obtained in pretransfusion testing:


    The best way to find compatible blood is to:

    A. perform a warm autoadsorption
    B. use the saline replacement technique
    C. do an antibody identification panel
    D. use the pre-warm technique
    A. perform a warm autoadsorption
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  256. A patient's serum was reactive 2+ in the antiglobulin phase of testing with all cells on a routine panel including their own. Transfusion was performed 6 months previously. The optimal adsorption method to remove the autoantibody is:

    A. adsorption using enzyme-treated red cells from a normal donor
    B. autoadsorption using the patient's LISS-treated red cells
    C. adsorption using methyldopa-treated red cells
    D. autoadsorption using the patient's ZZAP-treated red cells
    D. autoadsorption using the patient's ZZAP-treated red cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  257. In a cold autoadsorption procedure, pretreatment of the patient's red cells with which of the following reagents is helpful?

    A. low ionic strength saline (LISS)
    B. ficin
    C. albumin
    D. phosphate-buffered saline at pH 9.0
    B. ficin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  258. The process of separation of antibody from its antigen is known as:

    A. adsorption
    B. elution
    C. neutralization
    D. diffusion
    B. elution
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  259. Which of the following is most helpful to confirm a weak ABO subgroup?

    A. testing with A1 lectin
    B. neutralization
    C. use of anti-A,B
    D. adsorption-elution
    D. adsorption-elution
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  260. One of the most effective methods for the elution of warm autoantibodies from RBCs utilizes:

    A. 10% sucrose
    B. LISS
    C. distilled water
    D. change in pH
    D. change in pH
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  261. How would the hematocrit of a patient with chronic anemia be affected by the transfusion of a unit of Whole Blood containing 475 mL of blood, vs 2 units of Red Blood Cells each with a total volume of 250 mL?

    A. Red Blood Cells would provide twice the increment in hematocrit as the Whole Blood
    B. patient's hematocrit would be equally affected by the Whole Blood or the Red Blood Cells
    C. Whole Blood would provide twicw the increment in hematocrit as the Red Blood Cells
    D. Whole Blood would provide a change in hematocrit slightly less than the Red Blood Cells
    A. Red Blood Cells would provide twice the increment in hematocrit as the Whole Blood
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  262. After checking the inventory, it was noted that there were no units on the shelf marked "May Issue as Uncrossmatched: For Emergency Only." Which of the following should be placed on this shelf?

    A. any units that are expiring at midnight
    B. units of group O, Rh-negative Red Blood Cells
    C. 1 unit of each of the ABO blood groups
    D. units of group O, Rh-positive Whole Blood
    B. units of group O, Rh-negative Red Blood Cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  263. The primary indication for granulocyte transfusion is:

    A. severe neutropenia with an infection that is nonresponsive to antibiotic therapy
    B. prophylactic treatment for infection
    C. additional supportive therapy in those patients who are responsive to antibiotic therapy
    D. clinical situations where bone marrow recovery is not anticipated
    A. severe neutropenia with an infection that is nonresponsive to antibiotic therapy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  264. A 42-year-old male of average body mass has a history of chronic anemia requiring transfusion support. Two units of Red Blood Cells are transfused. If the pretransfusion hemoglobin was 7.0 g/dL (70 g/L), the expected posttransfusion hemoglobin concentration should be:

    A. 8.0 g/dL (80 g/L)
    B. 9.0 g/dL (90 g/L)
    C. 11.0 g/dL (110 g/L)
    D. 10.0 g/dL (100 g/L)
    B. 9.0 g/dL (90 g/L)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  265. How many units of Red Blood Cells are required to raise the hematocrit os a 70 kg nonbleeding man from 24% to 30%?

    A. 3
    B. 2
    C. 4
    D. 1
    B. 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  266. For which of the following transfusion candidates would CMV-seronegative blood be most likely indicated?

    A. sickle cell patient
    B. CMV-seropositive patients
    C. renal dialysis patients
    D. bone marrow and hematopoietic recipients
    D. bone marrow and hematopoietic recipients
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  267. Although ABO compatibility is preferred, ABO incompatible product may be administered when transfusing:

    A. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    B. Single-Donor Plasma
    C. Granulocytes
    D. Fresh Frozen Plasma
    A. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  268. Transfusion of plateletpheresis products from HLA-compatible donors is the preferred treatment for:

    A. recently diagnosed cases of TTP with severe thrombocytopenia
    B. acute leukemia in relapse with neutropenia, thrombocytopenia and sepsis
    C. severely thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets
    D. immune thrombocytopenia purpura
    C. severely thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  269. Washed Red Blood Cells are indicated in which of the following situations?

    A. a newborn with a hematocrit of <30%
    B. a pregnant woman with a history of hemolytic disease of the newborn
    C. a patient with a positive DAT and red cell autoantibody
    D. an IgA-deficient patient with a history of transfusion-associated anaphylaxis
    D. an IgA-deficient patient with a history of transfusion-associated anaphylaxis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  270. Which of the following is consistent with standard blood bank procedure governing the infusion of fresh frozen plasma?

    A. group A may be administered to bot A and O recipients
    B. group O may be administered to recipients of all blood groups
    C. group AB may be administered to AB recipients only
    D. only blood group-specific plasma may be administered
    A. group A may be administered to bot A and O recipients
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  271. A patient who is group AB, Rh-negative needs 2 units of Fresh Frozen Plasma. Which of the following units of plasma would be most acceptable for transfusion?

    A. group A, Rh-negative
    B. group B, Rh-positive
    C. group O, Rh-negative
    D. group AB, Rh-positive
    D. group AB, Rh-positive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  272. What increment of platelets/uL (platelets/L), in the typical 70-kg human, is expected to result from each single unit of Platelets transfused to a non-HLA-sensitized recipient?

    A. 3,000-5,000
    B. 25,000-30,000
    C. 20,000-25,000
    D. 5,000-10,000
    D. 5,000-10,000
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  273. Platelet transfusions are of most value in treating:

    A. immune thrombocytopenic purpura
    B. functional platelet abnormalities
    C. posttransfusion purpura
    D. hemolytic transfusion reaction
    B. functional platelet abnormalities
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  274. Washed Red Blood Cells would be the product of choice for a patient with:

    A. multiple red cell alloantibodies
    B. warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
    C. anti-IgA antibodies
    D. an increased risk of hepatitis infection
    C. anti-IgA antibodies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  275. A patient received about 15 mL of compatible blood and developed severe shock, but no fever. If the patient needs another transfusion, what kind of red blood cell component should be given?

    A. Red Blood Cells
    B. Red Blood Cells, Irradiated
    C. Red Blood Cells, Leukocyte-Reduced
    D. Red Blood Cells, Washed
    D. Red Blood Cells, Washed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  276. Fresh Frozen Plasma from a group A, Rh-positive donor may be safely transfused to a patient who is group:

    A. AB, Rh-positive
    B. B, Rh-negative
    C. AB, Rh-negative
    D. A, Rh-negative
    D. A, Rh-negative
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  277. A patient admitted to the trauma unit requires emergency release of Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP). His blood donor card states that he is group AB, Rh-positive. Which of the following blood groups of FFP should be issued?

    A. AB
    B. O
    C. B
    D. A
    A. AB
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  278. Fresh Frozen Plasma:

    A. has a higher risk of transmitting hepatitis than does Whole Blood
    B. need not be ABO-compatible
    C. contains all labile coagulative factors except cryoprecipitated AHF
    D. should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing
    D. should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  279. Ten units of group A platelets were transfused to a group AB patient. The pretransfusion platelet count was 12 x 103/uL (12 x 109/L) and the posttransfusion count was 18 x 103/uL (18 x 109/L). From this information, the laboratorian would most likely conclude that the patient:

    A. clinical data does not suggest a need for platelets
    B. has developed antibodies to the transfused platelets
    C. should receive irradiated platelets
    D. needs group AB platelets to be effective
    B. has developed antibodies to the transfused platelets
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  280. Hypotension, nausea, flushing, fever and chills are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?

    A. circulatory overload
    B. anaphylactic
    C. hemolytic
    D. allergic
    C. hemolytic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  281. A patient has become refractory to platelet transfusion. Which of the following are probable causes?

    A. development of an alloantibody with anti-D specificity
    B. decreased pH of the platelets
    C. transfusion of Rh-incompatible platelets
    D. development of antibodies to HLA antigen
    D. development of antibodies to HLA antigen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  282. A poor increment in the platelet count 1 hour following platelet transfusion is most commonly caused by:

    A. alloimmunization to HLA antigens
    B. disseminated intravascular coagulation
    C. defective platelets
    D. splenomegaly
    A. alloimmunization to HLA antigens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  283. Posttransfusion purpura is usually caused by:

    A. anti-HPA-1a (P1A1)
    B. anyi-A
    C. white cell antibodies
    D. platelet wash-out
    A. anti-HPA-1a (P1A1)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  284. an unexplained fall in hemoglobin and mild jaundice in a patient transfused with Red Blood Cells 1 week previously would most likely indicate:

    A. presence of HLA antibodies
    B. paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
    C. delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
    D. posttransfusion hepatitis infection
    C. delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  285. In delayed transfusion reeaction, the causative antibody is generally too weak to be detected in routine compatibility testing and antibody screening tests, but its typically detectable at what point after transfusion?

    A. 3-6 hours
    B. 3-7 days
    C. after 120 days
    D. 60-90 days
    B. 3-7 days
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  286. The most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions are due to incompatibility in which of the following blood group systems?

    A. Rh
    B. ABO
    C. Duffy
    D. MN
    B. ABO
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  287. Severe intravascular hemolysis is most likely caused by antibodies of which blood group system?

    A. ABO
    B. Rh
    C. Kell
    D. Duffy
    A. ABO
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  288. Which of the following blood group systems is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

    A. I
    B. Kidd
    C. MNS
    D. Lewis
    B. Kidd
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  289. After receiving a unit of Red Blood Cells, a patient immediately developed flushing, nervousness, fever spike of 102oF (38.9oC), shaking, chills and back pain. The plasma hemoglobin was elevated and there was hemoglobinuria. Laboratory investigation of this adverse reaction would most likely show:

    A. presence of anti-Fya antibody in patient's serum
    B. an error in ABO grouping
    C. an error in Rh typing
    D. presence of gram-negative bacteria in blood bag
    B. an error in ABO grouping
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  290. A trauma patient who has just received ten units of blood may develop:

    A. thrombocytopenia
    B. anemia
    C. polycythemia
    D. leukocytosis
    A. thrombocytopenia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  291. Five days after transfusion, a patient becomes mildly jaundiced and experiences a drop in hemoglobin and hematocrit with no apparent hemorrhage. Below are the results of the transfusion reaction workup:

    In order to reach a conclusion, the technician should first:

    A. request an EDTA tube be drawn on the patient and repeat the DAT
    B. repeat the pretransfusion antibody screen on the patient's sample
    C. retype the pre- and posttransfusion patient samples and donor #1
    D. identify the antibody in the serum and eluate from the posttransfusion sample
    D. identify the antibody in the serum and eluate from the posttransfusion sample
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  292. The most appropriate laboratory test for early detection of acute posttransfusion hemolysis is:

    A. serum bilirubin concentration
    B. plasma haptoglobin concentration
    C. a visual inspection for free plasma hemoglobin
    D. examination for hematuria
    C. a visual inspection for free plasma hemoglobin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  293. During initial investigation of a suspected hemolytic transfusion reaction, it was observed that the posttransfusion serum was yellow in color and the direct antiglobulin test was negative. Repeat ABO typing on the posttransfusion sample confirmed the pretransfusion results. What is the next step in this investigation?

    A. repeat compatibility testing on suspected unit(s)
    B. use enhancement media torepeat the antibody screen
    C. perform plasma hemoglobin and haptoglobin determinations
    D. no further serological testing is necessary
    D. no further serological testing is necessary
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  294. Which of the following transfusion reactions is characterized by high fever, shock, hemoglobinuria, DIC and renal failure?

    A. circulatory overload
    B. bacterial contamination
    C. anaphylactic
    D. febrile
    B. bacterial contamination
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  295. Hemoglobinuria, hypotension and generalized bleeding are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?

    A. hemolytic
    B. circulatory overload
    C. allergic
    D. anaphylactic
    A. hemolytic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  296. When evaluating a suspected transfusion reaction, which of the following is the ideal sample collection time for a bilirubin determination?

    A. 12 hours posttransfusion
    B. 24 hours posttransfusion
    C. 48 hours posttransfusion
    D. 6 hours posttransfusion
    D. 6 hours posttransfusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  297. A patient's record shows a previous anti-Jkb, but the current antibody screen is negative. What further testing should be done before transfusion?

    A. crossmatch type specific units and release only compatible units for transfusion
    B. phenotype the patient's red cells for the Jkb antigen
    C. perform a cell panel on the patient's serum
    D. give Jkb negative crossmatch compatible blood
    D. give Jkb negative crossmatch compatible blood
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  298. A posttransfusion blood sample from a patient experiencing chills and fever shows distinct hemolycic. The direct antiglobulin test is positive (mixed field). What would be most helpful to determine the cause of the reaction?

    A. autocontrol
    B. bacteriologic smear and culture
    C. elution and antibody identification
    D. repeat antibody screen on the donor unit
    C. elution and antibody identification
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  299. A patient is readmitted to the hospital with a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL (70 g/L) 3 weeks after receiving 2 units of red cells. The initial serological tests are:

    ABO/Rh:                   A+
    antibody screen:        negative
    DAT:                       1 + mixed field

    Which test should be performed next?

    A. antibody identification panel on the patient's serum
    B. perform an elution and identify the antibody in the eluate
    C. repeat the ABO type on the donor units
    D. crossmatch the post reaction serum with the 3 donor units
    B. perform an elution and identify the antibody in the eluate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  300. In a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction, the direct antiglobulin test is typically:

    A. negative
    B. mixed-field positive
    C. positive due to complement
    D. negative when the antibody screen is negative
    B. mixed-field positive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  301. A patient has had massive trauma involving replacement of 1 blood volume with Red Blood Cells and crystalloid. She is currently experiencing oozing from mucous membranes and surgical incisions. Laboratory values are as follows:

    PT:                   normal
    APTT:               normal
    bleeding time:     prolonged
    platelet count:    20 x 10^3/uL (20 x 10^9/L)
    hemoglobin:        11.4 g/dL (114 g/L)

    What is the blood component of choice for this patient?

    A. Fresh Frozen Plasma
    B. Prothrombin Complex
    C. Platelets
    D. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    C. Platelets
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  302. For a patient who has suffered an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the primary treatment goal should be to:

    A. prevent alloimmunization
    B. reverse hypotension and minimize renal damage
    C. diminish chills and fever
    D. prevent hemoglobinemia
    B. reverse hypotension and minimize renal damage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  303. A patient multiply transfused with Red Blood Cells developed a headache, nausea, fever and chills during his last transfusion. What component is most appropriate to prevent this reaction in the future?

    A. Red Blood Cells
    B. Red Blood Cells, Leukocyte-Reduced
    C. Red Blood Cells, Irradiated
    D. Red Blood Cells selected as CMV-reduced-risk
    B. Red Blood Cells, Leukocyte-Reduced
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  304. The use of Leukocyte-Reduced Red Blood Cells and Platelets is indicated for which of the following patient groups?

    A. burn victims with anemia and low serum protein
    B. CMV-seropositive postpartum mothers
    C. patients with history of febrile transfusion reactions
    D. victims of acute trauma with massive bleeding
    C. patients with history of febrile transfusion reactions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  305. Leukocyte-Poor Red Blood Cells would most likely be indicated for patients with a history of:

    A. hemophilia A
    B. von Willebrand disease
    C. iron deficiency anemia
    D. febrile transfusion reaction
    D. febrile transfusion reaction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  306. Posttransfusion anaphylactic reactions occur most often in patients with:

    A. Factor VIII deficiency
    B. IgA deficiency
    C. leukocyte antibodies
    D. erythrocyte antibodies
    B. IgA deficiency
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  307. Which of the following transfusion reactions occurs after infusion of only a few milliliters of blood and gives no history of fever?

    A. circulatory overload
    B. febrile
    C. hemolytic
    D. anaphylactic
    D. anaphylactic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  308. Fever and chills are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?

    A. circulatory overload
    B. febrile
    C. citrate toxicity
    D. allergic
    B. febrile
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  309. Hives and itching are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?

    A. circulatory overload
    B. bacterial
    C. allergic
    D. febrile
    C. allergic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  310. A temperature rise of 10C or more occurring in association with a transfusion, with no abnormal results in the transfusion reaction investigation, usually indicates which of the following reactions?

    A. circulatory overload
    B. hemolytic
    C. anaphylactic
    D. febrile
    D. febrile
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  311. A 65-year-old woman experienced shaking, chills, and a fever of 102oF (38.9oC) approximately 40 minutes following the transfusion of a second unit of Red Blood Cells. The most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms is:

    A. transfusion of bacterially contaminated blood
    B. congestive heart failure
    C. febrile transfusion reaction
    D. anaphylactic transfusion reaction
    C. febrile transfusion reaction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  312. A sickle cell patient who has been multiply transfused experiences fever and chills after receiving a unit of Red Blood Cells. Transfusion investigation studies show:

    DAT:                   negative
    plasma hemolysis:  no hemolysis observed

    The patient is most likely reacting to:

    A. plasma protein
    B. white cells or cytokines
    C. IgA
    D. red cells
    B. white cells or cytokines
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  313. Use of only male donors as a source of plasma intended for transfusion is advocated to reduce which type of reaction?

    A. TACO (circulatory overload)
    B. TRALI
    C. hemolytic
    D. allergic
    B. TRALI
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  314. Platelets are ordered for a patient who has a history of febrile reactions following red cell transfusions. What should be done to reduce the risk of another febrile reaction?

    A. transfuse Irradiated Platelets
    B. give Leukocyte-Reduced Platelets
    C. pretransfusion administration of Benadryl
    D. give Platelets from IgA-deficient donors
    B. give Leukocyte-Reduced Platelets
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  315. Symptoms of dyspnea, cough, hypoxia, and pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion is most likely which type of infection?

    A. anaphylactic
    B. febrile
    C. TRALI
    D. hemolytic
    C. TRALI
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  316. A patient with a coagulopathy was transfused with FP24 (plasma frozen within 24 hours of collection). after infusion of 15 mL, the patient experienced hypotension, shock, chest pain and difficulty in breathing. The most likely cause of the reaction is:

    A. anti-IgA
    B. intravascular hemolysis
    C. leukoagglutinations
    D. bacterial contamination
    A. anti-IgA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  317. To prevent transfusion reactions, which Red Blood Cell product should be transfused?

    A. IgA-deficient donor blood
    B. CMV-negative Red Blood Cells
    C. Red Blood Cells, Irradiated
    D. Red Blood Cells, Leukocyte-Reduced
    D. Red Blood Cells, Leukocyte-Reduced
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  318. During the issue of an autologous unit of Whole Blood, the supernatant plasma is observed to be dark red in color. What would be the best course of action?

    A. the unit may be only for autologous use
    B. issue the unit only as washed Red Blood Cells
    C. quarantine the unit for further testing
    D. remove the plasma and issue the unit as Red Blood Cells
    C. quarantine the unit for further testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  319. Coughing, cyanosis and difficult breathing are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?

    A. hemolytic
    B. allergic
    C. febrile
    D. circulatory overload
    D. circulatory overload
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  320. Which of the following is a nonimmunologic adverse effect of a transfusion?

    A. hemolytic reaction
    B. congestive heart failure
    C. febrile nonhemolytic reaction
    D. urticaria
    B. congestive heart failure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  321. Congestive heart failure, severe headache and/or peripheral edema occurring soon after transfusion is indicative of which type of transfusion reaction?

    A. circulatory overload
    B. febrile
    C. anaphylactic
    D. hemolytic
    A. circulatory overload
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  322. A patient with severe anemia became cyanotic and developed tachycardia, hypertension, and difficulty breathing after receiving 3 units of blood. No fever or other symptoms were evident. This is most likely what type of reaction?

    A. hemolytic reaction
    B. transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)
    C. anaphylactic reaction
    D. febrile reaction
    B. transfusion-associated circulatory overload
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  323. A patient became hypotensive and went into shock after receiving 50 mL of a unit of Red Blood Cells. She had a shaking chill and her temperature rose to 104.8oF (40.4oC). A transfusion reaction investigation was initiated but no abnormal results were seen. What additional testing should be performed?

    A. elution and antibody identification
    B. Gram stain and culture of the donor unit
    C. plasma IgA level
    D. lymphocytotoxicity tests for leukoagglutinins
    B. Gram stain and culture of the donor unit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  324. The most frequent transfusion-associated disease complication of blood transfusions is:

    A. syphilis
    B. hepatitis
    C. cytomegalovirus (CMV)
    D. AIDS
    B. hepatitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  325. The purpose of a low-dose irradiation of blood components is to:

    A. sterilize components
    B. prevent posttransfusion purpura
    C. prevent graft-vs-host (GVH) disease
    D. prevent noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
    C. prevent graft-vs-host (GVH) disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  326. Which of the following patient groups is at risk of developing graft-vs-host disease?

    A. full term infants
    B. recipients of blood donated by immediate family members
    C. patients with a positive direct antiglobulin test
    D. patients with history of febrile transfusion reactions
    B. recipients of blood donated by immediate family members
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  327. Irradiation of donor blood is done to prevent which of the following adverse affects of transfusion?

    A. transfusion associated graft-vs-host disease
    B. febrile transfusion reaction
    C. transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)
    D. cytomegalovirus infection
    A. transfusion associated graft-vs-host disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  328. Therapeutic plasmapharesis is performed in order to:

    A. treat patients with plasma abnormalities
    B. treat patients with polycythemia
    C. harvest platelets
    D. harvest granulocytes
    A. treat patients with plasma abnormalities
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  329. Plasma exchange is recommended in the treatment of patients with macroglobulinemia in order to remove:

    A. excess IgM
    B. antigen
    C. excess IgG
    D. abnormal platelets
    A. excess IgM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  330. The most important step in the safe administration of blood is to:

    A. get an accurate patient history
    B. perform compatibility testing accurately
    C. accurately identify the donor unit and recipient
    D. exclude disqualified donors
    C. accurately identify the donor unit and recipient
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview