What two personality-change conditions can result from damage to the frontal lobe?
1. Frontal lobe personality
2. Psychopathic syndrome
What is frontal lobe personality?
A psuedodepression characterized by apathy, lack of drive, little verbal output, and inability to plan/focus
What is psychopathic syndrome?
Pseudopsychopathy characterized by sexual inhibition, coarse language, peculiar and facetious sense of humor, inappropriate social behavior, and lack of concern for others
Which three cortexes are located in the frontal lobe?
1. Motor cortex
2. Premotor cortex
3. Prefrontal cortex
What is the function of the motor cortex?
Control of voluntary movement
What three conditions can result from damage to the motor cortex?
1. Contralateral motor weakness
What is apraxia?
Loss of ability to execute or carry out purposeful movements
What function is the premotor cortex associated with?
Simulation of actions (imagery and observation)
Where is Broca's area located?
In the premotor cortex within the (usually left) frontal lobe of the brain
What is the function of Broca's area?
What is the result of damage to Broca's area?
Broca's (expressive) aphasia, which involves slow speaking or speaking with great difficulty
What is aphasia?
A disturbance of comprehension and production of language
What four functions are the prefrontal cortex associated with?
4. Executive functioning
Which four conditions/issues are associated with lower prefrontal cortex activity?
3. Bipolar disorder
4. Age-related cognitive declines
What three functions are associated with the temporal lobe?
1. Receptive lanuage
The primary auditory cortex is located in which area of the brain?
What is auditory agnosia?
Inability to recognize or differentiate between sounds
What conditions can result from damage to the temporal lobe?
Amnesia (retrograde or anterograde) and conduction aphasia
What is conduction aphasia?
Inability to repeat what is heard
Where is Wernicke's area located?
In the temporal lobe
What function is Wernicke's area associated with?
Comprehension of language
What two issues are associated with damage to Wernicke's area?
1. Wernicke's aphasia, which is production of speech that sounds normal, but makes little sense
2. Dysnomia, which is the inability to name familiar objects
Conduction aphasia results from damage to which area?
The pathway between Broca's and Wernicke's area called the arcuate fasciculus
What four functions are the parietal lobe associated with?
What is kinesthesia?
Awareness of the position and movement of body parts
After an injury, a patient presents with tactile agnosia, impaired spatial orientation and facial recognition, apraxia, neglect of the right side of his body, inability to recognize his own body parts, and the inability to write with his right hand. Which area of the brain was likely damaged in his injury?
What is contralateral neglect?
Loss of interest in or awareness of one side of the body
What is tactile agnosia?
Inability to identify objects by touch
What is asomatognosia?
Inability to recognize body parts
What is anaosognosia?
Inability to recognize functional impairments
What is agraphia?
Inability to write
Where is the somatosensory cortex located?
In the parietal lobe
What is the function of the somatosensory cortex?
Process somatosensory input and integrate it with other sensory information
What two issues can result from damage to the somatosensory cortex?
1. Insensitivity to touch
2. Disruption of movement
Damage to which lobe is associated with Gertsmann's syndrome?
What are the four characteristics of Gertsmann's syndrome?
3. Right-left confusion
4. Finger agnosia
What is finger agnosia?
Inability to distinguish, name, or recognize the fingers
What is acalculia?
Difficulty performing simple mathematical tasks
What is the function of the occipital lobe?
Where is the visual cortex located?
After an injury, a patient is experiencing visual issues, including distortion of images, blind spots, persistent after-images, loss of depth perception, and visual agnosia. Which area of the brain is likely most affected by the injury?
What is visual agnosia?
Inability to recognize familiar objects by sight
What is the function of the pyramidal system?
Mediate fine movement
What is the function of the extrapyramidal system?
What three structures are included in the extrapyramidal system?
2. Basal ganglia
3. Substantia nigra
Where is the striatum located?
What are the two primary functions of the striatum?
1. Produce GABA
2. Controls muscular activities
What happens if GABA production is reduced?
The amount of dopamine increases because GABA regulates the amount of dopamine in the brain through an inhibitory process
What disorder is associated with destruction of cells within the striatum?
What is the arcuate fasciculus?
The fibers connecting Broca's and Weirnicke's area
What three things did Freud believe about emotions?
1. They are connected to our earliest experiences and physiological drives
2. They are universal
3. They are not under conscious control
What is the James-Lange theory of emotions?
Emotions occur when people experience arousal and interpret them as an emotional state (e.g., I am afraid because I tremble)
What is the Cannon-Bard theory of emotions?
Emotions are a result of simultaneous stimulation of the thalamus and the cortex; arousal and feeling occur at the same time
What is the Cognitive-Arousal theory of emotions?
Emotion is related to arousal and our attributions for that arousal based on environmental cues
What researchers are associated with the Cognitive-Arousal theory of emotions?
Schachter and Singer
What did Darwin assert about emotions?
In a variety of cultures, facial expressions reflected innate emotions
What six basic emotions are generally considered to be universal?
Which area of the brain can be described as the main hunger center?
Which two parts of the hypothalamus have been shown to play a significant role in hunger?
1. Lateral hypothalamus
2. Ventromedial hypothalamus
What happens if the lateral hypothalamus is damaged?
Failure to eat and drink
What is adipsia?
Failure to drink
What happens if the ventromedial hypothalamus is damaged?
Overeating and increased body weight
What role does the hindbrain play in mediating hunger?
It receives information from the GI tract and transmits it to the hypothalamus
What role does the limbic system play in hunger?
Emotive properties of food, such as reward and pleasure sensations
What percentage of the variance in body weight can be explained by genetic factors?
What is the externality hypothesis as it relates to obesity?
People who are obese overeat due to being inherently more sensitive to external rather than internal cues
What two body structures are the primary sources of sex hormones?
1. Pituitary gland
2. Gonads (ovaries and testes)
What is the role of the pituitary gland in sexual behavior?
It produces sex hormone hormones.
What is the role of the gonads in sexual behavior/development?
They receive hormones produced by the pituitary gland and then produce androgens and estrogen (ovaries produce progesterone as well).
What sex hormone is produced only by the ovaries but not the testes?
Which hormone causes the production of sperm and the release of ova?
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
What are androgens and what two functions do they serve?
They are the primarily male sex hormone; They cause the development of secondary sex characteristics in males and are involved in sexual interest in both males and females
What is the function of estrogen in males?
The function is unknown.
What is the function of estrogen in females?
It is necessary for normal sexual development and functioning of the reproductive system.
What is the function of progesterone?
Healthy functioning of the reproductive system
Which sex hormones decrease during menopause?
A woman experiences the following symptoms: hot flashes, insomnia, mood swings, urinary incontinence, and vaginal dryness. Which physical issue is she likely dealing with?
What two diseases are reduced estrogen associated with an increased risk of?
2. Heart disease
Estrogen replacement therapy may increase the risk of _______________.
In females, loss of sexual desire is often associated with the loss of ___________.
What is hypogonadism?
A condition in males in which the circulating levels of androgens are low
What treatment can help with hypogonadism?
Androgen replacement therapy
In males, which area of sexual functioning is most likely to be affected by a spinal cord injury?
Which stages of sleep are known as non-REM sleep?
Which EEG waves are characteristic of Stage 1 sleep?
Alpha waves give way to theta waves
What type of EEG activity is characteristic of Stage 2 sleep?
Theta waves with intermittent bursts of activity
What type of EEG waves are characteristic of Stage 3 and 4 of the sleep cycle?
What three changes are observable in the body during Stage 4 sleep?
1. Deep breathing
2. Slowed heart rate
3. Low blood pressure
As individuals progress through the sleep cycle, what happens to their ability to be awoken?
It is more difficult to wake them
What type of EEG activity is characteristic of REM sleep?
A combination of relaxation and activity
What two changes are characteristic of REM sleep?
1. Rapid eye movement
2. Loss of muscle tone
What state is associated with alpha waves?
What state is associated with beta waves?
Active, alert state
The average sleep cycle lasts for about __________ minutes
How many times, in an average night, does the sleep cycle recur?
As the night progresses, delta sleep becomes _____________ while REM sleep becomes _____________.
Which stage of sleep is the first to occur during the first three to four months of life?
How many sleep stages are observed in infants up to six months in age?
Two, REM and non-REM
In infancy, REM sleep makes up about ______ percent of overall sleep time, while in adulthood, it makes up ______ percent.
What two effects on functioning are observable when someone is deprived of REM sleep?
1. Increased anxiety/irritability
2. Decreased cognitive functioning
What is REM rebound?
People who have been deprived from REM sleep will spend more time in REM when their sleeping returns to normal.
What happens to the adverse affects associated with REM deprivation once the person can sleep normally again?
What three disturbances in the sleep cycle are present with insomnia?
1. Less delta sleep
2. More movement during sleep
3. More changes in the sleep cycle
During which stage of sleep is Nightmare Disorder most likely to occur?
Sleepwalking and night terrors are most associated with which sleep stage?
Changes in which two physiological structures are most linked with memory?
1. Synaptic membrane
2. RNA (ribonucleic acid)
What happens to neurons in long-term potentiation?
High frequency stimulation of neurons in the hippocampus lead to increased sensitivity and results in change of shape of synapses and the formation of new receptors
What did Golub find regarding RNA and memory?
He extracted RNA from flatworms who had learned a conditioned response and then injected it into other flatworms. The new flatworms learned the conditioned response more quickly.
Regarding memory, training and experience increases the amount of ______ in cells.
Which part of the brain stimulates the pituitary gland?
Which gland is referred to as the "master gland"? Why?
Pituitary gland; it secretes hormones that causes other glands to release hormones as well as secretes hormones that act directly on organs
Which gland is somatotropic, or growth, hormone associated with?
What condition is the result of over-secretion of somatotropic hormone in childhood?
What condition is the result of under-secretion of somatotropic hormone in childhood?
What condition is the result of over-secretion of somatotropic hormone in adults?
What abnormalities are characteristic of acromelagy?
Grossly enlarged hands, feet, and facial features
What hormone is secreted by the adrenal cortex?
What effect does stress have on the level of cortisol in the body?
It elevates it
What is the function of somatotropic hormone?
To stimulate growth by acting on plates at the end of bones
What is the function of cortisol?
It stimulates the liver to convert glucose to energy
What condition is associated with under-secretion of cortisol and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)?
What are the characteristics of Addison's disease?
Fatigue, fainting, loss of appetite, decreased weight, depression, and apathy
What condition is associated with over-secretion of cortisol and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)?
What are the characteristics of Cushing's disease?
Obesity, memory loss, mood swings, depression, and somatic delusions
What two therapeutic techniques have been found to be helpful in regulating cortisol levels?
1. Relaxation training
What happens if a genetically male fetus is not stimulated by androgen during a critical period?
It will fail to develop male genitalia
What happens if a genetically female fetus is exposed to androgen during early pregnancy?
It will develop male reproductive organs.
What is the result of low levels of circulating testosterone in males?
Lowered sexual potency
What hormone is secreted by the thyroid?
What is the function of thyroxine?
What can happen as a result of a thyroid deficiency in early life?
What are the two primary characteristics of cretinism?
1. Physical maldevelopment
2. Intellectual impairment
What condition is caused by the under-secretion of thyroxine in adulthood?
What are the primary characteristics of hypothyroidism?
Slowed metabolism, reduced appetite, weight gain, lowered heart rate and temperature, decreased libido, depression, and cognitive deficits
What condition is caused by the over-secretion of thyroxine in adulthood?
Hyperthyroidism (also known as Grave's Disease)
What are the primary characteristics of hyperthyroidism?
Elevated heart rate and temperature, increased metabolism, weight loss, nervousness, agitation, fatigue, insomnia, mania, and decreased attention
Which organ secretes insulin?
What is the function of insulin?
Helps the body to absorb and make use of glucose and amino acids
What condition is associated with under-secretion of insulin?
What are the effects of diabetes if untreated?
Mineral loss, low blood pressure, reduced blood flow, and death
What condition is associated with over-secretion of insulin?
What are the characteristics of hypoglycemia?
Hunger, dizziness, headaches, blurred vision, anxiety, depression, and confusion
Which sensory function are photoreceptors associated with?
Which two senses are chemoreceptors associated with?
Which three functions are mechanoreceptors associated with?
What sensations are produced by thermoreceptors?
Hot and cold
When light waves enter the eye, which four areas, in order, do they pass through?
Cornea, pupil, lens, retina
What is the cornea?
The transparent covering in front of the eye
What is the function of the pupil?
Regulate the amount of entering light through opening and closing
What is the function of the lens?
Focus light waves on the retina
In which area are the light-sensitive receptors of the visual system located?
What is the retina?
Inner lining of the eyeball
What two types of receptors exist in the visual system?
Rods and cones
What are rods?
Photoreceptors that sense stimuli in low light
What are cones?
Photoreceptors that specialize in seeing color and function only in daylight
Rods are located primarily in the _________ of the retina.
Cones are located primarily in the __________ of the retina.
What is the fovea?
An area in the center of the retina that has a high concentration of photoreceptors and as a result, is the region of maximum visual acuity
What is the function of the optic nerve?
It carries nerve impulses from the retina to the brain.
What happens at the point at which the optic nerve leaves the retina (optic disc)?
A "blind spot"
Fibers from the inner half of the eye go to the ________ side of the brain, while fibers on the outer half of the eye travel to the _________ side of the brain.
Information from the left visual field goes to the ____________ hemisphere of the brain.
After visual signals travel through the optic tract, what two locations do they visit next?
The thalamus, and then the visual cortex in the occipital lobe
After entering the auditory canal, which structure picks up auditory vibrations?
What is the eardrum?
Membrane in the ear that vibrates as a function of sound waves
After being picked up by the ear drum, vibrations are amplified by what structure?
The ossicles (three bones)
After being amplified by the ossicles, vibrations are transmitted to the ______________.
Movement of the oval window exerts pressure on the ____________.
What is the cochlea?
Liquid in the inner ear
Pressure on the cochlea leads to movement of the _____________.
What is the function of hair cells in the ear?
They serve as auditory receptors and transform mechanical vibrations to neural activity
After vibrations are transformed by the hair cells into neural activity, where three locations do they visit next?
1. Auditory nerve
3. Auditory cortex in the temporal lobe
What is a sound wave?
The stimulus that excites the auditory system
On which three dimensions do sound waves vary?
Frequency, amplitude, and timbre
What unit is used to measure the frequency/pitch of a sound wave?
What unit is used to measure the amplitude/loudness of a sound wave?
What is auditory localization?
The ability to orient toward the direction of a sound by turning one's head
What happens to the ability to engage in auditory localization between the ages of 4-5 months?
When is the ability to engage in auditory localization fully developed?
At 12 months of age
Which four sensations are collectively known as somethesis?
2. Body position (kinesthesia)
What four subject variables can affect pain sensitivity?
What are the two theories regarding the association between chronic pain and depression?
1. Depression develops as a result of chronic pain
2. Chronic pain is a type of masked depression ("pain prone" individuals)
Which two disorders are more common in first-degree relatives of individuals with chronic pain?
1. Depressive disorders
2. Alcohol dependence
What is gate-control theory?
When the large, myelinated fibers that transmit information to the brain are activated, it "closes the gate" which makes the small, unmyelinated fibers unable to transmit pain signals as well. The pain mediation system can only process a limited amount of information.
Name three activities/experiences that can close the gating mechanism in the experience of pain?
2. Heat or cold
3. Information traveling to the brain, such an engaging in a distracting mental activity
Name three narcotic-analgesics.
How do narcotic-analgesics act on the brain to diminish pain?
They bind to opiate-specific receptors
Where are olfactory receptors located?
They line the olfactory epithelium in the rear of the nasal passages
How do humans distinguish one smell from another?
This mechanism is unknown
What is different about the neural transmission of olfactory sensory input as compared to the other senses?
Olfactory sensations are transmitted directly through the brain through the limbic system, while other senses are relayed through the thalamus
In olfaction, information from the left nostril goes to the ______ hemisphere of the brain.
In animals, what are the two functions of pheromones?
1. Initiate sexual activity
2. Mark territory
What four types of receptors are present for taste?
Where are taste receptors located?
In the taste buds in the papillae (bumps) n the surface of the tongue
During what age period is the sense of taste most intense?
What is psychophysics?
The study of the relationship between the magnitude of physical stimuli and psychological sensations
What is the absolute threshold?
The weakest stimulus that a person can detect
What is the difference threshold or just noticeable difference (JND)?
The smallest difference between two stimuli that is recognized as a difference
What are the two tenets of Fechner's law?
1. JNDs are psychologically equal intervals
2. Changes in the magnitude of a physical stimuli are logarithmically related to changes in internal sensations
What is Stevens' power law?
There is an exponential relationship between the magnitude of physical stimuli and internal sensations, with the exponent varying for different kinds of stimuli
Which sense is considered to be the most primitive?
What is an afferent impulse?
Information going to the brain
What is an efferent impulse?
Information coming from the brain
Name two structural brain imaging techniques.
1. CAT (Computerized Axial Tomography)/CT scan
2. MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
A CT scan uses ________ to take images of the brain, while an MRI uses __________.
X-rays; magnetic fields
What are two advantages of a CT scan as compared to an MRI?
1. It is superior in detecting fresh blood
2. It is less expensive
What are three advantages of an MRI as compared to a CT scan?
What three measures does a PET scan use to asses neural activity?
1. Regional cerebral blood flow
2. Glucose metabolism
3. Oxygen activity
What is dysarthia?
Problems in articulation that are due to lesions or diseases that disrupt the control of speech
Which three disorders are dysarthia a common symptom of?
1. Parkinson's Disease
2. Huntington's Chorea
3. Multiple Sclerosis
What is alexia?
A reading disability caused by an acquired brain lesion
What is ideomotor apraxia?
The inability to carry out a command to perform a particular movement. Individuals who suffer from this may be able to perform that movement spontaneously, however.
What is constructional apraxia?
The inability to draw or copy simple figures or to arrange blocks in a pattern
What is the cause of aperceptive agnosia?
Visual distortion that prevents recognition of an object
What impairments are seen with aperceptive agnosia?
The inability to recognize an object by sight, but can recognize it kinesthetically when placed in the hand
What is the cause of associative visual agnosia?
Disconnection of the visual and language areas of the brain
What impairments can be seen with associative visual agnosia?
An inability to name an object but ability to demonstrate its use and match it with similar objects
What is prosopagnosia?
The inability to recognize familiar faces
Which impairment is typically denied amongst people who suffer from anosognosia?
What type of brain damage usually leads to anosognosia?
A stroke affecting the right parietal cortex
What are the two main differences between contralateral neglect (CN) and anosognosia?
1. Patients with CN are inattentive to everything on one side of the body, while patients with anosognosia are unaware of only functional limitations
2. Patients with CN will acknowledge neglected area if their attention is directed to it, while patients with anosognosia will continue to deny it
In children, brain tumors are most likely in which two areas of the brain?
1. Brain stem
In adults, brain tumors are most likely in which area of the brain?
What is the first sign of a brain tumor?
Psychological symptoms, such as depression or anxiety
What are the five main distinguishing symptoms of a brain tumor?
3. Nausea and vomiting
4. Changes in vision and hearing
5. Other focal neurological signs (e.g., ataxia, localized weakness)
What is another name for a stroke?
What is a stroke?
The onset of neurological symptoms caused by a sudden, severe interference of blood flow to the brain
Most strokes occur in which artery of the brain?
The middle cerebral artery
What three conditions/impairments are associated with a stroke in the middle cerebral artery?
1. Contralateral hemiplegia and sensory loss, especially in face and arms
3. Contralateral visual field loss (homonymous hemianopsia)
What is homonymous hemianopsia?
Contralateral visual field loss
What three conditions/impairments are associated with a stroke in the anterior cerebral artery?
1. Contralateral hemiplegia and sensory loss
3. Affective disturbance
What three conditions/impairments are associated with a stroke in the posterior cerebral artery?
1. Cortical blindness and other visual deficits
2. Anterograde amnesia
3. Agitated delirium
What is hydrocephalus?
Excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the ventricles of the brain
What three symptoms are associated with hydrocephalus?
2. Gait disturbance
3. Urinary incontinence
As many as ______ percent of people who have a stroke die immediately or within several months.
What percentage of people who survive a stroke fully recover from it?
When does the greatest improvement in symptoms after a stroke occur?
In the first 6 months
Regarding stroke symptoms, __________ symptoms generally improve more quickly than ____________ symptoms.
In individuals under the age of 40, what is the most common cause of brain damage?
What is an open head injury?
An head injury in which the skull is penetrated
What is the prognosis for symptoms associated with an open head injury?
They are usually focal in nature and resolve relatively rapidly
What differences in loss of consciousness occur in an open vs. closed head injury?
In an open head injury, people don't generally lose consciousness, while in a closed head injury, loss of consciousness is more common
Amnesia is likely with a/an _________ head injury.
What is the best predictor of the degree of injury and likelihood of recovery with a closed head injury?
The duration of anterograde amnesia
In what time frame does most recovery from a closed head injury occur?
What is postconcussional disorder?
A disorder included in the DSM-IV under conditions provided for further study. The criteria include a concussion following head trauma and three or more of the following symptoms: fatigue, headache, dizziness, irritability/aggression, and depression or anxiety
Regarding the genetic nature of Huntington's Chorea, _______ percent of the offspring of the affected person are also affected.
During what age range do symptoms of Huntington's Chorea generally first appear?
30-50 years old
Initial signs of Huntington's Chorea are generally ____________.
What is athetosis?
Slow, writhing movements
What is chorea?
Involuntary rapid, jerky movements of the face, limbs, and trunk
In Huntington's Chorea, suicide risk is high, especially in ________ patients.
Which three brain structures are affected by Huntington's Chorea?
1. Substantia nigra
2. Basal ganglia
Which four neurotransmitters are associated with Huntington's chorea?
What is Parkinson's disease?
A degenerative brain disorder characterized by abnormalities in movement
What five categories of symptoms are present in Parkinson's disease?
2. Muscle rigidity
3. Involuntary movements
4. Disturbance in posture and equilibrium
What is akinesia?
Inability to initiate movement
In what percentage of individuals with Parkinson's disease is depression comorbid?
What two neurotransmitters are linked to Parkinson's Disease?
1. Serotonin (reduced levels)
2. Dopamine (degeneration of dopamine-producing cells)
Which type of drugs have been shown to temporarily alleviate symptoms of Parkinson's Disease?
Drugs that increase levels of dopamine in the brain, including L-dopa
Which type of brain imaging techniques are most useful in mapping the distribution of neurotransmitters and measuring cerebral blood flow?
What type of effect does GABA have on the central nervous system?
What is the catecholamine hypothesis?
Hypothesis that depression is due to a deficiency of norepinephrine
What is neurogenesis?
The formation of new neurons or nerve cells neurons added to the brain in maturity.
In what three areas of the brain has evidence of neurogenesis been found?
1. Olfactory system
3. Cerebral corex (prefrontal, inferior temporal, and posterior parietal regions)
What is sexual dimorphism?
Any consistent differences between males and females in size and shape.
What is synesthesia?
A rare condition in which stimulating one sense creates a sensation in another sense, such as tasting a color
In general, how long does it take for antidepressants to become effective?
Most effects occur after 2 weeks, but it can take up to 6 weeks.
How do tricyclic antidepressants work?
They block the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin
Imipramine, clomipramine, amitriptyline, and doxepin are examples of which class of drugs?
What type of depressive symptoms are tricyclics most effective at relieving?
In addition to depression, for which six other conditions are tricyclic antidepressants effective?
1. panic attacks
3. obsessive states
4. chronic pain
What five side effects are collectively known as anticholinergic side effects?
Increased risk of suicidal ideation related to SSRI usage has been associated with a small subset of __________.
Children and adolescents
When did the FDA issue a warning label on SSRIs because of their risk of increased suicidal ideation?
Which SSRI is the only one approved for children as young as 8?
How do MAOIs work?
They block the action of enzymes that break down norepinephrine and serotonin leading to increased availability of these neurotransmitters in the brain
Tranylcypromine and phenelzine are examples of which type of drug?
What is the generic name of Parnate?
What is the generic name of Nardil?
What type of depression are MAOIs most effective for?
Atypical, with symptoms such as increased appetite, hypersomnia, rejection-sensitivity, mood reactivity, symptom increase as day progresses, and accompanying symptoms of phobic anxiety, panic, and/or hypochondriasis
What types of side effects are common with MAOIs?
3. dry mouth
4. upset stomach
5. weight gain
6. blurred vision
What can result if MAOIs are combined with food/drink with moderately high levels of the amino acid, tyramine?
Potentially fatal hypertensive crisis, with elevated blood pressure and convulsions
What can happen if one overdoses on MAOIs?
Drowsiness or agitation, hypertension, tachycardia, hallucinations, delusions, seizures, and coma; a large overdose can be fatal
How do SNRIs work?
They block the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, leading to increased availability of these neurotransmitters
Other than depression, which three disorders are SNRI's effective for?
1. Panic disorder
2. Generalized anxiety
3. Social anxiety
What is the generic name for Effexor?
What is the generic name for Cymbalta?
What is the generic name for Pristiq?
What are two advantages of the SNRIs over other antidepressants?
1. Lower risk associated with overdose
2. More rapid onset
What side effects are associated with SNRIs?
1. abnormal dreams
3. sexual dysfunction
4. GI problems
5. blood pressure changes
7. tingling sensations
Regarding medications, what is an agonist?
A chemical that binds to a receptor and triggers a response
Regarding medications, what is an antagonist?
A chemical that binds to a receptor and blocks other chemicals from binding to it
Nefazadone and trazodone belong to which class of drugs?
How does a SARI antidepressant work?
It serves as an antagonist and inhibits the reuptake of serotonin
What is the generic name of Desyrel?
What is the generic name of Serzone?
What two side effects are associated with nefazadone?
1. Blurred vision
Other than depression, what condition is Nefazadone prescribed for?
What side effects are associated with SARIs?
Other than depression, what condition is trazodone used for?
What side effects are associated with trazodone?
1. Orthostatic hypertension
What is priapism?
A long-lasting, painful erection
Mirtazipine and Maprotiline are examples of which class of drugs?
What is the generic name of Remeron?
What is the generic name of Ludiomil?
How does Mirtazipine work?
As a noradrenaline and selective serotonin antidepressant and an antihistamine
How does maprotiline work?
By increasing norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain
What are the side effects associated with tetracyclic antidepressants?
Sedation, skin rash, blurred vision, dry mouth,
dizziness, agitation, irritability and weight gain
Regarding side effects, tetracyclic antidepressants do not cause ____________.
What three conditions are tetracyclic antidepressants especially effective for?
1. Depression with anxiety
2. Depression with sleep problems
3. Chronic pain
What drug is considered a norepinephine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor?
What is the generic name of Welbutrin/Zyban?
Other than depression, what two other problems can bupropion be effective with?
1. Smoking cessation
2. Distractibility due to ADHD (off-label)
Bupropion may induce preexisting _________ or ________.
Reboxetine and atomoxetine are examples of which type of drug?
Norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
What is the generic name of Edronax?
What is the generic name of Stratera?
In addition to being classified as a norepinephine reuptake inhibitor, reboxetine is also classified as what?
Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor
What two problems is atomoxetine mainly used to treat?
1. ADHD (only non-stimulant medication approved for this disorder)
2. Anxiety (off-label)
What two types of drugs are used as mood stabilizers?
The mode of action of Lithium is uncertain, but it is thought to work by what mechanism?
Reducing postsynaptic responsivity to dopamine and norepinephrine
What drug is considered the treatment of choice for Bipolar disorder?
How is lithium helpful for bipolar disorder
1. Reduces/eliminates manic symptoms
2. Levels out mood swings
What four issues/disorders is lithium often used as an adjunct in treating?
2. intermittent explosive disorder
4. episodic binge drinking
What side effects are associated with Lithium?
GI distress, weight gain, tremor (mostly in fingers; 35% of those taking), fatigue, and mild cognitive impairment
Why do levels of Lithium need to be closely monitored?
Toxicity can result from too high dosage and lead to symptoms such as vomiting, abdominal pain, profuse diarrhea, severe tremor, and ataxia and can led to seizures, coma, or death
What symptoms are anti-convulsants effective in treating?
Mania, especially dysphoric or rapid cycling
Which neurotransmitter are anti-convulsants believed to work on?
What advantage does valproic acid have over other anti-convulsants?
Fewer side effects
Carbamazepine, lamotrigine, topimarate, and valproic acid are examples of which type of drug?
What is the generic name of Tegretol?
What is the generic name of Lamictal?
What is the generic name of Topomax?
What is the generic name of Depakote?
What serious side effect is associated with carbamazapine?
What is agranulocytosis?
Decrease in certain types of white blood cells
What advantage does carbamazapine have over lithium?
Faster onset of action
What side effects are associated with carbamazapine and other anti-convulsants?
Lethargy, tremor, ataxia, and visual disturbance
Antipsychotics are also known as __________.
What serious side effect is associated with both traditional and atypical antipsychotics?
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
What are the symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrom (NMS)?
Muscle rigidity, high fever, sweating, stupor, unstable blood pressure, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction
With treatment using anti-psychotic medications, when do symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome usually arise?
Within the first 2 weeks
What can happen as a result of neuroleptic malignant syndrome if medication is not immediately discontinued?
Death (NMS has a very rapid onset)
By what mechanism do traditional antipsychotics work?
By blocking dopamine receptors in the brain
What is the dopamine hypothesis and what is its current status?
The dopamine hypothesis is the belief that schizophrenia is a result of overactivity of dopamine. This hypothesis came about after observation that dopamine elevating drugs (such as amphetamine) can lead to psychotic symptoms in individuals without a history and can worsen symptoms in those who have previously had psychosis. Currently, it is believed that schizophrenia's mechanism is more complicated and may involve imbalance of dopamine and involve serotonin and norepinephrine as well.
Chlorpromazine, haloperidol, thioridiazine, and fluphenazine are examples of which type of drug?
What is the generic name for Thorazine?
What is the generic name for Haldol?
What is the generic name for Mellaril?
What is the generic name for Prolixin/Permitil?
What three disorders/problems are traditional antipsychotics effective in treating?
2. Acute mania
3. Psychotic symptoms of other disorders
Traditional antipsychotics are more effective in treating the ____________ symptoms of schizophrenia.
What are positive symptoms of schizophrenia?
Symptoms that most non-schizophrenic individuals do not experience, such as delusions, hallucinations, agitation, disordered thoughts and speech
What are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
Deficits in normal emotional or cognitive processes, including anhedonia, flat affect, poverty of speech, lack of desire to form relationships, and lack of motivation
What two classes of side effects are associated with traditional antipsychotics?
What four extrapyramidal side effects can result from traditional antipsychotics?
4. Tardive dyskensia
An extrapyramidal side effect of traditional antipsychotics in Parkinsonism. What symptoms are associated with this?