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2013-07-28 12:12:34

Neuropsychology terms
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  1. What are the divisions of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)?
    Somatic Nervous System and Autonomic Nervous System
  2. What does an EKG (electrocardiogram) measure?
    Contractions of the heart muscle
  3. What does a galvanic skin response (GS) test measure?
    Changes in electrical conductance of the skin.
  4. What is the function of the Sympathetic Nervous System?
    Prepares the body for "fight or flight"
  5. What is the function of the Parasympathetic Nervous System?
    Relaxes the body; deactivates "flight or fight"
  6. What are the three functional divisions of the brain that have evolved over time?
    • 1. Primitive core
    • 2. Limbic system (old brain)
    • 3. Cerebral cortex/cerebrum (new brain)
  7. What is the function of the primitive core of the brain?
    Regulate basic somatic activities
  8. What is the function of the limbic system (old brain)?
    Mediate basic drives and emotions.
  9. What is the function of the cerebral cortex (new brain)?
    Responsible for higher-level cognitive, emotional, and motor functions
  10. What is paraplegia?
    A condition in which both lower limbs are paralyzed; results from a cut above the point where nerves innervating the lower body enter and exit
  11. What is quadraplegia?
    The paralysis of all four limbs; results from cut at the top of the spinal cord
  12. What is hemiplegia?
    Paralysis in an arm and leg on one side of the body; caused by a partial cut of the spinal cord
  13. What is paresis?
    Slight or partial paralysis; results from spinal cord damage
  14. What is parasthesia?
    Abnormal sensations such as numbness, tingling, or burning; results from spinal cord damage
  15. What is hyperesthesia?
    Abnormal sensitivity to sensation; results from spinal cord damage
  16. What are the three parts of a neuron?
    Cell body (soma), dendrite, axon
  17. What is the function of a dendrite?
    Respond to stimulation from other neurons and carry information to the cell body
  18. What is the function of the axon?
    To carry information away from the cell body
  19. What is action potential?
    The impulse "spike" fired by a neuron
  20. What is the "all-or-nothing" rule regarding neurons?
    A neuron either reaches the charge necessary for action potential or does not; a higher charge does not change the intensity of the action potential
  21. What two factors affect the speed of the conduction of a neuron?
    Diameter of the neuron and the amount of myelin sheathing
  22. What is the space between neurons called?
  23. What chemicals carry information across neuronal synapses?
  24. Where are neurotransmitters produced?
    Cell body (soma)
  25. Where are neurotransmitters stored?
    In the terminal buttons of the neuron, in pockets called vesticles
  26. What are the two processes that terminate neuotransmitter transmission?
    Reuptake and enzymatic degredation
  27. What is reuptake?
    Terminal buttons take up excess neurotransmitter and store it for later use
  28. What is enzymatic degredation?
    Enzymes in and around the synapse break down neurotransmitters
  29. What four functions is acetylcholine (ACh) associated with?
    • 1. Movement
    • 2. Learning and memory
    • 3. Sexual behavior
    • 4. Sleep
  30. Which disorder is a loss of acetylcholine receptors associated with?
    Alzheimer's disease
  31. What are the three catecholamines?
    Norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine
  32. Which disorder is associated with a lack of norepinephrine and dopamine?
  33. Which disorder is associated with excessive norepinephrine and dopamine?
  34. Which neurotransmitter are Tourette's Syndrome and Parkinson's Disease associated with?
  35. Which four problems/disorders are associated with low levels of serotonin?
    Depression, OCD, PTSD, and aggression
  36. Which three disorders are associated with high levels of serotonin?
    Schizophrenia, anorexia, and autism
  37. Which two disorders are associated with low levels of GABA?
    Anxiety and Parkinson's Disease
  38. Which disease is associated with deficits of GABA in motor regions of the brain?
    Huntington's Chorea
  39. What are the two primary characteristics of Huntington's Chorea?
    • 1. dementia
    • 2. involuntary jerky movements in the arms and legs
  40. Which neurotransmitter is associated with long-term potentiation?
  41. What do endorphins do?
    Inhibit/block feelings of pain by binding to opiate receptor sites
  42. What two structures make up the central nervous system (CNS)?
    Brain and spinal cord
  43. What are the three areas of the brain?
    Hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain
  44. What is the function of the medulla oblongata?
    Controls breathing, heart rate, blood pressure, digestion
  45. What is most likely to happen if the medulla oblongata is damaged?
  46. Where is the medulla oblongata located?
    In the brain stem, within the hindbrain area
  47. What are the two areas of the hindbrain?
    Brain stem and cerebellum
  48. What is the function of the pons?
    Regulates arousal
  49. Located in the pons, what is the function of the raphe nuclei?
    It uses serotonin and associated with slow wave sleep
  50. Where is the pons located?
    In the brain stem, within the hindbrain
  51. What is the function of the cerebellum?
    Controls balance, movement, and posture
  52. Where is the cerebellum located?
    In the hindbrain
  53. What condition can result from damage to the cerebellum?
  54. What are the characteristics of ataxia?
    Slurred speech, severe tremors, loss of balance
  55. What is the function of the substantia nigra?
    Controls aspects of movement, including smoothness, initiation, termination, and directness
  56. Which disorder is associated with degeneration of neurons in the substantia nigra?
    Parkinson's disease
  57. Where is the substantia nigra located?
    In the midbrain
  58. What are the three main functions of the reticular formation?
    • 1. Sleep, arousal, and attention
    • 2. Sensations of pain and touch
    • 3. Control of reflexes
  59. What is the function of the reticular activating system (RAS)?
    Filter information
  60. Where is the reticular formation located?
    In the midbrain
  61. What happens if the reticular formation is damaged?
    Disruption in the sleep-wake cycle; permanent coma-like sleep state
  62. What are the three functions of the hypothalamus?
    • 1. Maintain homeostasis
    • 2. Control motivated behavior
    • 3. Translate feelings into physical responses
  63. Which two systems are controlled by the hypothalamus?
    • 1. Autonomic nervous system
    • 2. Endocrine system
  64. Where is the suprachiasmastic nucleus (SCN) located?
    In the hypothalamus
  65. What is the function of the suprachiasmastic nucleus (SCN)?
    Control of circadian rhythms
  66. Where is the hypothalamus located?
    In the forebrain
  67. What happens if the hypothalamus is damaged?
    Eating or drinking can be disrupted.
  68. What is the function of the thalamus?
    It serves as the "central switching station," relays all sensory information (except olfaction) to the cortex
  69. Where is the thalamus located?
    In the forebrain
  70. Which brain structure is associated with Korsakoff's syndrome?
  71. What is Korsakoff's syndrome?
    A B1 deficiency, that usually occurs in alcoholics, that produces amnesia, confabulation, and apathy
  72. What is the function of the basal ganglia?
    Codes and relays information associated with voluntary movement.
  73. Where is the basal ganglia located?
    In the forebrain
  74. Abnormalities in the basal ganglia are associated with which three disorders/diseases?
    • 1. Tourette's Syndrome
    • 2. Parkinson's Disease
    • 3. Huntington's Chorea
  75. What is the function of the limbic system?
    To mediate the emotional component of behavior
  76. What three structures are contained within the limbic system?
    • 1. Amygdala
    • 2. Septum
    • 3. Hippocampus
  77. What are the three functions of the amygdala?
    • 1. Integrate and direct emotional behavior
    • 2. Attach emotional significance to information
    • 3. Mediate aggressive/defensive behavior
  78. What is the result of damage to the amygdala?
    Lack of emotional response
  79. Which brain structure is associated, in monkeys, with Kluver-Bucy Syndrome?
    The amygdala
  80. What is Kluver-Bucy Syndrome?
    A pattern of behavior observed in monkeys with damage to the amygdala. It is characterized by reduced fear and aggression, increased docility, altered dietary habits, and hypersexuality
  81. Where is the amygdala located?
    In the limbic system
  82. What is the function of the septum?
    Inhibits emotionality (pleasure center)
  83. Where is the septum located?
    In the limbic system
  84. Which syndrome is associated with damage to the septum?
    Septal-rage syndrome
  85. What are the two characteristics of Septal-rage syndrome?
    • 1. Hyperemotionality
    • 2. Vicious behavior
  86. Studies have shown that rats will self-stimulate which area of the brain thousands of times, only stopping when physically exhausted?
  87. What is the function of the hippocampus?
    Memory, including consolidation and transfer from short- to long-term memory
  88. What condition results from damage to the hippocampus?
    Severe, permanent anterograde amnesia?
  89. What is anterograde amnesia?
    The inability to form new memories
  90. Where is the hippocampus located?
    In the limbic system
  91. The cerebral cortex is divided into two _____________.
  92. What is contralateral representation?
    It means that the left side of the brain controls the right side of the body and vice versa.
  93. What are the four lobes of the cerebral cortex?
    • 1. Frontal lobe
    • 2. Occipital lobe
    • 3. Temporal lobe
    • 4. Parietal lobe
  94. What does it mean when it is asserted that some higher brain functions are lateralized?
    They are controlled to a greater extent by one hemisphere of the brain
  95. Who is associated with split-brain research?
  96. What does "split-brain" mean?
    Split-brain refers to a condition where an individual's corpus callosum is severed. It results in an inability for the two hemispheres of the brain to communicate.
  97. What is the corpus callosum?
    The bundle of fibers that attaches the left and right hemispheres of the brain
  98. Which functions are primarily controlled by the left hemisphere (in most people)?
    Logical abilities; language
  99. Which functions are primarily controlled by the right hemisphere (in most people)?
    Emotion, creativity, spatial relationships, facial recognition
  100. What finding is Orenstein (1972) most associated with?
    Increased EEG activity on the right side of the brain for spatial tasks, and increased EEG activity on the left side of the brain for verbal tasks
  101. What two conditions often result from damage to the left hemisphere of the brain?
    Depression and anxiety
  102. What often results from damage to the right side of the brain?
    Apathy or indifference
  103. What are the three functions of the frontal lobe?
    • 1. Motor behavior
    • 2. Expressive lanuage
    • 3. Higher-order cognitive processes (and orientation)
  104. What two personality-change conditions can result from damage to the frontal lobe?
    • 1. Frontal lobe personality
    • 2. Psychopathic syndrome
  105. What is frontal lobe personality?
    A psuedodepression characterized by apathy, lack of drive, little verbal output, and inability to plan/focus
  106. What is psychopathic syndrome?
    Pseudopsychopathy characterized by sexual inhibition, coarse language, peculiar and facetious sense of humor, inappropriate social behavior, and lack of concern for others
  107. Which three cortexes are located in the frontal lobe?
    • 1. Motor cortex
    • 2. Premotor cortex
    • 3. Prefrontal cortex
  108. What is the function of the motor cortex?
    Control of voluntary movement
  109. What three conditions can result from damage to the motor cortex?
    • 1. Contralateral motor weakness
    • 2. Paralysis
    • 3. Apraxia
  110. What is apraxia?
    Loss of ability to execute or carry out purposeful movements
  111. What function is the premotor cortex associated with?
    Simulation of actions (imagery and observation)
  112. Where is Broca's area located?
    In the premotor cortex within the (usually left) frontal lobe of the brain
  113. What is the function of Broca's area?
    Speech production
  114. What is the result of damage to Broca's area?
    Broca's (expressive) aphasia, which involves slow speaking or speaking with great difficulty
  115. What is aphasia?
    A disturbance of comprehension and production of language
  116. What four functions are the prefrontal cortex associated with?
    • 1. Personality
    • 2. Emotion
    • 3. Memory
    • 4. Executive functioning
  117. Which four conditions/issues are associated with lower prefrontal cortex activity?
    • 1. ADHD
    • 2. Schizophrenia
    • 3. Bipolar disorder
    • 4. Age-related cognitive declines
  118. What three functions are associated with the temporal lobe?
    • 1. Receptive lanuage
    • 2. Memory
    • 3. Emotion
  119. The primary auditory cortex is located in which area of the brain?
    Temporal lobe
  120. What is auditory agnosia?
    Inability to recognize or differentiate between sounds
  121. What conditions can result from damage to the temporal lobe?
    Amnesia (retrograde or anterograde) and conduction aphasia
  122. What is conduction aphasia?
    Inability to repeat what is heard
  123. Where is Wernicke's area located?
    In the temporal lobe
  124. What function is Wernicke's area associated with?
    Comprehension of language
  125. What two issues are associated with damage to Wernicke's area?
    • 1. Wernicke's aphasia, which is production of speech that sounds normal, but makes little sense
    • 2. Dysnomia, which is the inability to name familiar objects
  126. Conduction aphasia results from damage to which area?
    The pathway between Broca's and Wernicke's area called the arcuate fasciculus
  127. What four functions are the parietal lobe associated with?
    • 1. Touch-pressure
    • 2. Temperature
    • 3. Kinesthesia
    • 4. Pain
  128. What is kinesthesia?
    Awareness of the position and movement of body parts
  129. After an injury, a patient presents with tactile agnosia, impaired spatial orientation and facial recognition, apraxia, neglect of the right side of his body, inability to recognize his own body parts, and the inability to write with his right hand. Which area of the brain was likely damaged in his injury?
    Parietal lobe
  130. What is contralateral neglect?
    Loss of interest in or awareness of one side of the body
  131. What is tactile agnosia?
    Inability to identify objects by touch
  132. What is asomatognosia?
    Inability to recognize body parts
  133. What is anaosognosia?
    Inability to recognize functional impairments
  134. What is agraphia?
    Inability to write
  135. Where is the somatosensory cortex located?
    In the parietal lobe
  136. What is the function of the somatosensory cortex?
    Process somatosensory input and integrate it with other sensory information
  137. What two issues can result from damage to the somatosensory cortex?
    • 1. Insensitivity to touch
    • 2. Disruption of movement
  138. Damage to which lobe is associated with Gertsmann's syndrome?
  139. What are the four characteristics of Gertsmann's syndrome?
    • 1. Agraphia
    • 2. Acalculia
    • 3. Right-left confusion
    • 4. Finger agnosia
  140. What is finger agnosia?
    Inability to distinguish, name, or recognize the fingers
  141. What is acalculia?
    Difficulty performing simple mathematical tasks
  142. What is the function of the occipital lobe?
  143. Where is the visual cortex located?
    Occipital lobe
  144. After an injury, a patient is experiencing visual issues, including distortion of images, blind spots, persistent after-images, loss of depth perception, and visual agnosia. Which area of the brain is likely most affected by the injury?
    Occipital lobe
  145. What is visual agnosia?
    Inability to recognize familiar objects by sight
  146. What is the function of the pyramidal system?
    Mediate fine movement
  147. What is the function of the extrapyramidal system?
    Motor movement
  148. What three structures are included in the extrapyramidal system?
    • 1. Cerebellum
    • 2. Basal ganglia
    • 3. Substantia nigra
  149. Where is the striatum located?
    Basal ganglia
  150. What are the two primary functions of the striatum?
    • 1. Produce GABA
    • 2. Controls muscular activities
  151. What happens if GABA production is reduced?
    The amount of dopamine increases because GABA regulates the amount of dopamine in the brain through an inhibitory process
  152. What disorder is associated with destruction of cells within the striatum?
    Huntington's Chorea
  153. What is the arcuate fasciculus?
    The fibers connecting Broca's and Weirnicke's area
  154. What three things did Freud believe about emotions?
    • 1. They are connected to our earliest experiences and physiological drives
    • 2. They are universal
    • 3. They are not under conscious control
  155. What is the James-Lange theory of emotions?
    Emotions occur when people experience arousal and interpret them as an emotional state (e.g., I am afraid because I tremble)
  156. What is the Cannon-Bard theory of emotions?
    Emotions are a result of simultaneous stimulation of the thalamus and the cortex; arousal and feeling occur at the same time
  157. What is the Cognitive-Arousal theory of emotions?
    Emotion is related to arousal and our attributions for that arousal based on environmental cues
  158. What researchers are associated with the Cognitive-Arousal theory of emotions?
    Schachter and Singer
  159. What did Darwin assert about emotions?
    In a variety of cultures, facial expressions reflected innate emotions
  160. What six basic emotions are generally considered to be universal?
    • 1. Fear
    • 2. Anger
    • 3. Joy
    • 4. Sadness
    • 5. Surprise
    • 6. Disgust
  161. Which area of the brain can be described as the main hunger center?
  162. Which two parts of the hypothalamus have been shown to play a significant role in hunger?
    • 1. Lateral hypothalamus
    • 2. Ventromedial hypothalamus
  163. What happens if the lateral hypothalamus is damaged?
    Failure to eat and drink
  164. What is adipsia?
    Failure to drink
  165. What happens if the ventromedial hypothalamus is damaged?
    Overeating and increased body weight
  166. What role does the hindbrain play in mediating hunger?
    It receives information from the GI tract and transmits it to the hypothalamus
  167. What role does the limbic system play in hunger?
    Emotive properties of food, such as reward and pleasure sensations
  168. What percentage of the variance in body weight can be explained by genetic factors?
  169. What is the externality hypothesis as it relates to obesity?
    People who are obese overeat due to being inherently more sensitive to external rather than internal cues
  170. What two body structures are the primary sources of sex hormones?
    • 1. Pituitary gland
    • 2. Gonads (ovaries and testes)
  171. What is the role of the pituitary gland in sexual behavior?
    It produces sex hormone hormones.
  172. What is the role of the gonads in sexual behavior/development?
    They receive hormones produced by the pituitary gland and then produce androgens and estrogen (ovaries produce progesterone as well).
  173. What sex hormone is produced only by the ovaries but not the testes?
  174. Which hormone causes the production of sperm and the release of ova?
    Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
  175. What are androgens and what two functions do they serve?
    They are the primarily male sex hormone; They cause the development of secondary sex characteristics in males and are involved in sexual interest in both males and females
  176. What is the function of estrogen in males?
    The function is unknown.
  177. What is the function of estrogen in females?
    It is necessary for normal sexual development and functioning of the reproductive system.
  178. What is the function of progesterone?
    Healthy functioning of the reproductive system
  179. Which sex hormones decrease during menopause?
    All three
  180. A woman experiences the following symptoms: hot flashes, insomnia, mood swings, urinary incontinence, and vaginal dryness. Which physical issue is she likely dealing with?
  181. What two diseases are reduced estrogen associated with an increased risk of?
    • 1. Osteoporosis
    • 2. Heart disease
  182. Estrogen replacement therapy may increase the risk of _______________.
    Breast cancer
  183. In females, loss of sexual desire is often associated with the loss of ___________.
  184. What is hypogonadism?
    A condition in males in which the circulating levels of androgens are low
  185. What treatment can help with hypogonadism?
    Androgen replacement therapy
  186. In males, which area of sexual functioning is most likely to be affected by a spinal cord injury?
  187. Which stages of sleep are known as non-REM sleep?
    Stages 1-4
  188. Which EEG waves are characteristic of Stage 1 sleep?
    Alpha waves give way to theta waves
  189. What type of EEG activity is characteristic of Stage 2 sleep?
    Theta waves with intermittent bursts of activity
  190. What type of EEG waves are characteristic of Stage 3 and 4 of the sleep cycle?
  191. What three changes are observable in the body during Stage 4 sleep?
    • 1. Deep breathing
    • 2. Slowed heart rate
    • 3. Low blood pressure
  192. As individuals progress through the sleep cycle, what happens to their ability to be awoken?
    It is more difficult to wake them
  193. What type of EEG activity is characteristic of REM sleep?
    A combination of relaxation and activity
  194. What two changes are characteristic of REM sleep?
    • 1. Rapid eye movement
    • 2. Loss of muscle tone
  195. What state is associated with alpha waves?
    Relaxed wakefulness
  196. What state is associated with beta waves?
    Active, alert state
  197. The average sleep cycle lasts for about __________ minutes
  198. How many times, in an average night, does the sleep cycle recur?
    4-6 times
  199. As the night progresses, delta sleep becomes _____________ while REM sleep becomes _____________.
    Shorter; longer
  200. Which stage of sleep is the first to occur during the first three to four months of life?
  201. How many sleep stages are observed in infants up to six months in age?
    Two, REM and non-REM
  202. In infancy, REM sleep makes up about ______ percent of overall sleep time, while in adulthood, it makes up ______ percent.
    50; 20
  203. What two effects on functioning are observable when someone is deprived of REM sleep?
    • 1. Increased anxiety/irritability
    • 2. Decreased cognitive functioning
  204. What is REM rebound?
    People who have been deprived from REM sleep will spend more time in REM when their sleeping returns to normal.
  205. What happens to the adverse affects associated with REM deprivation once the person can sleep normally again?
    They disappear
  206. What three disturbances in the sleep cycle are present with insomnia?
    • 1. Less delta sleep
    • 2. More movement during sleep
    • 3. More changes in the sleep cycle
  207. During which stage of sleep is Nightmare Disorder most likely to occur?
    REM sleep
  208. Sleepwalking and night terrors are most associated with which sleep stage?
    Stage 4
  209. Changes in which two physiological structures are most linked with memory?
    • 1. Synaptic membrane
    • 2. RNA (ribonucleic acid)
  210. What happens to neurons in long-term potentiation?
    High frequency stimulation of neurons in the hippocampus lead to increased sensitivity and results in change of shape of synapses and the formation of new receptors
  211. What did Golub find regarding RNA and memory?
    He extracted RNA from flatworms who had learned a conditioned response and then injected it into other flatworms. The new flatworms learned the conditioned response more quickly.
  212. Regarding memory, training and experience increases the amount of ______ in cells.
  213. Which part of the brain stimulates the pituitary gland?
  214. Which gland is referred to as the "master gland"? Why?
    Pituitary gland; it secretes hormones that causes other glands to release hormones as well as secretes hormones that act directly on organs
  215. Which gland is somatotropic, or growth, hormone associated with?
    Pituitary gland
  216. What condition is the result of over-secretion of somatotropic hormone in childhood?
  217. What condition is the result of under-secretion of somatotropic hormone in childhood?
  218. What condition is the result of over-secretion of somatotropic hormone in adults?
  219. What abnormalities are characteristic of acromelagy?
    Grossly enlarged hands, feet, and facial features
  220. What hormone is secreted by the adrenal cortex?
  221. What effect does stress have on the level of cortisol in the body?
    It elevates it
  222. What is the function of somatotropic hormone?
    To stimulate growth by acting on plates at the end of bones
  223. What is the function of cortisol?
    It stimulates the liver to convert glucose to energy
  224. What condition is associated with under-secretion of cortisol and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)?
    Addison's disease
  225. What are the characteristics of Addison's disease?
    Fatigue, fainting, loss of appetite, decreased weight, depression, and apathy
  226. What condition is associated with over-secretion of cortisol and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)?
    Cushing's disease
  227. What are the characteristics of Cushing's disease?
    Obesity, memory loss, mood swings, depression, and somatic delusions
  228. What two therapeutic techniques have been found to be helpful in regulating cortisol levels?
    • 1. Relaxation training
    • 2. Biofeedback
  229. What happens if a genetically male fetus is not stimulated by androgen during a critical period?
    It will fail to develop male genitalia
  230. What happens if a genetically female fetus is exposed to androgen during early pregnancy?
    It will develop male reproductive organs.
  231. What is the result of low levels of circulating testosterone in males?
    Lowered sexual potency
  232. What hormone is secreted by the thyroid?
  233. What is the function of thyroxine?
    Controls metabolism
  234. What can happen as a result of a thyroid deficiency in early life?
  235. What are the two primary characteristics of cretinism?
    • 1. Physical maldevelopment
    • 2. Intellectual impairment
  236. What condition is caused by the under-secretion of thyroxine in adulthood?
  237. What are the primary characteristics of hypothyroidism?
    Slowed metabolism, reduced appetite, weight gain, lowered heart rate and temperature, decreased libido, depression, and cognitive deficits
  238. What condition is caused by the over-secretion of thyroxine in adulthood?
    Hyperthyroidism (also known as Grave's Disease)
  239. What are the primary characteristics of hyperthyroidism?
    Elevated heart rate and temperature, increased metabolism, weight loss, nervousness, agitation, fatigue, insomnia, mania, and decreased attention
  240. Which organ secretes insulin?
  241. What is the function of insulin?
    Helps the body to absorb and make use of glucose and amino acids
  242. What condition is associated with under-secretion of insulin?
  243. What are the effects of diabetes if untreated?
    Mineral loss, low blood pressure, reduced blood flow, and death
  244. What condition is associated with over-secretion of insulin?
  245. What are the characteristics of hypoglycemia?
    Hunger, dizziness, headaches, blurred vision, anxiety, depression, and confusion
  246. Which sensory function are photoreceptors associated with?
  247. Which two senses are chemoreceptors associated with?
    • 1. Taste
    • 2. Smell
  248. Which three functions are mechanoreceptors associated with?
    • 1. Movement
    • 2. Hearing
    • 3. Touch
  249. What sensations are produced by thermoreceptors?
    Hot and cold
  250. When light waves enter the eye, which four areas, in order, do they pass through?
    Cornea, pupil, lens, retina
  251. What is the cornea?
    The transparent covering in front of the eye
  252. What is the function of the pupil?
    Regulate the amount of entering light through opening and closing
  253. What is the function of the lens?
    Focus light waves on the retina
  254. In which area are the light-sensitive receptors of the visual system located?
  255. What is the retina?
    Inner lining of the eyeball
  256. What two types of receptors exist in the visual system?
    Rods and cones
  257. What are rods?
    Photoreceptors that sense stimuli in low light
  258. What are cones?
    Photoreceptors that specialize in seeing color and function only in daylight
  259. Rods are located primarily in the _________ of the retina.
  260. Cones are located primarily in the __________ of the retina.
  261. What is the fovea?
    An area in the center of the retina that has a high concentration of photoreceptors and as a result, is the region of maximum visual acuity
  262. What is the function of the optic nerve?
    It carries nerve impulses from the retina to the brain.
  263. What happens at the point at which the optic nerve leaves the retina (optic disc)?
    A "blind spot"
  264. Fibers from the inner half of the eye go to the ________ side of the brain, while fibers on the outer half of the eye travel to the _________ side of the brain.
    Other; same
  265. Information from the left visual field goes to the ____________ hemisphere of the brain.
  266. After visual signals travel through the optic tract, what two locations do they visit next?
    The thalamus, and then the visual cortex in the occipital lobe
  267. After entering the auditory canal, which structure picks up auditory vibrations?
  268. What is the eardrum?
    Membrane in the ear that vibrates as a function of sound waves
  269. After being picked up by the ear drum, vibrations are amplified by what structure?
    The ossicles (three bones)
  270. After being amplified by the ossicles, vibrations are transmitted to the ______________.
    Oval window
  271. Movement of the oval window exerts pressure on the ____________.
  272. What is the cochlea?
    Liquid in the inner ear
  273. Pressure on the cochlea leads to movement of the _____________.
    Hair cells
  274. What is the function of hair cells in the ear?
    They serve as auditory receptors and transform mechanical vibrations to neural activity
  275. After vibrations are transformed by the hair cells into neural activity, where three locations do they visit next?
    • 1. Auditory nerve
    • 2. Thalamus
    • 3. Auditory cortex in the temporal lobe
  276. What is a sound wave?
    The stimulus that excites the auditory system
  277. On which three dimensions do sound waves vary?
    Frequency, amplitude, and timbre
  278. What unit is used to measure the frequency/pitch of a sound wave?
  279. What unit is used to measure the amplitude/loudness of a sound wave?
  280. What is auditory localization?
    The ability to orient toward the direction of a sound by turning one's head
  281. What happens to the ability to engage in auditory localization between the ages of 4-5 months?
    It declines
  282. When is the ability to engage in auditory localization fully developed?
    At 12 months of age
  283. Which four sensations are collectively known as somethesis?
    • 1. Touch/pressure
    • 2. Body position (kinesthesia)
    • 3. Temperature
    • 4. Pain
  284. What four subject variables can affect pain sensitivity?
    • 1. Knowledge
    • 2. Attention
    • 3. Motivation
    • 4. Suggestibility
  285. What are the two theories regarding the association between chronic pain and depression?
    • 1. Depression develops as a result of chronic pain
    • 2. Chronic pain is a type of masked depression ("pain prone" individuals)
  286. Which two disorders are more common in first-degree relatives of individuals with chronic pain?
    • 1. Depressive disorders
    • 2. Alcohol dependence
  287. What is gate-control theory?
    When the large, myelinated fibers that transmit information to the brain are activated, it "closes the gate" which makes the small, unmyelinated fibers unable to transmit pain signals as well. The pain mediation system can only process a limited amount of information.
  288. Name three activities/experiences that can close the gating mechanism in the experience of pain?
    • 1. Massage
    • 2. Heat or cold
    • 3. Information traveling to the brain, such an engaging in a distracting mental activity
  289. Name three narcotic-analgesics.
    • 1. Opium
    • 2. Morphine
    • 3. Heroin
  290. How do narcotic-analgesics act on the brain to diminish pain?
    They bind to opiate-specific receptors
  291. Where are olfactory receptors located?
    They line the olfactory epithelium in the rear of the nasal passages
  292. How do humans distinguish one smell from another?
    This mechanism is unknown
  293. What is different about the neural transmission of olfactory sensory input as compared to the other senses?
    Olfactory sensations are transmitted directly through the brain through the limbic system, while other senses are relayed through the thalamus
  294. In olfaction, information from the left nostril goes to the ______ hemisphere of the brain.
  295. In animals, what are the two functions of pheromones?
    • 1. Initiate sexual activity
    • 2. Mark territory
  296. What four types of receptors are present for taste?
    • 1. Sweet
    • 2. Sour
    • 3. Bitter
    • 4. Salty
  297. Where are taste receptors located?
    In the taste buds in the papillae (bumps) n the surface of the tongue
  298. During what age period is the sense of taste most intense?
  299. What is psychophysics?
    The study of the relationship between the magnitude of physical stimuli and psychological sensations
  300. What is the absolute threshold?
    The weakest stimulus that a person can detect
  301. What is the difference threshold or just noticeable difference (JND)?
    The smallest difference between two stimuli that is recognized as a difference
  302. What are the two tenets of Fechner's law?
    • 1. JNDs are psychologically equal intervals
    • 2. Changes in the magnitude of a physical stimuli are logarithmically related to changes in internal sensations
  303. What is Stevens' power law?
    There is an exponential relationship between the magnitude of physical stimuli and internal sensations, with the exponent varying for different kinds of stimuli
  304. Which sense is considered to be the most primitive?
  305. What is an afferent impulse?
    Information going to the brain
  306. What is an efferent impulse?
    Information coming from the brain
  307. Name two structural brain imaging techniques.
    • 1. CAT (Computerized Axial Tomography)/CT scan
    • 2. MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
  308. A CT scan uses ________ to take images of the brain, while an MRI uses __________.
    X-rays; magnetic fields
  309. What are two advantages of a CT scan as compared to an MRI?
    • 1. It is superior in detecting fresh blood
    • 2. It is less expensive
  310. What are three advantages of an MRI as compared to a CT scan?
    • 1. It produces 3D images of the brain
    • 2. It provides more precise detail
    • 3. It does not use x-rays
  311. Name three functional brain imaging techniques?
    • 1. PET (Positron Emission Tomography) scan
    • 2. SPECT (Single Photon Emission Computer Tomography)
    • 3. fMRI (Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
  312. What three measures does a PET scan use to asses neural activity?
    • 1. Regional cerebral blood flow
    • 2. Glucose metabolism
    • 3. Oxygen activity
  313. What is dysarthia?
    Problems in articulation that are due to lesions or diseases that disrupt the control of speech
  314. Which three disorders are dysarthia a common symptom of?
    • 1. Parkinson's Disease
    • 2. Huntington's Chorea
    • 3. Multiple Sclerosis
  315. What is alexia?
    A reading disability caused by an acquired brain lesion
  316. What is ideomotor apraxia?
    The inability to carry out a command to perform a particular movement. Individuals who suffer from this may be able to perform that movement spontaneously, however.
  317. What is constructional apraxia?
    The inability to draw or copy simple figures or to arrange blocks in a pattern
  318. What is the cause of aperceptive agnosia?
    Visual distortion that prevents recognition of an object
  319. What impairments are seen with aperceptive agnosia?
    The inability to recognize an object by sight, but can recognize it kinesthetically when placed in the hand
  320. What is the cause of associative visual agnosia?
    Disconnection of the visual and language areas of the brain
  321. What impairments can be seen with associative visual agnosia?
    An inability to name an object but ability to demonstrate its use and match it with similar objects
  322. What is prosopagnosia?
    The inability to recognize familiar faces
  323. Which impairment is typically denied amongst people who suffer from anosognosia?
  324. What type of brain damage usually leads to anosognosia?
    A stroke affecting the right parietal cortex
  325. What are the two main differences between contralateral neglect (CN) and anosognosia?
    • 1. Patients with CN are inattentive to everything on one side of the body, while patients with anosognosia are unaware of only functional limitations
    • 2. Patients with CN will acknowledge neglected area if their attention is directed to it, while patients with anosognosia will continue to deny it
  326. In children, brain tumors are most likely in which two areas of the brain?
    • 1. Brain stem
    • 2. Cerebellum
  327. In adults, brain tumors are most likely in which area of the brain?
    Cerebral cortex
  328. What is the first sign of a brain tumor?
    Psychological symptoms, such as depression or anxiety
  329. What are the five main distinguishing symptoms of a brain tumor?
    • 1. Headaches
    • 2. Seizures
    • 3. Nausea and vomiting
    • 4. Changes in vision and hearing
    • 5. Other focal neurological signs (e.g., ataxia, localized weakness)
  330. What is another name for a stroke?
    Cerebrovascular accident
  331. What is a stroke?
    The onset of neurological symptoms caused by a sudden, severe interference of blood flow to the brain
  332. Most strokes occur in which artery of the brain?
    The middle cerebral artery
  333. What three conditions/impairments are associated with a stroke in the middle cerebral artery?
    • 1. Contralateral hemiplegia and sensory loss, especially in face and arms
    • 2. Dementia
    • 3. Contralateral visual field loss (homonymous hemianopsia)
  334. What is homonymous hemianopsia?
    Contralateral visual field loss
  335. What three conditions/impairments are associated with a stroke in the anterior cerebral artery?
    • 1. Contralateral hemiplegia and sensory loss
    • 2. Dementia
    • 3. Affective disturbance
  336. What three conditions/impairments are associated with a stroke in the posterior cerebral artery?
    • 1. Cortical blindness and other visual deficits
    • 2. Anterograde amnesia
    • 3. Agitated delirium
  337. What is hydrocephalus?
    Excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the ventricles of the brain
  338. What three symptoms are associated with hydrocephalus?
    • 1. Dementia
    • 2. Gait disturbance
    • 3. Urinary incontinence
  339. As many as ______ percent of people who have a stroke die immediately or within several months.
  340. What percentage of people who survive a stroke fully recover from it?
  341. When does the greatest improvement in symptoms after a stroke occur?
    In the first 6 months
  342. Regarding stroke symptoms, __________ symptoms generally improve more quickly than ____________ symptoms.
    Physical; cognitive
  343. In individuals under the age of 40, what is the most common cause of brain damage?
    Head trauma
  344. What is an open head injury?
    An head injury in which the skull is penetrated
  345. What is the prognosis for symptoms associated with an open head injury?
    They are usually focal in nature and resolve relatively rapidly
  346. What differences in loss of consciousness occur in an open vs. closed head injury?
    In an open head injury, people don't generally lose consciousness, while in a closed head injury, loss of consciousness is more common
  347. Amnesia is likely with a/an _________ head injury.
  348. What is the best predictor of the degree of injury and likelihood of recovery with a closed head injury?
    The duration of anterograde amnesia
  349. In what time frame does most recovery from a closed head injury occur?
    6-9 months
  350. What is postconcussional disorder?
    A disorder included in the DSM-IV under conditions provided for further study. The criteria include a concussion following head trauma and three or more of the following symptoms: fatigue, headache, dizziness, irritability/aggression, and depression or anxiety
  351. Regarding the genetic nature of Huntington's Chorea, _______ percent of the offspring of the affected person are also affected.
  352. During what age range do symptoms of Huntington's Chorea generally first appear?
    30-50 years old
  353. Initial signs of Huntington's Chorea are generally ____________.
  354. What is athetosis?
    Slow, writhing movements
  355. What is chorea?
    Involuntary rapid, jerky movements of the face, limbs, and trunk
  356. In Huntington's Chorea, suicide risk is high, especially in ________ patients.
  357. Which three brain structures are affected by Huntington's Chorea?
    • 1. Substantia nigra
    • 2. Basal ganglia
    • 3. Cortex
  358. Which four neurotransmitters are associated with Huntington's chorea?
    • 1. Glutamate
    • 2. Acetylcholine
    • 3. GABA
    • 4. Dopamine
  359. What is Parkinson's disease?
    A degenerative brain disorder characterized by abnormalities in movement
  360. What five categories of symptoms are present in Parkinson's disease?
    • 1. Tremor
    • 2. Muscle rigidity
    • 3. Involuntary movements
    • 4. Disturbance in posture and equilibrium
    • 5. Akinesia
  361. What is akinesia?
    Inability to initiate movement
  362. In what percentage of individuals with Parkinson's disease is depression comorbid?
  363. What two neurotransmitters are linked to Parkinson's Disease?
    • 1. Serotonin (reduced levels)
    • 2. Dopamine (degeneration of dopamine-producing cells)
  364. Which type of drugs have been shown to temporarily alleviate symptoms of Parkinson's Disease?
    Drugs that increase levels of dopamine in the brain, including L-dopa
  365. Which type of brain imaging techniques are most useful in mapping the distribution of neurotransmitters and measuring cerebral blood flow?
    Functional techniques
  366. What type of effect does GABA have on the central nervous system?
  367. What is the catecholamine hypothesis?
    Hypothesis that depression is due to a deficiency of norepinephrine
  368. What is neurogenesis?
    The formation of new neurons or nerve cells neurons added to the brain in maturity.
  369. In what three areas of the brain has evidence of neurogenesis been found?
    • 1. Olfactory system
    • 2. Hippocampus
    • 3. Cerebral corex (prefrontal, inferior temporal, and posterior parietal regions)
  370. What is sexual dimorphism?
    Any consistent differences between males and females in size and shape.
  371. What is synesthesia?
    A rare condition in which stimulating one sense creates a sensation in another sense, such as tasting a color
  372. In general, how long does it take for antidepressants to become effective?
    Most effects occur after 2 weeks, but it can take up to 6 weeks.
  373. How do tricyclic antidepressants work?
    They block the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin
  374. Imipramine, clomipramine, amitriptyline, and doxepin are examples of which class of drugs?
    Tricyclic antidepressants
  375. What type of depressive symptoms are tricyclics most effective at relieving?
    Vegitative symptoms
  376. In addition to depression, for which six other conditions are tricyclic antidepressants effective?
    • 1. panic attacks
    • 2. agoraphobia
    • 3. obsessive states
    • 4. chronic pain
    • 5. bulimia
    • 6. enuresis
  377. What five side effects are collectively known as anticholinergic side effects?
    Dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, blurred vision, nasal congestion
  378. What types of side effects are most associated with tricyclic antidepressants?
    • 1. Anticholinergic
    • 2. GI symptoms
    • 3. Impaired sexual functioning
    • 4. Skin rash
    • 5. Sedation
    • 6. Memory impairments (especially in elderly)
    • 7. Confusion
    • 8. Insomnia
    • 9. Cardiovascular (tachycardia, palpitations, changes in blood pressure
  379. What symptoms can result from overdose of tricyclic antidepressants?
    Severe hypotension, fever, delirium, seizure, coma, or sudden death due to cardiac arrhythmia
  380. Tricyclic antidepressants must be prescribed with caution to patients with what 2 problems/issues?
    Patients who have heart disease or are suicidal
  381. What can result from combining tricyclics with MAOIs?
    Severe convulsions, hyptertensive crisis, and death
  382. How do SSRIs work?
    They increase the availability of serotonin at the synapse by inhibiting its reuptake
  383. What is the generic name of Tofranil?
  384. What is the generic name of Anafranil?
  385. What is the generic name for Elavil?
  386. What is the generic name for Adapin?
  387. Tofranil, Anafranil, Elavil, and Doxepin are examples of which class of drug?
    Tricyclic antidepressants
  388. Fluoxetine, sertraline, paroxetin, and citalopram are examples of what class of drugs?
    SSRI antidepressants
  389. What is the generic name for Prozac?
  390. What is the generic name for Zoloft?
  391. What is the generic name of Paxil?
  392. What is the generic name for Luvox?
  393. What is the generic name for Celexa?
  394. What is the generic name for Lexapro?
  395. Other than depression, what four disorders have SSRIs been found to be effective for?
    • 1. OCD
    • 2. Binge eating
    • 3. Panic disorder
    • 4. Anxiety
  396. What four advantages do SSRIs have over tricyclics?
    • 1. fewer side effects
    • 2. Relatively safe in overdose
    • 3. No anticholinergic effects
    • 4. No cognitive impairment
  397. What side effects are associated with SSRIs?
    • 1. GI problems
    • 2. Loss of appetite
    • 3. Decreased libido and other sexual dysfunction
    • 4. Dizziness
    • 5. Headache
    • 6. Worsened sleep and anxiety problems
  398. What can result if SSRI's are combined with MAOIs, tricyclics, antipsychotics, or anticonvulsants?
    Serotonin syndrome
  399. What three types of symptoms are characteristic of serotonin syndrome?
    • 1. Cognitive: headaches, agitation, hypomania, confusion, hallucinations, coma
    • 2. Autonomic: shivering, sweating, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachycardia, nausea, diarrhea
    • 3. Somatic: muscle twitching, tremor, hyperreflexia
  400. Increased risk of suicidal ideation related to SSRI usage has been associated with a small subset of __________.
    Children and adolescents
  401. When did the FDA issue a warning label on SSRIs because of their risk of increased suicidal ideation?
  402. Which SSRI is the only one approved for children as young as 8?
  403. How do MAOIs work?
    They block the action of enzymes that break down norepinephrine and serotonin leading to increased availability of these neurotransmitters in the brain
  404. Tranylcypromine and phenelzine are examples of which type of drug?
  405. What is the generic name of Parnate?
  406. What is the generic name of Nardil?
  407. What type of depression are MAOIs most effective for?
    Atypical, with symptoms such as increased appetite, hypersomnia, rejection-sensitivity, mood reactivity, symptom increase as day progresses, and accompanying symptoms of phobic anxiety, panic, and/or hypochondriasis
  408. What types of side effects are common with MAOIs?
    • 1. hypotension
    • 2. dizziness
    • 3. dry mouth
    • 4. upset stomach
    • 5. weight gain
    • 6. blurred vision
    • 7. headache
  409. What can result if MAOIs are combined with food/drink with moderately high levels of the amino acid, tyramine?
    Potentially fatal hypertensive crisis, with elevated blood pressure and convulsions
  410. What can happen if one overdoses on MAOIs?
    Drowsiness or agitation, hypertension, tachycardia, hallucinations, delusions, seizures, and coma; a large overdose can be fatal
  411. How do SNRIs work?
    They block the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, leading to increased availability of these neurotransmitters
  412. Other than depression, which three disorders are SNRI's effective for?
    • 1. Panic disorder
    • 2. Generalized anxiety
    • 3. Social anxiety
  413. What is the generic name for Effexor?
  414. What is the generic name for Cymbalta?
  415. What is the generic name for Pristiq?
  416. What are two advantages of the SNRIs over other antidepressants?
    • 1. Lower risk associated with overdose
    • 2. More rapid onset
  417. What side effects are associated with SNRIs?
    • 1. abnormal dreams
    • 2. agitation
    • 3. sexual dysfunction
    • 4. GI problems
    • 5. blood pressure changes
    • 6. drowsiness
    • 7. tingling sensations
    • 8. trembling
  418. Regarding medications, what is an agonist?
    A chemical that binds to a receptor and triggers a response
  419. Regarding medications, what is an antagonist?
    A chemical that binds to a receptor and blocks other chemicals from binding to it
  420. Nefazadone and trazodone belong to which class of drugs?
    SARI antidepressants
  421. How does a SARI antidepressant work?
    It serves as an antagonist and inhibits the reuptake of serotonin
  422. What is the generic name of Desyrel?
  423. What is the generic name of Serzone?
  424. What two side effects are associated with nefazadone?
    • 1. Blurred vision
    • 2. Drowsiness
  425. Other than depression, what condition is Nefazadone prescribed for?
  426. What side effects are associated with SARIs?
    • 1. Dizziness
    • 2. Nausea
    • 3. Headache
    • 4. Sedation
  427. Other than depression, what condition is trazodone used for?
  428. What side effects are associated with trazodone?
    • 1. Orthostatic hypertension
    • 2. Priapism
  429. What is priapism?
    A long-lasting, painful erection
  430. Mirtazipine and Maprotiline are examples of which class of drugs?
    Tetracyclic antidepressants
  431. What is the generic name of Remeron?
  432. What is the generic name of Ludiomil?
  433. How does Mirtazipine work?
    As a noradrenaline and selective serotonin antidepressant and an antihistamine
  434. How does maprotiline work?
    By increasing norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain
  435. What are the side effects associated with tetracyclic antidepressants?
    • Sedation, skin rash, blurred vision, dry mouth,
    • dizziness, agitation, irritability and weight gain
  436. Regarding side effects, tetracyclic antidepressants do not cause ____________.
    Sexual dysfunction
  437. What three conditions are tetracyclic antidepressants especially effective for?
    • 1. Depression with anxiety
    • 2. Depression with sleep problems
    • 3. Chronic pain
  438. What drug is considered a norepinephine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor?
  439. What is the generic name of Welbutrin/Zyban?
  440. Other than depression, what two other problems can bupropion be effective with?
    • 1. Smoking cessation
    • 2. Distractibility due to ADHD (off-label)
  441. Bupropion may induce preexisting _________ or ________.
    Seizures; psychosis
  442. What side effects are associated with bupropion?
    abdominal pain, constipation, decrease in appetite, dizziness, dry mouth, increased sweating, nausea, trembling, difficulty sleeping, unusual dreams
  443. Reboxetine and atomoxetine are examples of which type of drug?
    Norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
  444. What is the generic name of Edronax?
  445. What is the generic name of Stratera?
  446. In addition to being classified as a norepinephine reuptake inhibitor, reboxetine is also classified as what?
    Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor
  447. What two problems is atomoxetine mainly used to treat?
    • 1. ADHD (only non-stimulant medication approved for this disorder)
    • 2. Anxiety (off-label)
  448. What two types of drugs are used as mood stabilizers?
    • 1. Lithium
    • 2. Anticonvulsants
  449. The mode of action of Lithium is uncertain, but it is thought to work by what mechanism?
    Reducing postsynaptic responsivity to dopamine and norepinephrine
  450. What drug is considered the treatment of choice for Bipolar disorder?
  451. How is lithium helpful for bipolar disorder
    • 1. Reduces/eliminates manic symptoms
    • 2. Levels out mood swings
  452. What four issues/disorders is lithium often used as an adjunct in treating?
    • 1. schizophrenia
    • 2. intermittent explosive disorder
    • 3. epilepsy
    • 4. episodic binge drinking
  453. What side effects are associated with Lithium?
    GI distress, weight gain, tremor (mostly in fingers; 35% of those taking), fatigue, and mild cognitive impairment
  454. Why do levels of Lithium need to be closely monitored?
    Toxicity can result from too high dosage and lead to symptoms such as vomiting, abdominal pain, profuse diarrhea, severe tremor, and ataxia and can led to seizures, coma, or death
  455. What symptoms are anti-convulsants effective in treating?
    Mania, especially dysphoric or rapid cycling
  456. Which neurotransmitter are anti-convulsants believed to work on?
  457. What advantage does valproic acid have over other anti-convulsants?
    Fewer side effects
  458. Carbamazepine, lamotrigine, topimarate, and valproic acid are examples of which type of drug?
  459. What is the generic name of Tegretol?
  460. What is the generic name of Lamictal?
  461. What is the generic name of Topomax?
  462. What is the generic name of Depakote?
    Valproic acid
  463. What serious side effect is associated with carbamazapine?
  464. What is agranulocytosis?
    Decrease in certain types of white blood cells
  465. What advantage does carbamazapine have over lithium?
    Faster onset of action
  466. What side effects are associated with carbamazapine and other anti-convulsants?
    Lethargy, tremor, ataxia, and visual disturbance
  467. Antipsychotics are also known as __________.
  468. What serious side effect is associated with both traditional and atypical antipsychotics?
    Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
  469. What are the symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrom (NMS)?
    Muscle rigidity, high fever, sweating, stupor, unstable blood pressure, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction
  470. With treatment using anti-psychotic medications, when do symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome usually arise?
    Within the first 2 weeks
  471. What can happen as a result of neuroleptic malignant syndrome if medication is not immediately discontinued?
    Death (NMS has a very rapid onset)
  472. By what mechanism do traditional antipsychotics work?
    By blocking dopamine receptors in the brain
  473. What is the dopamine hypothesis and what is its current status?
    The dopamine hypothesis is the belief that schizophrenia is a result of overactivity of dopamine. This hypothesis came about after observation that dopamine elevating drugs (such as amphetamine) can lead to psychotic symptoms in individuals without a history and can worsen symptoms in those who have previously had psychosis. Currently, it is believed that schizophrenia's mechanism is more complicated and may involve imbalance of dopamine and involve serotonin and norepinephrine as well.
  474. Chlorpromazine, haloperidol, thioridiazine, and fluphenazine are examples of which type of drug?
    Traditional antipsychotics
  475. What is the generic name for Thorazine?
  476. What is the generic name for Haldol?
  477. What is the generic name for Mellaril?
  478. What is the generic name for Prolixin/Permitil?
  479. What three disorders/problems are traditional antipsychotics effective in treating?
    • 1. Schizophrenia
    • 2. Acute mania
    • 3. Psychotic symptoms of other disorders
  480. Traditional antipsychotics are more effective in treating the ____________ symptoms of schizophrenia.
  481. What are positive symptoms of schizophrenia?
    Symptoms that most non-schizophrenic individuals do not experience, such as delusions, hallucinations, agitation, disordered thoughts and speech
  482. What are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
    Deficits in normal emotional or cognitive processes, including anhedonia, flat affect, poverty of speech, lack of desire to form relationships, and lack of motivation
  483. What two classes of side effects are associated with traditional antipsychotics?
    • 1. Anticholinergic
    • 2. Extrapyramidal
  484. What four extrapyramidal side effects can result from traditional antipsychotics?
    • 1. Parkinsonism
    • 2. Akathesia
    • 3. Dystonia
    • 4. Tardive dyskensia
  485. An extrapyramidal side effect of traditional antipsychotics in Parkinsonism. What symptoms are associated with this?
    Muscle stiffness, shuffling gait, stooped posture, slurred speech, mask-like facial expression
  486. What is akathesia?
    A syndrome associated with muscular discomfort and extreme restlessness
  487. What is dystonia?
    sustained muscle contractions or spasms resulting in involuntary movements
  488. What is tardive dyskinesia?
    A syndrome associated with abnormal involuntary movements, especially of the face, tongue, and jaw
  489. At what point of treatment with traditional antipsychotics does tardive dyskinesia normally appear?
    After 6 months
  490. What happens to symptoms of tardive dyskinesia if the drug is gradually withdrawn after symptoms appear?
    They can be alleviated (especially in younger patients), but there may be an aggravation of symptoms before they decrease
  491. Which three neurotransmitters do atypical antipsychotics affect?
    Dopamine, serotonin, and glutamate
  492. Clozapine, risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole are examples of what type of drug?
    Atypical antipsychotics
  493. What is the generic name for Clozaril?
  494. What is the generic name for Risperdal?
  495. What is the generic name for Zyprexa?
  496. What is the generic name for Abilify?
  497. What three disorders/issues are atypical antipsychotics effective in treating?
    • 1. Schizophrenia
    • 2. Disorders with psychotic symptoms
    • 3. Motor symptoms of movement disorders
  498. What is one advantage of traditional antipsychotics over atypical antipsychotics?
    Faster onset
  499. What is one advantage of atypical antipsychotics over traditional antipsychotics?
    Treatment of both positive and negative symptoms
  500. What side effects are associated with atypical antipsychotics?
    Agranulocytosis, higher rate of seizures, anticholinergic effects, sedation, hypotension
  501. Which two classes of drugs are associated with the risk of agranulocytosis?
    • 1. Anti-convulsants
    • 2. Atypical antipsychotics
  502. Which class of drugs are most commonly prescribed for anxiety?
  503. How do benzodiazepines work?
    They enhance the activity of GABA, which has an inhibitory effect on the central nervous system
  504. Diazepam, clonazepam, alprazolam, lorazepam, and triazolam are examples of which type of drug?
  505. What is the generic name for Valium?
  506. What is the generic name for Klonapin?
  507. What is the generic name for Xanax?
  508. What is the generic name for Ativan?
  509. What is the generic name for Halcion?
  510. Which five disorders/conditions are benzodiazepines effective for?
    • 1. Anxiety
    • 2. Insomnia
    • 3. Severe alcohol withdrawal
    • 4. Cerebral palsy
    • 5. Petit mal/absence seizures
  511. What side effect is associated with IV doses of Lorazepam and Diazepam?
    Anterograde amnesia
  512. In the elderly, small doses of benzodiazepines can cause what symptoms?
    Confusion and disorientation that are sometimes mistaken for dementia
  513. What side effects are associated with benzodiazepines?
    Drowsiness, sedation, weight gain, apathy, dry mouth, GI distress, paradoxical excitation, motor disturbances, and sexual dysfunction
  514. Chronic use of benzodiazepines can result in ______________.
    Addiction, including tolerance and severe withdrawal symptoms
  515. What moderate symptoms are associated with withdrawal from benzo's?
    Irritability, anxiety, agitation, insomnia, tremor, abdominal cramps, muscle cramps, vomiting, sweating, flu-like symptoms
  516. What severe symptoms are associated with withdrawal from benzo's?
    Seizures, stroke, panic and rebound hypterexcitability
  517. What can result if benzo's are mixed with alcohol or another CNS depressant?
  518. How do barbiturates work?
    They interrupt impulses to the reticular activating system
  519. Why are barbiturates no longer widely prescribed for anxiety?
    They have been replaced by benzodiazepines, which are safer to use
  520. Thiopental, amobarbital, and secobarbital are examples of which class of drugs?
  521. What is the generic name for Pentothal?
  522. What is the generic name for Amytal?
  523. What is the generic name for Seconal?
  524. What can sudden withdrawal of barbiturates lead to?
    Convulsive seizures and death
  525. Which drugs are widely abused and are the drug of choice for suicide?
  526. What happens if one overdoses on barbiturates?
    Fatal suppression of respiration
  527. What happens if barbiturates are mixed with alcohol?
    Since alcohol and barbiturates have a potentiating effect on brain structures that control breathing, mixing them can be lethal
  528. Busprione is an example of a/an __________.
  529. What is the generic name of BuSpar?
  530. How is buspirone thought to work?
    By enhancing the activity of dopamine and noradrenaline and reducing serotonin and acetylcholine
  531. What are two advantages of buspirone over other anxiolytics?
    • 1. It reduces anxiety without sedative effect or anticonvulsant, or muscle relaxant effects
    • 2. It is not addictive or habit-forming
  532. What is a disadvantage of buspirone in comparison to other anxiolytics?
    Slower onset
  533. What side effects are associated with buspirone?
    Dizziness, nausea, headache, nervousness, lightheadedness, and excitement
  534. Propanolol is an example of a/an ____________.
    Beta blocker
  535. How do beta blockers work?
    They reduce the activity of beta-adrenergic neurons, which innervate the cardiovascular and respiratory systems and reduce heart rate and hyperventilation
  536. What is the generic name for Inderal?
  537. What five conditions/disorders are beta blockers effective for?
    • 1. Hypertension
    • 2. Cardiac arrhytmias
    • 3. Migraine
    • 4. Essential tremor
    • 5. Anxiety, especially in performance situations like public speaking
  538. What is essential tremor?
    Fine to moderate tremor that runs in families
  539. What side effects are associated with beta blockers?
    Bradychardia, hypotension, sexual dysfunction, fatigue, parasthesia, and depression
  540. What is tachycardia?
    Increased heart rate
  541. What is bradychardia?
    Slowed heart rate
  542. What is parasthesia?
    Sensation of tingling, burning, prickling, tickling, or pricking of a person's skin
  543. What is a disadvantage of beta blockers as compared to benzodiazepines?
    More likely to cause memory impairment
  544. What symptoms can result from abrupt withdrawal of beta blockers?
    Sweating, palpitations, headache, and tremors
  545. Hypnotics have a _________ onset and ___________ duration.
    Quick; short to medium
  546. Zolpidem, zaleplon, and eszopiclone are examples of which class of drugs?
  547. What problem are hypnotics useful for?
  548. What side effects are associated with hypnotics?
    Unpleasant taste, headache, dry mouth, heartburn, drowsiness
  549. How do psychostimulants work?
    They innervate the central nervous system by mimicking or potentiating the action of catecholamines in the brain
  550. What drugs of abuse are classified as psychostimulants?
    Cocaine and amphetamines
  551. Methylphenidate, pemoline, dextroamphetamine, lisdexamfetamine, and amphetamine salts are examples of which type of drug?
  552. What is the generic name for Vyvanse?
  553. What is the generic name for Ritalin/Concerta?
  554. What is the generic name for Cylert?
  555. What is the generic name for Dexedrine?
  556. What is the generic name for Adderall?
    Amphetamine salts
  557. Which two disorders are psychostimulants used to treat?
    • 1. ADHD
    • 2. Narcolepsy
  558. What side effects are associated with psychostimulants?
    Decreased appetite, insomnia, stomach aches, dysphoria; OCD symptoms may occur; can exacerbate tics and trigger psychotic episode
  559. What psychostimulant drug is most associated with OCD symptoms as a side effect?
  560. Growth suppression may result from the use of psychostimulants in children. How can this problem be prevented?
    By taking "drug holidays"
  561. How do narcotic-analgesics work?
    Bind to enkephalin receptors in the CNS and block transmission of neural impulses
  562. What natural opiods are considered narcotic-analgesics?
    Opium, morphine, codeine
  563. What pure/semi-synthetic derivative opiods are considered narcotic-analgesics?
    Heroin, percodan, demerol, methodone
  564. What is methadone used for?
    Heroin detoxification
  565. Despite the fact that it is equally as addictive, what are the advantages of methodone as compared to heroin?
    Withdrawal effects are milder, duration of effects are longer, and has oral administration
  566. Subutex and suboxone are examples of what class of drug?
    Partial opiods
  567. What condition are partial opiods used for?
    Opiod addiction; they can produce opiate agonist effects (maximal effects are less than full agonists, though) that can prevent side effects in opiate withdrawal
  568. What side effects are associated with partial opiods?
    Euphoria, respiratory depression, nausea, vomiting, and constipation
  569. What are prescription narcotic-analgesics used for?
    Pre-op medication to induce relaxation and sedation, acute pain, chronic pain
  570. What side effects are associated with prescription narcotic analgesics?
    Pupil constriction, decreased visual activity, perspiration, GI distress, and respiratory depression
  571. What can result if one overdoses on narcotic-analgesics?
    Decreased pulse, resulting in convulsions, and leading to coma or death
  572. What is one disadvantage of the use of prescription narcotic-analgesics?
    They are addictive and produce tolerance and severe withdrawal symptoms
  573. Disulfram, naltrexone, and acamprosate calcium are used in the treatment of what problem?
    Alcohol dependence
  574. What is the generic name for Antabuse?
  575. What is the generic name for Trexan?
  576. What is the generic name for Campral?
    Acamprosate calcium
  577. How does disulfram work?
    Blocks the processing of alcohol in the body, thus causing an unpleasant reaction when alcohol is consumed
  578. What side effect is associated with disulfram?
    Severe nausea
  579. How does natrexone work?
    It is an opiod receptor antagonist
  580. How does acamprosate calcium work?
    Increases GABA levels
  581. What is alogia?
    Poverty of speech
  582. What is avolition?
    Lack of motivation
  583. What is another name for the midbrain?
  584. What two regions is the midbrain/mesencephalon divided into?
    The tectum and the tegmentum
  585. What part of the sensorimotor system is located in the tegmentum?
    Substantia nigra
  586. What part of the tectum is involved in audition?
    Inferior colliculus
  587. What part of the tectum mediates vision?
    Superior colliculus
  588. The diencephalon and the telencephalon make up which area of the brain?
  589. What is paraprosopia?
    Visual hallucinations of terrifying faces
  590. What three categories of patient responses are measured by the Glascow Coma Scale?
    • 1. Eye opening
    • 2. Best motor response
    • 3. Best verbal response
  591. In the Glascow Coma Scale, what does the eye opening test indicate?
    The function of the brain's activating center
  592. In the Glascow Coma Scale, what does the best motor response test indicate?
    Ability to move arms and legs
  593. In the Glascow Coma scale, what does the best verbal response test indicate?
    Condition of the central nervous system within the cerebral cortex
  594. What is the lowest possible score in each category of the Glascow Coma Scale?
  595. Using the scores on Glascow Coma Scale, brain injuries are placed into which three categories?
    • 1. mild
    • 2. moderate
    • 3. severe
  596. What is measured by the Rancho Los Amigo Scale?
    Eight levels of cognitive functioning
  597. When is the Rancho Los Amigo Scale used?
    In acute rehabilitative settings following release from intensive care
  598. When is the AVPU scale used?
    After injury occurs or as pre-hospital information
  599. What does the AVPU scale evaluate?
    Iif someone is alert, responds to voice, responds to pain or is unresponsive
  600. What is the Disability Rating Scale used to evaluate?
    General level of disability from “none” to “extreme vegetative state.”
  601. What behavioral style is associated with damage to the brain's left hemisphere?
  602. What behavioral style is associated with damage to the brain's right hemisphere?
  603. What functions are impaired when the prefrontal association cortex is damaged?
    Cognitive regulation and planning (e.g., executive functioning)
  604. Impaired spatial orientation is associated with lesions in what area of the brain?
    Parietal lobe
  605. Hallucinations, delusions, and mood disturbance can result from damage to what area of the brain?
    Temporal lobe
  606. Which two structures (or parts of them) are included in the medial temporal area of the brain?
    Parts of the temporal lobe and hippocampus
  607. What function is associated with the medial temporal area of the brain?
    Long-term memory
  608. Short-term memory is associated with which area of the brain?
    Prefrontal cortex
  609. What is declarative memory?
    Memories which can be consciously recalled, such as facts and knowledge
  610. Declarative memory can be divided into what two categories?
    • 1. Episodic
    • 2. Semantic
  611. What is episodic memory?
    Memory for specific personal experiences
  612. What is semantic memory?
    Memory for factual information
  613. Declarative memory is also referred to as __________ memory.
  614. What is implicit memory?
    A type of memory in which previous experience aids in the performance of a task without conscious awareness of these activities
  615. What is procedural memory?
    Implicit memory for the performance of specific types of tasks, those that reside below the level of conscious awareness (e.g., tying shoes)
  616. What type of memory is impaired if the temporal lobe is damaged?
    Declarative/explicit memory, with episodic memory being more affected than semantic memory
  617. What four regions is the spinal cord divided into?
    • 1. Cervical
    • 2. Thoracic
    • 3. Lumbar
    • 4. Sacral
  618. What parts of the body does the cervical region of the spinal cord control?
    Back of the head, the neck, shoulders, arms, hands, and diaphragm
  619. What parts of the body does the thoracic region of the spinal cord control?
    The torso and parts of the arms
  620. What parts of the body does the lumbar region of the spinal cord control?
    Hips, thighs, and legs
  621. What parts of the body does the sacral region of the spinal cord control?
    Groin, toes, and some parts of the legs
  622. Where is the postcentral gyrus located?
    The parietal lobe; it includes the somatosensory cortex
  623. What symptoms are associated with damage to the postcentral gyrus?
    Numbness in contralateral hand and contralateral neglect
  624. What function is the precentral gyrus responsible for?
    Motor functioning