Seven Level CDCs

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Seven Level CDCs
2013-07-07 19:01:16

Seven Level CDCs
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  1. to the greatest extent possible, how should maintenance be performed?
    on a preplanned scheduled basis
  2. using equipment generates what type of maintenance?
    corrective (unscheduled)
  3. what are the two basic types of scheduled and unscheduled maintenance?
    on equipment and off equipment
  4. maintenance cross-tells are used for what purpose
    to highlight trends and safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel or training processes
  5. what should typically be included in a maintenance cross-tell report in addition to details such as national stock numbers, part numbers, and specific location of problem areas
    relevant background information and history
  6. what are two major goals of intermediate repair enhancement program (IREP) meetings
    increase local repair capability where appropriate and reduce overall cost
  7. in order of increasing capability, what are the three separate levels of maintenance
    organizational, intermediate, and depot
  8. which level of maintenance is performed off equipment at the backshop level
  9. what level of maintenance is used for complex repairs and is located at a major repair facility
  10. what combined maintenance approach modifies or eliminates the intermediate (off-equipment) function, where possible, by consolidating that repair function at the depot level
    two level (2LM)
  11. what type of maintenance facility is a hybrid of 2LM and 3LM and combines intermediate-level maintenance from mulitple bases to one location
    regional repair center
  12. what type of specialized regional reapir facility provides intermediate-level maintenance for selected commodities
    centralized repair facility CRF
  13. how can a successful R&M program be defined
    one that promotes the ability to identify and correct system deficiencies before they affect combat capability
  14. what is the primary scope of the Product Improvement Working Group (PIWG)
    to address product deficiencies affecting R&M that the field unit cannot resolve
  15. who takes the lead in identifying, tracking, assessing, and correcting, R&M deficiencies on their assigned air and space equipment and also co-chairs the PIWG?
    single manager
  16. as an end user, what if your primary focus in the DR process
    to identify deficiencies and properly submit reports
  17. what MXG agency is tasked with providing technical assistance for DRs
  18. what office assumes sole responsibility for the accuracy, currency, and integrity of the contents of an OI and for compliance with it
    office of primary responsibility
  19. when the scope of an OI will cross organizational group lines, at what level should it be published
    wing level
  20. can an AF civil service employee act as the POC for an OI
  21. which selection acts as the OPR for the maintenance policy guidance in the MXG
  22. what type of support agreement governs services provided by US Northern Command to US central command
  23. what flight within the MXG normally acts as the POC for SAs
    programs and resources flight
  24. what is the most important thing you must know about SAs
    learn what is in them
  25. what is historical documentation as it pertains to aircraft and equipment
    a permanent record of significant maintencance actions on aerospace equipment
  26. who is responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting and for informing the single manager so the items can be identified for reporting
    item managers
  27. for aircraft engines, when are the printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95s not required to accompany end items upon transfer
    when the location has access to the necessary MIS to retrieve info
  28. during what type of transfer do helicopter blades and tail rotor blades have to be accompanied by a printed copy of their AFTO IMT 95
    upon transfer into the disposal system
  29. upon transfer of engines to and from a depot maintenance facility, who is responsible for ensuring all basic engine components have been accounted for
    the maintenance facility that preserves the engine
  30. what aircraft engine documentations is an AFTO 95 primarily used for
    to document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history
  31. which maintenance information system is considered to be the standard AF base-level automated MIS
  32. in regards to MIS data integrity, what are work center shift supervisors responsible for doing
    reviewing data entered by their personnel on a daily basis
  33. what section guides the data integrity team process and is responsible for ensuring the MIS data provided to maintenance managers is meaningful and factual
    MOF MMA section
  34. what section is responsible for correcting incorrect and erroneous data entered into the MIS
    the section that entered the data
  35. as roadmaps, what can maintenance management metrics, if used properly, help you to determine
    where your organization has been, where you're going, and how or if you're going to get there.
  36. what are two major categories that metrics are often divided into
    leading and lagging indicators
  37. what type of performance indicator shows a problem first, while it is impacting maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission
  38. what type of indicator shows firmly established trends
  39. what maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform maintenance on primary mission aircraft, related age, and munitions support equipment for the first 8 hours after landing or start of recovery
    priority 2
  40. what maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform scheduled maintenance to include periodic inspectinos, routine TCTOs, and TCIs
  41. what maint. repair priority level should be assigned to perform routine repair of AGE and repair cycle assets
  42. if a change is made to the repair priority level, does the LRS parts delivery priority have to be changed to match it
  43. which type of maint. ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need
  44. which of the following is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maint. equipment, personnel, training or process
  45. who is the office of primary responsibility for the intermediate repair enhancement program
    maint. group commander
  46. which maint. capability category is performed at backshop level and consists of off-equipment maint.
  47. all requests for depot level assistace must be coordinated through
    QA and Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation
  48. what do you call wing-level maint. facilities providing intermediate-level maintenance repair support for mulitple AF units within a particular theater of  operations
    centralized repair facilites
  49. what program promotes identifying and correcting system deficiencies before they affect combat capability
    reliability and Maintainability
  50. which category of deficiency report should you submit if the equipment has a deficiency that if uncorrected, may cause major loss or damage to equipment and no workaround is known
  51. which maint. group agency provides technical assistance for deficiency reports to work center supervisors
  52. which of the following is sued to assign responsibilities, direct actions, and prescribe procedures within a subordinate function
    Operating instructions
  53. when operating instructions apply to mulitple groups they should be published as
    air force instructions
  54. printed copies of the 95 are not required to accompnay end items upon transfer
    to/from locations that have access to the necessary maint. info
  55. what AFTO IMT is used to document accumulated cycles, operating time, and history
  56. which system provides the capability to track engines and their compnents
    comprehensive engine management system
  57. which subsystem allows users to track maint. actions and has both maint. and supply data
    maint. events
  58. which subsystem provides maint personnel with the online capability to document, inquire, and produce retrievals of maint actions
    job data documentation
  59. who guides the overall data integrity team process and ensures the data provided to maint managers and supervision is meaningful and factual
    maint management analysis
  60. in addition to being familiar with the units assigned weapon system, squadron reps for DIT must be at least
    a 5 level
  61. what provides a measurement of unit performance and capability
  62. what are the two most common types of primary maint metric indicators
    leading and lagging
  63. which primary maint metric indicator shows problems first, as they directly impact maint capability to provide resources to execute the mission
  64. which primary maint metric indicator shows and follows firmly established trends
  65. which maint repair priority is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency missions
  66. although the wing standup meeting is used to keep the wing commander updated about maint issues, what is the overall focus of the meeting
    identifying and resolving issues/disagreements related to schedules
  67. who is personally tasked as the wing FOD/DOP program manager
    wing vice-commander
  68. in addition to ensuring effective fod/dop programs, what must the manager do on a quarterly or monthly basis
    chair the fod and dop prevention meetings
  69. why is it important for the mxg/cc to standardize maint desciplines, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy
    it leads to greater interoperability, improves maint quality, and ensures maint effectiveness
  70. as well as overseeing the development and publication of all maint related OIs what specific guidance must the mxg/cc establish for cannabalization responsibilities and actions
    guidance on individual responsbilities and specific procedures for CANN actions
  71. who is responsible for ensuring effective managemnt of all maint training programs including the development of an orientation program to adequatelly train newly assigned MXG personnel
  72. who is responsible for chairing the daily maint production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the mxg
  73. who does the mxg supt work directly for
  74. other than acting as a technical advisor, the mxg supt advises the mxg/cc on what type of issues
    personel, morale, and welfare issues as well as on problems not identified through maint
  75. what is the mxg supts primary job as it relates to enlisted manning within the mxg
    serves as the groups focal point for enlisted manning
  76. what responsibilities does a sq/cc have with the overall focus of upgrade training and maint qualifications programs
    he or she must emphasize the quality of the programs and not just focus on minimum upgrade time frames
  77. even though the sq/cc are ultimately responsible for unit depolyment readiness, who do they appoint to help ensure deployment readiness
  78. if squadron manning authorizations are not right what can the sq/cc do to help remedy the situation
    he or she can coordinate with manpower in preparing an ACR to alter his or her manning authorization
  79. what two positions within the MOS perform essentially the same duties as the MOO/MX SUPT
  80. in amxs/hmxs or mxs who does the mx supt work for
  81. who is responsible through the MOS/CC to the mxg/cc for monitoring the overall health of the fleet
    mof/cc assisted by the mof supt
  82. who is responsible for developing written procedures for EOR inspections in coordination with the wing weapons manager, weapons safety mangaer, and airfield management
    MOO/MX SUPT in amxs/hmxs
  83. who is responsible for reviewing and consolidating monthly maint plan inputs from the various mxs flight/section and for forwarding them to mof ps&d
    mxs moo with the assistance of the mx support
  84. in mos, who are flight cheifs responsible to in the area of leaderhsip, supervision, and training of their assigned flight personnel
  85. with regards to job enviornment safety, what must a flight chief inform workers of
    any hazardous conditions they may encounter on the job
  86. who is responsible for reviewing PRDs and flight aborts daily to ensure proper maint is being taken to correct the underlying problem
    amu oic/supt
  87. who chairs a daily maint productino meeting to develop and modify the overall maint plan of attack for an amu
    amu oic or supt
  88. what is the primary job of the section ncoic/sction chief
    to act as the first line manager and supervisor and to serve as the technical authority and advosior for his or her particular sections
  89. what AF IMT should a secction ncoic use to monitor, track, and document safety and health-related information about his or her workers
    AF IMT 55
  90. for section managed TMDE, what is a section Ncoic responsible for ensuring
    that maint and calibration requirements are accomplished
  91. the section ncoic should ensure cross-utiliztion training requirements do not interfere with what
    upgrade/qualification training
  92. what is the primary job of an amu flight line pro super
    to direct the overall maint effor of his or her amu
  93. what is the grade requiremnt to be appinted as an amu flight line pro super
    snco or civilian equivalent
  94. if one is appointed, what is the primary job of an mxs pro super
    to provide maint squadron specialist non-availability to moc at the beginning of each shift, identify production requiremnts and shortfalls to his or her operations officer/mx supt, and direct overall maint effort
  95. who is responsible for establishing a crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery program
    wing cc
  96. who is personally responsible for managing the foreign object damage and dropped object prvention programs
    wing vice cc
  97. who is responsible for standarizing maint descipline, procedures, organizatinoal structures, compliance, and management philosophy
    maint group cc
  98. who is responsible for chairring the daily maint production/ scheduling meeting with the representatives from throughout the maint group
    mxg deputy cc
  99. who oversees the management of maint facilities and aircraft support equipment procurement and maint
    maint group superintendant
  100. who is held legally responsible for their units enviornmental protection agency program compliance in accordance with the AFI 32-7042, waste management
    squadron cc
  101. which commander is tasked with develping and puslishing the wing flying/maint schedule in coordination with other squadron maint operations officers/maint superintendents
    maint operations flight
  102. worker safety and health information must be monitored, tracked, and documented using what AF IMT
  103. section non-commisioned officers in charge are responsible for developing cross utilization training requireemnts, ensuring they do not interfere with
    qualification and upgrade training
  104. section ncoics must ensure their sections are organized with tools, equipment, and material as close to the point of maint without jepordizing
    accountability and control procedures
  105. when a maint squadron production superintendant is appointed, who must he or she inform of specialist non-availability to at the beginning of each shift
    maint operation center
  106. which mof section is responsible for monitoring and coordinating sortie and maint production and overall execution of the flying and maint schedules
  107. who is responsible for appointing,, in writing a highly qualified individual to manage the engine health managemnt program
    mxg cc
  108. what is the primary mission of the maint mangement analysis section
    to track, analyze, and present information to help various levels of leadership assess health of aircraft and equipment
  109. other than teaching, what is the mission of the maint training flight
    to serve as mxgs single point of contact for all training matters affecting maint and to be responsible for the overall management and control of IMDS
  110. what are unit training managers responsible for in addition to assisting squadron cc with training matters
    managing squadron enlisted specialty training programs
  111. is the mtf normally allowed to duplicate training taught on base by a locally assigned aetc training detachemtn
  112. programs and reources flight personnel are primarily responsible for managing what programs within the mxg
    manning, facilities, support agreements, and deployment programs
  113. within the programs and resources flight who can give technical assistance for palletizing equipment or doing a deployment site survey
    the logistics planner
  114. what is the basic mission of the amu
    to launch and recover aircraft and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maint to support daily aircraft flying operations
  115. what are the standard sections of an amu
    debrief, aircraft, specialist, weapons, and support
  116. what is a definition of sortie generation
    the cumulative effort required to launch and recover sorties
  117. in addition to closely monitoring aircraft status, who must the flight line expediter notify when status and configuration changes occur
    moc and pro-super
  118. what are some of the references that flight line expediters must keep close at hand to facilitate their duties
    copies of the flying schedule, emergency action/functional checklist, base grid map with cordon overlay
  119. flight line expediters must track the serial number, location, priority, status, etic, and configuration of all aircraft. what are some of the other items that must be tracked
    oap condition codes, fuel load, munitions load, and remarks for each aircraft as applicable
  120. what are some of the information elements that debrief personnel enter into the applicable MIS
    discepancy and deviation information, utilization, and applicable flight data
  121. who is responsible for ensuring aircraft form sets are made available to the debrief section by the end of the flying day if debfiefs have been suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations
    flight line expediter or pro super
  122. what does an aircraft landing status code of 2 mean with regard to aircraft or system condition
    aircraft has minor discrepancies but is capable of further mission assignment
  123. what are the three different types of crew chief positions that can be assigned to the aircraft section
    dcc's, adcc's, and fcc's
  124. in a general sense what are the dccs and adccs charged with doing in respect to their assigned aircraft
    managing and supervising all maint
  125. the specialist section is normally respoinsible for what duties
    troubleshooting, on-equipment repairs, component R&I
  126. why is the specialist section ncoic responsible for promoting cross talk with other unit specialist sections
    to obtain info on system/ component repeat, recur, and cnd trends
  127. who must the specialist expeditors coordinate with in determining maint priorities for specialist support
    pro super and flight line expeditor
  128. who is responsible for bleed air, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen
    E & E
  129. what are the two standard elements in an amu weapons section
    loading and maint
  130. who serves as the key advisor to the amxs moo on factors that affect weapons training, weapons loading, and armamanet system maint capabilities for the amu
    weapons section ncoic
  131. what are weapons expediters responsible for monitoring with regard to the weapons section ncoic
    monitoring all armament systems maint and loading operations
  132. who must weapons expediter coordinate with for the delivery and pick up of munitions
    moc or munitions control
  133. who is responsible for controlling access to an aircraft undergoing munitions loading and unloading
    load crew chief
  134. the ncoic of the amu support section must come from one of what two afscs
    2A or 2W
  135. what is the minimum amount of time that personnel are normally assigned to the support section
    12 months
  136. list the nine flights that make up the mxs
    accessories, age, armament, avionics, fabrication, maint, munitions, propulsion, tmde
  137. if the mxs has more than 700 manning authorizations, what do commanders have the option of doing
    they can seperate mxs into two different squadrons: ems & cms
  138. what sections are in a standard accessories flight
    e & e, egress, fuel systems, hydro
  139. when egress explosive devices are damaged or suspected to be unsafe, who does the egress section request assitance from
  140. what sections make up AGE flight
    repair and inspections, servicing, pickup and delivery, age production support
  141. what age flight section is respoinsible for mainting TO files
    age production support
  142. what is the overall mission of the armament
    to perform off equipment maint for assigned aircraft armament systems, guns, pylons, racks, launchers
  143. which armament flight section coordinates with MOF ps&d in scheduling inspections, tctos and time changes
    armament maint
  144. which avionics flight section maintains lantirn pods
  145. what sections make up the fabrication flight
    structural, metals tech, ndi
  146. what four sections normally make up the maint flight
    repair and reclamation, wheel and tire, aircraft inspection, and transient alert
  147. what is the definition of transient aircraft
    aircraft not assigned to local base and are en route from one location to another that may require routine servicing
  148. which munitions flight section manages unit mobility and training programs
    munitions systems
  149. which propulsion flight section stores, builds up, tears down, modifies, repairs engines
  150. which TMDE flight section performs in labratory and on site calibration and repair using labratory equipment and calibration standards
  151. what are the four elemtns of the tmde production control section
    customer service, production scheduling, traffic management, and maint supply liason
  152. how many standard squadrons are in a maint group
  153. which maint operations squadron flight is a centrally located agency responsible for monitoring and developing long range strategies to sustain fleet health
    maint operations
  154. the maint operations center is responsible for the overall mangement of which IMDS subsystem
    status and inventory reporting
  155. which section is the wing focal point for engine health tracking and the engine health management program
    engine management
  156. which maint operation squadron section maintains standardized aircraft jacket files and attends pre-dock and post-dock inspection meetings
    plans, scheduling, and documentation
  157. the maint training flight normally consists of what two sections
    training management, development and instruction
  158. what agency's basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft and to perform necessary servicing, inspections, and maint to perform daily aircraft flying operations
    aircraft maintenance unit
  159. which of the following is not a section within a standard aircraft maintenance unit
  160. what does the debrief section use to help identify fault codes to aid maintainers in aircraft troubleshooting
    fault reporting manuals
  161. who must ensure the applicable aircraft form sets are provided to the debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations
    flight line expediter or production superintendant
  162. the aircraft section is split into two separate sections when an aircraft maint units number of mission assigned aircraft is more than
  163. which section is normally responsible for aircraft  troubleshooting, on-equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems and classififed aircraft items management
  164. which technicians maintain aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, oxygen systems
    Electro-Enviornmental specialists
  165. who is responsible to the weapons section chief for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations
    load crew chief
  166. which section is tasked with the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, dash-21 equipment, and maint, safety, and protective equipment
    support section
  167. which of the following is not a standard flight in the maintenance sqaudron
  168. cc have the option of establishing two separate squadrons, the ems and cms, if manning authorizations exceed
  169. in relation to aerospace ground equipment, what are centrally located to enhance mission performance
  170. which avionics flight section is responsible for performing off-equipment maint on systems such as all weather landing, attitude reference and bombing and inertial navigation
    guidance and control systems
  171. which avionics flight section is responsible for maintaining low altitude navigation and targeting infrared for night (LANTIRN) pods
  172. which fabrication flight sections processes are tightly controlled because the parts and tools they manufacture must meet the stringent standards of aerospace grade equpiment
    metals technology
  173. if a refurbishment section is established, wings have the option to align it under either the maint flight or the
    fabrication flight
  174. which munitions flight section receives, stores, warehouses, handles, inspects, ships, inventories, and transports containers, diespensers, and training items
  175. which propulsion flight section stores, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs engines, quick engine change kits, and test components
    Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance (JEIM)
  176. the test, measurement, and diagnosti equipment (TMDE) flight maintains, calibrates, and certifies tmde through the
    AF primary standards laboratory
  177. where is a list of formal AF-wide training courses for a specific career field normally found
    in part 2 of the career fields CFETP
  178. what type of training includes advanced and qualification training that develops indepth expertise withing a specialty, broadens knowledge of new specialties, introduces new technologies and systems, develops analytical skills, or increases understanding of the relationship between maint specialties
    continuation training
  179. for maint personnel when must training documentation be maintained for MSgts and above
    when they perform maint on aircraft, missles, or associated equipment
  180. what form is normally used to add someone to the special cert roster
    AF IMT 2426, training request and completion notification
  181. TBA provides the AF personnel with global, real time visability of what
    technical qualifications, certifications, and training status of weapons systems and support professionals AF wide
  182. what provides notifications on TBA application problems, software release projected downttimes and training update info
    the system messages board
  183. what is a copy of the tba production application intended for user practice and orientation on the tba application and not for operational unit training management activities
    tba user practice enviornment
  184. maint orientation class given to newly assigned personnel is considered what phase of training under the maint qualification program
    phase 1
  185. what course must MSgts or above attend if available when they will be supervising personnel on an MDS for which they have less than 1 year of experience
    aircraft familiarization course
  186. what phase of training includes specialty training such as engine run, hot pit refuel, and borescope training
    phase III special qual training
  187. when and inventory of course materials is accomplished, what should also be completed in the cdc volumes before a trainee is allowed to begin work on the cdc course
    any changes to the cdcs
  188. when you are building a master training plan for your flight/section, what should you do first
    develop a master task list
  189. with some exceptions, what do core tasks identify
    minimum task certification that must be achieved by a technician to be upgraded to either 5 or 7 level
  190. what does the udm provide a listing of
    both funded and unfunded unit manpower requirements
  191. what is a manning assist used for
    to alleviate a short-term manning problem caused by a temporary but unusually high workload
  192. what is the definition of duty time for maint personnel
    when an individual reports for duty until their supervisor releases them
  193. why is shift rotation a key component of personnel utilization
    it allows each individual to develop personal experience and knowlege by exposing them to shift specific duties
  194. training detachments and administratively assigned to which majcom
  195. the block training method is normally used to teach which maintenance training flight training course
    maintenance orientation
  196. how often must the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendant review and sign the special certification roster
  197. in order to be given authority to downgrade a red x an individual must be approved by the maint group cc and hold a minimum grade of
  198. TBA provides AF personnel with global, realtime,
    visibility of technical quals, certs, and training statuses
  199. in tba what type of notification does the system messages board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information
    application problems
  200. what training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, majcom mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training
  201. what continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman and training detachment courses
    maint qualification
  202. how often does the maint training flight provide a status of training briefing to the maint group commander
  203. an individual comes due for a training recert while tdy, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertfication is required
  204. who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course
    unit training manager
  205. manpower authorizations are
  206. a meeting to discuss manning issues in the maint group is normally held
  207. the max continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maint group cc approval is
    12 hours
  208. maint group cc are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12 hour shift up to
    16 hours
  209. with the exception of MSL personnel, supply support personnel are normally listed on what UMD
    maint groups
  210. why do MSL personnel periodically visit and inspect all maintenance workcenters
    to identify and recommend corrective actions on procedural or compliance problems
  211. in a general sense, what are the two primary types of readiness spares packages
    mobility readiness spares packages and in-place readiness spares packages
  212. temp high priority mission support kits are primarily used to provide support for what type of operations
    to support contingency operations for a period less than 90 days
  213. if shop stock is stored near or adjacent to bench stock items, should they be mixed
  214. what af imt must all requesters use when requesting the local manufacture of a specific item
    2005 issue/turn in request
  215. what imt must be used when requesting local manufacture of equipment related items
    601 equpiment action request
  216. what is a basic definition of hazardous materials
    toxic or flammable
  217. what info must be listed on a basic, non commercial, label for hazmat container
    product name, a warning or symbol, and safe handling procedures
  218. what is used to document items that have been drained and purged
    afto form 20, caution tag, or other locally produced documentation
  219. what block of supply training overs general suply indoc subjects
    block 1
  220. what form must be used when items on an equipment account are loaned outside the custodians span of control
    1297 temporary issue receipt
  221. special purpose recoverable authorized maint assets are coded with what errc codes
    XD or XF
  222. what agency is the collection point for expendable (XB3) items coded under PMRP
    defense reutilization and marketing office DRMO
  223. repair cycle assets are parts with an ERRC code starting with what letters
    XD or XF
  224. which supply management doeument can tell what and how many of a particular item you ordered, where its coming from, how it will be shipped, and an approximate delivery date for all your priority back ordered parts
    priority monitor report D18
  225. which supply management documents provides a means to monitor and verify that each due-out is still a valid requirement
    due out validation list M30
  226. what are some of the various types of security containers the government uses to store classified assets
    file cabinets, vaults, safes
  227. who is responsible for ensuring a secure area is provided for transient aircraft on an installation
    installation commander
  228. what type of security forces support is normally provided for a fighter aircraft with a security priority C designation
    security response team and a motorized patrol
  229. for supply assets requiring functional checking, units are required to identify which assests require this special handling. in addition to the repair sections organization and section code, what minimum details should be listed
    nsn, repair shop delivery destination code, and frequency of functional check
  230. if an asset is removed from service for bench checking and it is found that it can't be repaired locally, how should the item be processed
    not repairable this station (NRTS)
  231. what do expedite supply requests represent
    an urgent need for an asset from supply in order to prevent work stoppage
  232. within how many minutes should supply deliver a part that has issued with a delivery priority of 1
    30 minutes
  233. who should you contact if you need to request modification of a backorder, including changing the UJC or required delivery date
  234. customer service at LRS or your local supply support section
  235. when a supply point is being established, who is responsible for providing the necessary space and facilities to store the assets
    requesting organization
  236. what document should be submitted to initially stock and replenish supply point assets
    2005 issue turn in request
  237. how are TNBs arranged
    by tail number, serial number, or identification #
  238. what are two options you have available when you receive a defective part from supply
    deficiency report and the supply discrepancy report
  239. what is a support point as it relates to the DR process
    any activity that assits the action point
  240. what does the orginiating point use to submit and track DRs
    joint deficiency reporting system
  241. when should an SDR be submitted instead of a DR
    when the sole purpose is to obtain a replacement item or credit
  242. which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maint supply interface and resolving supply support problems
    maint supply laison
  243. maint supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the
    logistics readiness squadron
  244. which of the following is not normally a maint supply liaison duty
    collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
  245. the assets in a high priority mision support kit should be transferred into the host base's standard supply system account after how many days
  246. which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock
  247. the goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply
  248. provided it is still servicable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date
  249. who in the maint group is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements
    maint squadron operations office/maint superintendent
  250. what agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data
    engineering data service center
  251. which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution
    cloudy water
  252. who is responsible for developing a hazard communiction training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter
    section supervisor
  253. which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and or purged
    afto 20 caution tag
  254. who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian
    squadron cc
  255. what specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maint. monitor DIFM
  256. what form is used to document all report of surveys ROS
    dd form 200 financial liability, investigation of property loss
  257. which logistics readiness squadron office accrounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maint assets managed on in-use detail records
    equipment liaison office
  258. unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maint authorizations submited by spram custodians
    mission support group commander
  259. which precious metals indicator code indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals
  260. which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day
    D04 daily document register
  261. which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with and urgency of need code of A
    D18, priority monitor report
  262. which suppply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support
    m-24, organization effectiveness report
  263. who must authorize temporary storage of in transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms
    host installation commander
  264. when the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every
    3 hours
  265. who is the final authority for reviewing a units list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming
    logistics readiness squadron chief inspector
  266. who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request
  267. which urgency justification codes are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit or shop replaceable unit spare
    AR or BR
  268. before a supply point can be established and located in a maint work area, who must maint coordinate with
    LRS material management element
  269. once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor
    semi annually
  270. when a mission capable part issues and is placed in the tail number bin, supply personnel notify the
  271. when the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted
    supply discrepancy report
  272. who has the responsibility for overall deficiency report program management for the submitting orgranization or group
    originating point
  273. who acts as the deficiency report focal point between the support point and submitting organization
    action point
  274. once a Cat 1 deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report must be subitted to the screening point within
    24 hours
  275. what is the goal of the AF TO modernization effort
    to provide user friendly, technically accurate, and up to date digital technical data at the point of use
  276. what section are mxg TO DOs normally assigned to
  277. for what purpose are checklists developed
    to provide abbreviated step by step procedures
  278. who is responsible for attending TCTO planning meetings and should thoroughly review the TCTO before the meeting so clarification requests can be made
    the flight or section performing the TCTO
  279. what is a preliminary TO
    an unpublished TO that is used to support review of a new TO during the development process
  280. when should a followup be made after submitting an AfTO 22 for an emergency TO change requst
    48 hours after submission
  281. why should on-scene commanders use extreme caution when wiaving compliance with TO guidance during an emergecy situation
    they could be jeporadizing the safety of personnel and equipment
  282. how long does a TO waiver remain in effect
    until the OPR cancels it in writing, the publication is completely rewritten, or the waiver expires
  283. which is not normally a maint group technical order distribution office duty
    establishing technical order distribution account sub accounts as required
  284. what maint operations flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maint information system products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders by owning and managing agencies
    plans, scheduling, and documentation
  285. the product improvemtn mangager is usually assigned to what maintenance group section
  286. which of the following is not a tachnical order change priority category
  287. who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system
  288. a CANN action becomes necessary when a condition exists that prevents sucessful mission accomplisment.  However, what should be verified before executing the CANN action
    that the asset cannot be obtained through supply
  289. what should be checked prior to accomplishing a CANN made for a time change item
    the CA must ensure that enough time is left on the part being cannibalized to justify the cann action
  290. which cann program has the advantages of having fewwer cann aircraft per year, an increase in MC rate, and an increase in aircraft availability
    consolidated cann program
  291. in addition to having enough signs stating caution high radiation area that can be seen from all areas, what else is required to identify an area where a radiographic inspection is taking place
    a red flashing strobe light and rope barrier
  292. red ball maint normally occurs as an aircraft is attempting to leave for a mission but can also occur during what time frame
    up to 2 hours prior to launch all the way thru to the time the aircrew relases an aircraft to maintenance following a mission
  293. to alleviate safety hazards, what should be used during red ball maint. while aircraft engines are running
    a safety observer
  294. what rank must an individual have before serving as an impound official
    MSgt or above /civilian equivalent
  295. who is responsible for selecting a team of highly qualified technicians dedicated to determining the cause of a problem that resulted in an aircraft/equipment impoundment
    the impoundment official
  296. what is a main objective of the tool and equipment management program
    to minimize or eliminate fod to aircraft, engines, missles, and equipment
  297. who is required to coordinate on all locally manufactured weapons related tools and equipment
    wing weapons manager
  298. what should be done if a lost tool or item is deemed an inaccessible item that poses no FOD threat and is left in place
    all info concerning the tool will be maintained in the aircraft historical file until the item/tool is recovered
  299. who is assigned as the wing fod prevention program manager
  300. how often are fod prevention committee meetings held if a units fod rate is not meeting the lead command-established standard
  301. what units are required to develop an effective dropped object program
    all wings, groups, squadrons and any other units which operate aircraft
  302. what is the definition of maint recovery as it pertains to MRTs
    the repair and successful launch of an aircraft that been unexpectedly grounded at a location other than the aircrafts home station
  303. what afi provides valuable guidance on exectuing a successful maint recovery operation
    afi 21-101
  304. who designates cannibalization authorities
    maint group cc
  305. if a serially controlled item is canned the cann authority is required to notify
    plans, schedulling, and documentation
  306. which of the following does not institute a restricted maint area
    weapons loading operations
  307. red ball maint is not designed to prevent
    aircraft status changes
  308. who designates the impoundemnt official for a particular impundment situation
    applicable impoundment authority
  309. who is the office of primary responsibility for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/ equipment used on the flight line and in aersopace maintenance industrial areas
    maint group cc
  310. how many digits make up an equipment identification designator code used to identify tools and equipment
  311. the wing foreign object damage monitor is normally located within the
    QA section
  312. the wing foreign object damage monitor must notify the majcom fod manager within how many hours of a fod incident
  313. which of the following if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations is not considered a dropped object uner the dropped object prevention program
    explosive munitions
  314. a dropped object that has resluted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW
    AFI 10-206
  315. which AF publication provides general guidance for exectuting and effective maint recovery operation
    AFI 21-101
  316. what does the MSEP provide an objective sampling of
    quality of equipment, proficiency of maint personnel, and compliance of lead command
  317. who is responsible for developing and monitoring the MSEP program using a lead command approved QA database that provides supervisors access to MSEP data
    QA oic/supt
  318. an MSET team is required to have only one permanent member.  Where does the remainder of the team come from
    other majcom agencies and field units
  319. how are individual evaluations normally rated by an MSET
  320. when units develop their MSEP and conduct local inspections, what is used to ensure their prgrams, maint technician proficiency, equipment condition, and other focus areas are in compliance
    AF, majcom, and local directives
  321. a UCR indicates an unsafe or unsatisfactory condition, other than a DSV, and is chargeable to whom
    work center supervisor
  322. what is the goal of the PIP program
    to identify and correct deficiencies before they affect combat capability
  323. who does the PIM coordinate with to esure proper exhibit control and handling
    with the ALC and LRS
  324. if SMR code changes are approved, who does the PIM coordinate repair evaluation meetings with
    affected agencies
  325. what does aircraft configuration management provide unit managers the capability to do
    determine the actual versus approved configuration of an aircraft
  326. what is a formal modification proposal
    a recommendation to change the operation, use, or appearance of AF aircraft and equipment
  327. how often must temporary modifications be reapproved with HQ USAF/A4M
  328. who is the quality assurance chief inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required maint standardization and eval program functions are performed
    QA officer in charge/supt
  329. when a unit has received an unsatisfactory maint standardization and evaluation team rating, the maint group cc directs QA to perform a follow up inspection on the unit within how many days
  330. what maint standardization and eval team individual assessment is an over the shoulder eval while the technician peforms a task
    personnel eval
  331. what MSET assessment is performed after a technician completes a task
    Quality verification inspction
  332. in regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operators interface with the single point manager for a weapons system
    Lead command