Microbiology - Student Lab

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riki3719
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226602
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Microbiology - Student Lab
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2013-07-10 20:17:00
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Microbiology Bacteriology Mycology Virology Parasitology
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Student lab exam/quiz questions.
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  1. What is a definitive host?

    A. Host that is required for development of the larval form
    B. Host where the adult form of the parasite lives and reproduces
    C. Vector used to transmit the parasite to the next host
    D. Host in which the parasite remains dormant
    B. Host where the adult form of the parasite lives and reproduces
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. In general, six sequential fecal specimens should be examined for the presence of any intestinal parasites.

    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  3. Formed unpreserved stool should be examined within 1 hour because trophozoites die rapidly.

    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  4. Unpreserved formed stools need not be refrigerated because protozoa have already formed cysts.

    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  5. What are the correct processes that should be performed on a stool collected for parasite exam on a 6 month old child recently adopted from Vietnam?

    a. Preserve based on consistency
    b. Concentrate specimen and examine sediment
    c. Make a permanently stained slide with the sediment and examine for Protozoa
    d. Perform a wet mount using Lugol's Iodine to enhance morphology
    e. All of the above
    e. All of the above
  6. What is the definitive host for Echinococcus granulosus?

    A. Pigs
    B. Wolves
    C. Humans
    D. Sheep
    B. Wolves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Which fluke's eggs are generally found in sputum?

    A. Paragonimus westermani
    B. Clonorchis sinensis
    C. Fasciola hepatica
    D. Fasciolopsis buski
    A. Paragonimus westermani
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Which of the hookworms has two ventral pairs of teeth?

    A. Necator americanus
    B. Ancylostoma duodenale
    C. Strongyloides stercoralis
    D. Trichuris trichiura
    B. Ancylostoma duodenale
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Which amoeba trophozoite feeds on RBCs?

    A. Entamoeba coli
    B. Iodamoeba buutschlii
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    D. Endolimax nana
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Which amoeba has a nucleus with a heavy chromatin ring and an eccentually located karyosome?

    A. Iodamoeba butschlii
    B. Entamoeba coli
    C. Endolimax nana
    D. Dientamoeba fragilis
    B. Entamoeba coli
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Which amoeba has a nucleus with an even chromatin ring and a centrally located karyosome?

    A. Dientamoeba fragilis
    B. Endolimax nana
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    D. Entamoeba coli
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Which amoeba has four or less nuclei in a round cyst?

    A. Entamoeba coli
    B. Entamoeba histolytica
    C. Endolimax nana
    D. Iodamoeba butschlii
    B. Entamoeba histolytica
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Which amoeba cyst always contains a glycogen vacuole?

    A. Entamoeba histolytica
    B. Dientamoeba fragilis
    C. Iodamoeba butschlii
    D. Entamoeba coli
    C. Iodamoeba butschlii
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Which amoeba has a nucleus with a large karyosome and a nuclear membrane that is not visible?

    A. Iodamoeba butschlii
    B. Entamoeba nana
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    D. Endolimax nana
    D. Endolimax nana
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Which protozoa does not form cysts?

    A. Dientamoeba fragilis
    B. Iodamoeba butschlii
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    D. Entamoeba coli
    A. Dientamoeba fragilis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Which amoeba causes intestinal ulcers and bloody dysentery?

    A. Entamoeba histolytica
    B. Endolimax nana
    C. Entamoeba coli
    D. Iodamoeba butschlii
    A. Entamoeba histolytica
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which amoeba can invade liver an cause pathology in the organ?

    A. Iodamoeba butschlii
    B. Dientamoeba fragilis
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    D. Entamoeba coli
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Which of the following parasites do not migrate to the lungs, are coughed up, and swallowed during their life cycle in humans?

    A. Ascaris
    B. Necator americanis
    C. Dipylidium caninum
    D. Strongyloides
    C. Dipylidium caninum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Which Nematode can autoinfect their host?

    A. Trichuria
    B. Enterobius
    C. Strongyloides
    D. Ascaris
    C. Strongyloides
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. List two ways to differentiate between adult male and female Ascaris worms.
    • Males: smaller, curved tail
    • Females: larger, straight tail
  21. What two parasites can be diagnosed by direct fluorescent antibody staining from a stool sample?

    a. Cyclospora
    b. Cryptosporidia
    c. Acanthamoeba
    d. Giardia
    e. Entamoeba histolytica
    Cryptosporidia and Giardia
  22. Define hermaphroditic.
    When the organism contains both male and female reproductive systems.
  23. How do the proglottids of Diphyllobothrium lactum differ from those of other tapeworms?
    D. latum's proglottids are wider than they are long. They have a central pore and the uterus has a rosette shape.
  24. The infective stage of this roundworm is the filariform larva...

    A. Enterobius fermicularis
    B. Trichinella spiralis
    C. Strongyloides stercoralis
    D. Ascaris lumbricoides
    C. Strongyloides stercoralis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Eggs and/or larvae which are recovered in the stool are routinely used to diagnose infections caused by all of the following except:

    A. Necator americanus
    B. Trichinella spiralis
    C. Trichuris trichiura
    D. Ascaris lumbricoides
    B. Trichinella spiralis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Which of the following has the longer buccal cavity?

    a. Hookworm rhabditiform larvae
    b. Strongyloides rhabditiform larvae
    a. Hookworm rhabditiform larvae
  27. Blood films examed for microfilariae should be examined under what power?

    A. 40x.
    B. 10x
    C. 100x
    D. 20x
    B. 10x
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. A modified acid fast stain should be performed to detect which of the following parasites?

    a. Giardia lamblia
    b. Cyclospora cayetanesis
    c. Isospora belli
    d. Onchocerca volvulus
    Cyclospora cayetanesis and Isospora belli
  29. The gravid proglottids of this Cestode contain 7-13 uterine branches on each side:

    A. Taenia solium
    B. Taenia saginata
    C. Dipylidium caninum
    D. Diphyllobothrium latum
    A. Taenia solium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. A stained fecal smear reveals mononucleate flagellates with a pointed posterior and lemon-shaped mononucleate cysts with a clear, nipple-like bleb at one end. You would name this as:

    A. Trichomonas hominis
    B. Trichomonas vaginalis
    C. Giardia lamblia
    D. Chilomastix mesnili
    E. Endolimax nana
    D. Chilomastix mesnili
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. This parasite was found in the blood smear on a patient who had a recent summer vacation in New England and reported many insect and tick bites.

    A. Phthirus pubis
    B. Babesia spp.
    C. Plasmodium vivax
    D. AIDS virus
    B. Babesia spp.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Toxicariasis is a parasitic disease humans acquire whne they become the intermediate host to dog or cat Ascaris. The disease manifests itself in many different ways and is difficult to diagnose. What test would be performed if the patient was suspected of having Toxicariasis?

    A. Serological testing for antibodies
    B. Fluorescent antibody testing of stool for oocysts
    C. Stool examination for eggs
    D. Sputum examination for migrating larvae
    A. Serological testing for antibodies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Which of the following is typically the infective stage of Plasmodia for man?

    A. Trophozoites
    B. Gametocytes
    C. Sporozoite
    D. Schizonts
    C. Sporozoite
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. In which of the following are schizonts rarely seen?

    A. Plasmodium malariae
    B. Plasmodium ovale
    C. Plasmodium vivax
    D. Plasmodium falciparum
    D. Plasmodium falciparum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. The following stages of the malarial parasite are found in man, except:

    A. Schizonts
    B. Trophozoites
    C. Gametocytes
    D. Gametes
    E. Rings
    D. Gametes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Multiple infections of erythrocytes is most common with:

    A. Plasmodium vivax
    B. Plasmodium malariae
    C. Plasmodium falciparum
    D. Plasmodium ovale
    C. Plasmodium falciparum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Which of the following yields blood smears characterized by enlarged RBCs and exhibit Schuffner's stippling?

    a. Plasmodium malariae
    b. Plasmodium vivax
    c. Plasmodium ovale
    d. Plasmodium falciparum
    Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale
  38. Characteristic: rosette shaped uterus, egg is operculated

    A. Hymenolepis nana
    B. Taenia solium
    C. Taenia saginata
    D. Diphyllobothrium latum
    D. Diphyllobothrium latum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. This tapeworm can autoinfect and migrate.

    A. Taenia saginata
    B. Taenia solium
    C. Diphyllobothrium latum
    D. Hymenolepis nana
    B. Taenia solium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Rats and humans can be the definitive host.

    A. Taenia solium
    B. Taenia saginata
    C. Diphyllobothrium latum
    D. Hymenolepis nana
    D. Hymenolepis nana
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Characteristic: proglottids have 15-20 uterine branches and eggs are striated.

    A. Hymenolepis nana
    B. Diphyllobothrium latum
    C. Taenia saginata
    D. Taenia solium
    C. Taenia saginata
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. What is the common name of Strongyloides stercoralis?
    Threadworm
  43. What is the common name of Necator americanus?
    New World Hookworm
  44. What is the common name of Enterobius vermicularis?
    Pinworm
  45. What is the common name of Ascaris lumbricoides?
    Large Roundworm
  46. What is the common name of Trichuris trichiura?
    Whipworm
  47. What is the common name of Taenia saginata?
    Beef Tapeworm
  48. What is the common name of Taenia solium?
    Pork Tapeworm
  49. What is the common name of Fasciolopsis buski?
    Large Intestinal Fluke
  50. What is the common name of Clonorchis sinensis?
    Chinese Liver Fluke
  51. What is the common name of Ancylostoma duodenale?
    Old World Hookworm
  52. What criteria are used for morphological differentiation of blood and tissue microfilariae?

    A. Buccal length and placement of nuclei
    B. Presence of a sheath and genital permordium size
    C. Length of buccal cavity and size of genital permordium
    D. Placement of nuclei and presence of absence of sheath
    D. Placement of nuclei and presence of absence of sheath
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. How does an individual become infected with Toxoplasmosis?

    A. Ingestion of food contaminatied with eggs
    B. Larva penetration of skin
    C. Mosquito bite
    D. Ingestion of undercooked meat and from cat feces
    D. Ingestion of undercooked meat and from cat feces
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Define reservoir.
    Hosts a parasite that is capable of infecting.
  55. An ocular micrometer must be calibrated in order to measure and identify parasites accurately.

    Low power:    Stage = 0.8
                         Ocular = 45

    If an objective measures 3 units, what is the size in microns?

    A. 0.533
    B. 5.333
    C. 0.053
    D. 53.33
    D. 53.33

    (0.8*1000)/45 = 17.75
    17.75*3 = 53.33 microns
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Which Cestode is associated with Vitamin B12 deficiency?

    A. Taenia solium
    B. Hymenolepsis nana
    C. Taenia saginata
    D. Diphyllobothrium latum
    D. Diphyllobothrium latum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. In a fecal exam obtained from a patient who had recently traveled to South America, the following was seen. A large protozoa that was ciliated and contained many vacuoles and a micronucleus and a macronucleus. What is the most likely parasite?

    A. Dientamoeba fragilis
    B. Trichomonas hominis
    C. Entamoeba coli
    D. Balantidium coli
    D. Balantidium coli
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Dr. Marshall along with a team of other health care providers spent a week treating and caring for patients in a small clinic located in a remote village in the western part of Africa. Several individuals presented to the clinic with large blisters on the lower leg, ankles, and feet. Upon contact with water, the blisters ruptured and a small thin whitish worm could be seen.

    What is this parasite and how should it be treated?
    Draculculus medinensis (Guniea Worm). Wrap the worm around a match stick and slowly (only a couple cm at a time) retrieve the worm. May take days to weeks.
  59. A 10 year old boy was admitted to the hospital with a severe headache, fever, nausea, and vomiting. Symptoms began suddenly 2 days after vacationing at a summer camp situated on an inland lake. A spinal tap revealed a purulent CSF with no bacteria. On direct examination of the liquid, a motile amoeba resembling a leukocyte was observed.

    What is the most likely causative agent?
    Naegheria
  60. An elderly woman living in the Great Lakes area of the US went to her doctor. She had intermittent diarrhea and abdominal pain for several weeks. A case history was taken from the patient and it was found that she regularly prepared gefilite fish (fish and cracker mixture) and often tasted the recipe before cooking to make sure it was seasoned correctly. The bacterial cultures of her feces were negative but upon performing a parasite exam, eggs were seen. The eggs on close examination had a operculum that was hardly visible and a small knob at the opposite end.

    What parasite do you suspect and how did she acquire it?
    Diphyllobothrium latum; ingesting raw or undercooked fish.
  61. River blindness is caused by:

    A. L. donovani
    B. L. braziliensis
    C. O. volvulus
    D. T. cruzi
    C. O. volvulus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. A principal role of the clinical microbiologist includes:

    a. Communicating information about the patient quickly and accurately in both verbal and written formats
    b. Assisting in providing accurate infectious disease diagnosis
    c. Devising and updating lab testing and protocols to provide optimum disease management
    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  63. The 5 basic steps in microbial identification and reporting are collection and transport, specimen processing, and identification of medically important organsims. What are the two remaining steps?

    A. Repeating questionable rsults and verfying identification
    B. Calling all results and issuing a written report
    C. Antimicrobial susceptibility and reporting
    D. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing and serology
    C. Antimicrobial susceptibility and reporting
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. What is a nosocomial infection?
    A hospital-acquired infection.
  65. Definitive ID of clinically significant isolates

    A. Is always necessary and should be carried out by the lab at all times.
    B. Is not always cost effective and should be done based on source of the isolate, attending physicians request, and lab policy.
    C. Is desirable in most cases but sometimes limited ID may be necessary and helpful.
    D. Is not necessary in most cases and should not be done routinely by the lab.
    B. Is not always cost effective and should be done based on source of the isolate, attending physicians request, and lab policy.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Universal precautions in the micro lab apply to

    A. Only specimens that are visibly bloody
    B. All clinical specimens
    C. Blood, body fluids, feces, sputum, saliva, urine, and vomitus
    D. Clinical specimens that contain blood or body fluids
    B. All clinical specimens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) are:

    a. Issued by the manufacturer for any chemical containing product they produce
    b. All stored in engineering for easy access by inspecting agencies
    c. Are the basis for determining what PPE must be used whne handling the chemical
    d. Accessible by all employees who use a particular product as part of their right to know
    e. All of the above
    e. All of the above
  68. How should a urine sample for culture be handled if it is delayed before reaching the lab for testing?

    A. Call patient back for repeat testing so that timely transport can be arranged
    B. Collect all samples on swabs for easier storage
    C. Refrigerate or preserve samples
    D. Keep at room temp to prevent loss of organisms
    C. Refrigerate or preserve samples
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. The key to proper specimen collection is:

    A. If possible, collect after antibiotics are given
    B. Obtain specimen following patients instructions
    C. Label with patients last name only
    D. Collect during the acute phase of an illness
    D. Collect during the acute phase of an illness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. Which category of media would MAC best fit?

    A. Selective and differential
    B. Differential
    C. Selective
    D. Supportive only
    A. Selective and differential

    Selective for gram negatives and differential for LF/NLF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Which category best describes HE media?

    A. Broth
    B. Selective and differential
    C. Differential
    D. Enriched
    B. Selective and differential

    Selective for Salmonella and Shigella and differential for H2S production
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. What role does normal flora play in protecting the body from disease?

    A. NF produce a film that coat the mucosal membranes preventing invasion of pathogenic organisms
    B. NF increases the pH in that site and produces pigments that are bactericidal
    C. NF reduce the pH in that site and competes for minerals
    C. NF reduce the pH in that site and competes for minerals
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. What is one critical test for distinguishing Staph aureus from Staph epidermidis?

    A. Coagulase
    B. Catalase
    C. Fermentation of glucose
    D. Furazolidone sensitivity
    A. Coagulase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Which of the following tests is the most specific for ID of GAS?

    A. Hemolysis of sheep RBCs
    B. Sensitivity to bacitracin
    C. Sensitivity to optochin
    D. Serologic latex agglutination testing
    D. Serologic latex agglutination testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Two positive tests for identifying Strep pneumoniae.
    • Optochin sensitivity
    • Bile solubility
  76. Two positive tests for identifying GBS.
    • CAMP test
    • Hippurate hydrolysis
  77. Two positive tests for identifying GAS.
    • Bacitracin sensitivity
    • PYR test
  78. Three positive tests for identifying Enterococcus.
    • PYR test
    • 6.5% NaCl tolerance positive
    • Esculin hydrolysis positive
  79. One positive test for identifying Group D Strep.
    Esculin hydrolysis positive
  80. Hyalurionidase assists in the spread of disease caused by S. aureus by breaking down connective tissue.

    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  81. The following information is obtained from a urine culture:

    White gamma colonies
    Gram positive cocci
    Catalase positive
    Slide coagulase negative
    Novobiocin resistant
    Modified oxidase negative

    The most likely identification of this organism is:

    A. Staph saprophyticus
    B. Coagulase negative Staph spp.
    C. Micrococcus spp.
    D. Staph aureus
    E. Too little information
    A. Staph saprophyticus

    Micrococcus is modified oxidase positive, S. aureus is coagulase positive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. Match the following Staphylococcal virulence factors with the condition they cause: Hemolysins

    A. Toxic shock syndrome
    B. Destroys WBCs
    C. Destroys RBCs
    D. Scalded skin syndrome
    C. Destroys RBCs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Match the following Staphylococcal virulence factors with the condition they cause: Exfoliating toxin

    A. Food poisoning
    B. Inactivates antibiotics
    C. Scalded skin syndrome
    D. Destroys RBCs
    C. Scalded skin syndrome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. Match the following Staphylococcal virulence factors with the condition they cause: Leukocidins

    A. Toxic shock syndrome
    B. Inactivates antibiotics
    C. Food poisoning
    D. Destroys WBCs
    D. Destroys WBCs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Match the following Staphylococcal virulence factors with the condition they cause: TSST-1

    A. Destroys RBCs
    B. Toxic shock syndrome
    C. Food poisoning
    D. Scalded skin syndrome
    B. Toxic shock syndrome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Match the following Staphylococcal virulence factors with the condition they cause: Enterotoxin

    A. Toxic shock syndrome
    B. Food poisoning
    C. Scalded skin syndrome
    D. Inactivates antibiotics
    B. Food poisoning
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. Match the following Staphylococcal virulence factors with the condition they cause: Penicillinase

    A. Inactivates antibiotics
    B. Food poisoning
    C. Destroys RBCs
    D. Destroys RBCs
    A. Inactivates antibiotics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. Which statement(s) is/are true for Micrococcus?

    a. It is a facultative anaerobe
    b. It is sensitive to the bacitracin disc
    c. It is modified oxidase positive
    d. It has yellow pigmented colonies
    e. All of the above
    e. All of the above
  89. S. aureus is the species that has the most virulence in the genus. Which of the following infections does it cause?

    a. Scarlet fever
    b. Impetigo
    c. Carbuncles
    d. Food poisoning
    e. All of the above
    Impetigo, Carbuncles, and Food Poisoning

    Scarlet fever is caused by GAS.
  90. Which of the following is associated with GAS virulence?

    a. M protein and protein F
    b. Streptokinase and hyaluronidase enzymes
    c. Streptolysins O and S
    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  91. The drug of choice for most streptococcal infections is

    A. Vancomycin
    B. Streptomycin
    C. Penicillin
    D. Septra
    C. Penicillin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. What is the reaction that occurs when an organism is catalase positive?
    2H2O2 --> O2 + 2H2O
  93. Which is the correct description for Stomatococcus?

    A. Beta hemolytic
    B. Coagulase positive
    C. Fruity smell
    D. Sticky colonies
    D. Sticky colonies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Which two infections are preceded by infection with beta-hemolytic streptococci?

    A. Glomerulonephritis, undulant fever
    B. Glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever
    C. Rheumatic fever, tularemia
    D. Rheumatic fever, undulant fever
    B. Glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. List four characteristics which all Enterobacteriaceae share.
    • Gram negative
    • Oxidase negative
    • Glucose fermenters
    • Reduce nitrates to nitrites
  96. A sputum culture on an alcoholic seen in the ER grows gray, mucoid colonies on BAP. The isolate grows readily on MAC and forms mucoid, dark pink colonies. The colonies yield the following reactions:

    ONPG +
    Indole neg
    Glucose +
    Oxidase neg
    Citrate +
    VP +
    Motility neg

    The organism most likely is:

    A. Escherichia coli
    B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    C. Proteus vulgaris
    D. Citrobacter freundii
    B. Klebsiella pneumoniae

    VP positive = Klebsiella, Enterobacter, or Serratia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. A positive ONPG test tells us that the organism being tested can

    A. Hydrolyze urea
    B. Reduce nitrates to nitrites
    C. Ferment sorbitol
    D. Ferment glucose
    D. Ferment glucose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. Media for screening suspected cases of enterohemmorrhagic E. coli O157 must contain

    A. Indole
    B. Sorbitol
    C. Lactose
    D. Citrate
    B. Sorbitol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. A positive lysine decarboxylation is indicated by a yellow butt in the LIA.

    a. True
    b. False
    b. False - Purple indicates negative
  100. Spot indole should always be performed off of BAP or CHOC agar.

    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  101. CIN agar is used to isolate Yersinia enterocolitica.

    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  102. All members of the Enterobacteriaceae are nitrate negative.

    a. True
    b. False
    b. False - they are nitrate positive
  103. Salmonella can be carried asymptomatically in the gallbladder.

    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  104. Shigella infections occur only when a person is exposed to a large dose of organism.

    a. True
    b. False
    b. False - small dose
  105. A patient presented to the doctor with a severe case of gastroenteritis. The stool culture from the patient recovered an organism with the following characteristics/biochemical reactions:

    BAP = large colony, gamma hemolytic
    MAC = NLF gram negative rod
    HE = clear colony with black center
    Oxidase neg
    Indole neg
    Urea neg
    Citrate pos

    Which of the following organisms is the most likely pathogen?

    A. Proteus mirabilis
    B. Salmonella spp.
    C. Citrobacter freundii
    D. Shigella spp.
    B. Salmonella spp.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. The major etiologic agent of UTIs is

    A. Salmonella spp.
    B. Citrobacter freundii
    C. Shigella spp.
    D. E. coli
    D. E. coli
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. Which of the following ferments glucose:

    A. Morganella morganii
    B. Alcaligene faecalis
    C. Acinetobacter lwoffii
    D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    A. Morganella morganii
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. The oxidase test is positive for which organism?

    A. Acinetobacter lwoffii
    B. Proteus mirabilis
    C. Serratia marcescens
    D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - we use this organism for our OX control
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. A positive deaminase test is important for which organism:

    A. Citrobacter freundii
    B. Providencia rettgerii
    C. E. coli
    D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    B. Providencia rettgerii
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. What common GNR swarms on BAP?
    Proteus mirabilis
  111. What Enterobacteriaceae can produce a distinct red to pink pigmentation?

    A. P. aeruginosa
    B. Serratia marcescens
    C. Chromobacterium spp.
    D. E. coli
    B. Serratia marcescens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. Which of the following characteristics does NOT describe a nonfermenting GNR?

    A. Opportunistic pathogens
    B. Normally found in soil and water
    C. Multi-drug resistant
    D. Grow anaerobically only
    D. Grow anaerobically only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. List the three types of infection caused by Yersinia pestis.
    • Bubonic
    • Septicemia
    • Pneumonic
  114. What test can you use to differentiate Klebsiella pneumoniae and Klebsiella oxytoca?

    A. Oxidase
    B. Citrate
    C. VP
    D. Indole
    D. Indole - K. pneumonia is negative, K. oxytoca is positive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. How would you treat an intestinal infection caused by Salmonella vs. Shigella?

    A. Shigella is never treated, just supportive therapy
    B. Shigella is less likely to cause infection so patient never knows they have it
    C. Salmonella always is treated with antibiotics
    D. Salmonella is supportive therapy unless it is extra-intestinal
    D. Salmonella is supportive therapy unless it is extra-intestinal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. A Lysine Iron Agar (LIA) shows a reaction of Red/Yellow. Based on this reaction, the organism tested positive for what reaction?

    A. Lysine deaminase positive and lysine decarboxylase positive
    B. Glucose fermentation positive and lysine decarboxylase positive
    C. Lysine decarboxylase positive and glucose fermentation negative
    D. Glucose fermentation positive and lysine deaminase positive
    D. Glucose fermentation positive and lysine deaminase positive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. E. coli O157:H7 causes bloody diarrhea. What is an additional complication that can occur especially in children as a result of being infected by this organism?

    A. HUS
    B. DIC
    C. Melidosis
    D. Rash with exfoliation
    A. HUS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. An organism that cannot utilize carbohydrates as an energy source is:

    A. Nonfermenter
    B. Fermenter
    C. Asaccharolytic
    D. Oxidizer
    C. Asaccharolytic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. An organism that utilizes carbohydrates anaerobically is:

    A. Nonfermenter
    B. Fermenter
    C. Oxidizer
    D. Asaccharolytic
    B. Fermenter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. An organism that cannot utilize carbohydrates anaerobically:

    A. Nonfermenter
    B. Asaccharolytic
    C. Oxidizer
    D. Fermenter
    A. Nonfermenter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. An organism that utilizes carbohydrates aerobically:

    A. Nonfermenter
    B. Fermenter
    C. Asaccharolytic
    D. Oxidizer
    D. Oxidizer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. Which of the following organisms are nonfermenting GNR? (more than one)

    a. Sphingomonas paucimobilis
    b. Chryseobacterium meningosepticum
    c. Serratia marcescens
    d. Chromobacterium violaceum
    e. Salmonella enteritidis
    Sphingomonas paucimobilis, Chryseobacterium meningosepticum, Chromobacterium violaceum
  123. This organism causes meningitis in neonates.

    A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    B. Stenotropomonas maltophilia
    C. Alcaligene faecalis
    D. Chryseobacterium meningosepticum
    D. Chryseobacterium meningosepticum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. This organism is the cause of melioidosis.

    A. Burkholderia cepacia
    B. Burkholderia pseudomallei
    C. Burkholderia mallei
    D. Alcaligenes faecalis
    B. Burkholderia pseudomallei
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. This organism has a dry yellow wrinkled colony.

    A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    B. Chryseobacterium meningosepticum
    C. Burkholderia pseudomallei
    D. Pseudomonas stutzeri
    D. Pseudomonas stutzeri
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. This organism has a lavender green colony.

    A. Chryseobacterium meningosepticum
    B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    C. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
    D. Burkholderia mallei
    C. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. This organism causes Glanders disease.

    A. Burkholderia pseudomallei
    B. Alcaligenes faecalis
    C. Burkholderia mallei
    D. Burkholderia cepacia
    C. Burkholderia mallei
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. This organism has a corn taco chip/grape smell.

    A. Pseudomonas stutzeri
    B. Stenotrophomonas malophilia
    C. Chryseobacterium meningosepticum
    D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. This organism has a very, very, very strong fruity odor.

    A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    B. Alcaigenes faecalis
    C. Burkholderia mallei
    D. Pseudomonas stutzeri
    B. Alcaigenes faecalis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. This organism colonizes the respiratory tract of cystic fibrosis patients.

    A. Burkholderia mallei
    B. Burkholderia cepacia
    C. Burkholderia pseudomallei
    D. Pseudomonal stutzeri
    B. Burkholderia cepacia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. Which of the following is associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

    a. Nonfermenter
    b. Grape-like odor
    c. Grows at 42C
    d. Pyomelanin
    e. All of the above
    e. All of the above
  132. Which type of gram negative bacilli is resistant to most currently available antimicrobial agents except Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole, leaving it as the primary drug of choice for infections caused by this species?

    A. Vibrio
    B. Proteus
    C. E. coli
    D. Stenotrophomonas
    D. Stenotrophomonas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. In oxidation-fermentation determinations, when acid production is detected in the open, aerobic tube only, the organism is identified as a

    A. Glucose fermenter
    B. Nonutilizer
    C. Glucose oxidizer
    d. None of the above are correct
    C. Glucose oxidizer - nonfermenter, oxidizer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. Which organism has a violet pigment and is oxidase positive?

    A. Chromobacterium violaceum
    B. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
    C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    D. Alcaligenes faecalis
    A. Chromobacterium violaceum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. Which organism has a yellow colony and earthy odor?

    A. Sphingomonas paucimobilis
    B. Acinetobacter baumanii
    C. Burkholderia cepacia
    D. Alcaligenes faecalis
    C. Burkholderia cepacia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. This organism has non-lactose fermenting colonies with a purple hue.

    A. Acinetobacter baumanii
    B. Chromobacterium violaceum
    C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    D. Sphingomonas paucimobilis
    A. Acinetobacter baumanii
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. This Pseudomonas aeruginosa virulence factor inhibits protein biosynthesis.

    A. Endotoxin
    B. Phospholipase
    C. Toxin A
    D. Protease
    C. Toxin A
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. This Pseudomonas aeruginosa virulence factor is toxic to alveolar macrophages.

    A. Leukocidin
    B. Endotoxin
    C. Heat-stable hemolysin
    D. Phospholipase
    C. Heat-stable hemolysin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. This Pseudomonas aeruginosa virulence factor causes terminal shock.

    A. Protease
    B. Toxin A
    C. Endotoxin
    D. Exoenzyme S
    C. Endotoxin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. This Pseudomonas aeruginosa virulence factor causes hydrolysis of lecithin.

    A. Heat-stable hemolysin
    B. Phospholipase
    C. Protease
    D. Biofilm
    B. Phospholipase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. This Pseudomonas aeruginosa virulence factor destroys protein elastin.

    A. Heat-stable hemolysin
    B. Protease
    C. Toxin A
    D. Exoenzyme S
    B. Protease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. This Pseudomonas aeruginosa virulence factor impairs function of cilia.

    A. Phospholipase
    B. Pili
    C. Biofilm
    D. Pigment
    D. Pigment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. This Pseudomonas aeruginosa virulence factor protects organisms from phagocytosis and complement activity.

    A. Leukocidin
    B. Endotoxin
    C. Biofilm
    D. Pili
    C. Biofilm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. This Pseudomonas aeruginosa virulence factor assists in attachment, promoting colonization.

    A. Biofilm
    B. Pili
    C. Proteases
    D. Leukocidin
    B. Pili
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. This Pseudomonas aeruginosa virulence factor destroys leukocytes.

    A. Exoenzyme S
    B. Toxin A
    C. Leukocidin
    D. Heat-stable hemolysin
    C. Leukocidin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. This Pseudomonas aeruginosa virulence factor impairs the function of phagocytic cells.

    A. Phospholipase
    B. Proteases
    C. Exoenzyme S
    D. Leukocidin
    C. Exoenzyme S
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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