Microbiology BOC set 1

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mbailey585
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226908
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Microbiology BOC set 1
Updated:
2013-07-14 22:34:18
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Microbiology BOC Preanalytical
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Microbiology BOC: 1-89 Preanalytical
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  1. Proper media for culture of a urethral discharge from a man include:

    A. sheep blood and phenylethyl alcohol agars
    B. thioglycollate broth and chocolate agar
    C. chocolate and modified Thayer-Martin agars
    D. eosin-methylene blue and sheep blood agars
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. A sheep blood agar plate inoculated with 0.001 mL of urine grows 70 colonies of Staphylococcus aureus. How many colony forming units per mL of urine should be reported?

    A.    70
    B.    700
    C.    7,000
    D.    70,000
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. The lowest concentration of antibiotic that inhibits growth of a test organism is the:

    A.    Maximum inhibitory titer
    B.    Minimum bactericidal titer
    C.    Minimum inhibitory concentration
    D.    Serum inhibitory concentration
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Which of the following clean catch urine culture colony counts indicates the patient likely has a urinary tract infection?

    A.    101 CFU/mL
    B.    103 CFU/mL
    C.    105 CFU/mL
    D.    no growth
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. The steam autoclave method of sterilization:

    A.    Produces a maximum temperature of 100oC
    B.    Uses 15  lbs of pressure for 15 minutes
    C.    Utilizes dry heat for 20 minutes
    D.    Requires a source of ethylene oxide
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. The expected colony count in a suprapubic urine from a healthy individual is:

    A.    100 CFU/mL
    B.    100,000 CFU/mL
    C.    0 CFU/mL
    D.    1,000 CFU/mL
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. An aspirate of a deep wound was plated on blood agar plates and incubated aerobically and anaerobically. At 24 hours there was growth on both plates. This indicates that the organism is a(n):

    A.    Aerobe
    B.    Nonformenter
    C.    Obligate anaerobe
    D.    Facultative anaerobe
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. The proper blood-to-broth ratio for blood cultures to reduce the antibacterial effect of serum in adults is:

    A.    1:30
    B.    1:10
    C.    1:2
    D.    1:3
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. A penicillin-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae produces:

    A.    Beta-lactamase
    B.    Alpha-hemolysin
    C.    Coagulase
    D.    Enterotoxin
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Which selective medium is used for the isolation of gram-positive microorganisms?

    A.    Columbia CNA with 5% sheep blood
    B.    Eosin methylene blue
    C.    Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood
    D.    Modified Thayer-Martin
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. The most sensitive substrate for the detection of beta-lactamases is:

    A.    Nitrocefin
    B.    Ampicillin
    C.    Penicillin
    D.    Cefoxitin
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. A Staphylococcus aureus  isolate has an MIC of 4 ug/mL to oxacillin. There is uncertainty as to whether this represents an oxacillin (heteroresistant) resistant strain or a hyperproducer of beta-lactamase.

    Strain       Oxacillin        Amoxocillin-clavulanic acid
    Strain A    Susceptible    Susceptible
    Strain B    Susceptible    Resistant
    Strain C    Resistant       Susceptible
    Strain D    Resistant       Resistant

    Based on the above results for oxacillin and amoxicillin-clavulanic acid, which strain is heteroresistant:

    A.    Strain B
    B.    Strain A
    C.    Strain C
    D.    Strain D
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. An Enterococcus isolated from multiple blood cultures in a patient endocarditis should be:

    A.    screened for high level aminoglycoside resistance
    B.    assayed for serum antimicrobial activity
    C.    checked for tolerance
    D.    tested for beta-lactamase production
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. In the Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion susceptibility test, which variable is critical when testing Pseudomonas species for antibiotic susceptibility to aminoglycosides?

    A.    Depth of agar
    B.    Cation content of media
    C.    Incubation temperature
    D.    Duration of incubation
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. The procedure that assures the most accurate detection of mecA-mediated oxacillin resistance in routine broth microdilution susceptibility testing against S aureus is:

    A.    Use of cefoxitin for testing
    B.    Incubation at 30oC
    C.    Incubation for 48 hours
    D.    Addition of 4% NaCl
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. When performing a stool culture, a colony type typical of an enteric pathogen is subcultured on a blood agar plate. The resulting pure culture is screened with several tests to obtain the following results:

    TSI:    Acid butt, alkaline slant, no gas, no H2S
    Phenylalanine:    Negative
    Motility:    Positive
    Serological typing:    Shigella flexneri (Shigella subgroup B)

    The serological typing is verified with new kit and controls. The best course of action would be to:

    A.    Verify reactivity of phenylalanine deaminase with positive and negative controls
    B.    Verify reactivity of motility medium with positive and negative controls
    C.    Verify reactivity of the TSI slants with positive and negative controls for H2S production
    D.    Report the orgsnism as Shigella flexneri without further testing
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Susceptibility testing performed on quality control organisms using a new media lot number yielded zone sizes that were too large for all antibiotics tested. The testing was repeated using media from a previously used lot number, and all zone sizes were acceptable. Which of the following best explains the unacceptable zone sizes?

    A.    The depth of the media was too thin
    B.    The antibiotic disks were not properly applied to the media
    C.    The antibiotic disks were not stored with the proper desiccant
    D.    The depth of the media was too thick
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Three sets of blood cultures were obtained from an adult patient with fever and suspected endocarditis. The aerobic bottle of one set had growth of Staphylococcus epidermidis at 5 days of incubation. This indicates that:

    A.    The patient has a line infection
    B.    The blood culture bottles are defective
    C.    The organism is most likely a contaminant
    D.    There was low-grade bacteremia
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. In order to isolate Campylobacter coli/jejuni, the fecal specimen should be:

    A.    Stored in tryptic soy broth before plating to ensure growth if the organism
    B.    Incubated at 35oC for 2 hours in Cary-Blair media before inoculating onto selective plating media
    C.    Inoculated onto selective plating and incubated in reduced oxygen with added CO2 at 42oC
    D.    Inoculated onto selective plating media and incubated at both 35oC and at room temperature
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. An expectorant sputum is sent to the laboratory for culture from a patient with respiratory distress. The gram stain of the specimen shows many squamous epithelial cells (>25/lpf) and rare neutrophils. The microscopic appearance of the organisms present include:

    Moderate gram-positive cocci in chains and diplococci
    Moderate gram-negative diplococci
    Moderate palisading gram-positive bacilli all in moderate amounts

    This gram stain is most indicative of:

    A.    An Haemophilus pneumonia
    B.    A pneumococcal pneumonia
    C.    Oropharyngeal flora
    D.    An anaerobic infection
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Which type of microscope would be most useful in examining viruses and the structure of microbial cells?

    A.    Dark-field
    B.    Phase-contrast
    C.    Bright-field
    D.    Electron
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. After satisfactory performance of daily disk diffusion susceptibility quality control is documented, the frequency of quality control can be reduced to:

    A.    Twice a week
    B.    Every month
    C.    Every other week
    D.    Every week
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. In disk diffusion susceptibility testing, as an antimicrobial agent diffuses away from the disk, the concentration of antibiotic is:

    A.    Inoculum dependent
    B.    Unchanged
    C.    Increased
    D.    Decreased
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. The most common cause for failure of GasPakTM anaerobic jar to establish an adequate environment for anaerobic incubation is:

    A.    Condensation of water on the inner surface of the jar
    B.    The failure of the pocket to generate adequate H2 and/or CO2
    C.    The failure of the oxidation-reduction potential indicator system due to deterioration of methylene blue
    D.    Catalysts that have become inactivated after repeated use
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Which of the following is the most appropriate method for collecting a urine specimen from a patient with an indwelling catheter?

    A.    Disconnect the catheter from the bag, and collect urine from the terminal end of the catheter
    B.    Aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing
    C.    Remove the catheter, cut the tip, and submit is for culture
    D.    Collect urine directly from the bag
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Which one of the following specimen requests is acceptable?

    A.    Urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli
    B.    Foley catheter tip submitted for aerobic culture
    C.    Rectal swab submitted for direct smear for gonococci
    D.    Feces submitted for anaerobic culture
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which of the following groups of specimens would be acceptable for anaerobic culture?

    A.    Vaginal, eye
    B.    Ear, leg tissue
    C.    Pleural fluid, brain abscess
    D.    Urine, sputum
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. A liquid fecal specimen from a three-month-old infant is submitted for microbiological examination. In addition to culture on routine media for Salmonella and Shigella, this specimen should be routinely:

    A.    Examined for the presence of Campylobacter sp
    B.    Placed in thioglycollate
    C.    Examined for the presence of Entamoeba hartmanni
    D.    Screened for the detection of enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Cerebrospinal fluid from a febrile 25-year-old man with possible meningitis is rushed to the laboratory for a stat gram stain and culture. While performing the gram stain, the technologist accidentally spills most of the specimen. The smear shows many neutrophils and no microorganisms. Since there is only enough CSF to inoculate one plate, the technologist should use a:

    A.    Chopped meat glucose
    B.    Chocolate agar plate
    C.    Blood agar plate
    D.    Thayer-Martin plate
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. A diabetic foot swab from a 82-year-old woman with recurrent infections is submitted for culture. The gram stain reveals:

    Many neutrophils, no squamous epithelial cells
    Many gram-negative bacilli
    Many gram-positive cocci in chains

    The physician requests that all pathogens be worked up. In addition to the sheep blood and MacConkey agar plates routinely used for wound cultures, the technologist might also process a(n):

    A.    CNA agar plate
    B.    Chocolate agar plate
    C.    XLD agar plate
    D.    Chopped meat glucose
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which of the following is the most appropriate specimen source and primary media battery?

    A.    Sputum-sheep blood, Thayer-Martin, KV-laked blood
    B.    CSF-Columbia CNA, MacConkey
    C.    Urine-sheep blood, chocolate, Columbia CNA
    D.    Endocervical-chocolate, Martin Lewis
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Which of the following is the most appropriate organism and media combination?

    A.    Campylobacter species—charcoal yeast extract
    B.    Yersinia enterocolitica—cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN)
    C.    Clostridium difficile—phenylethyl alcohol (PEA)
    D.    Legionella species—Regan Lowe
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. A gram stain from a swab of a hand wound reveals:

    Moderate neutrophils
    No squamous epithelial cells
    Moderate gram-positive cocci in chains
    Moderate large gram-negative bacilli

    Select the appropriate media that will selectively isolate each organism.

    A.    Sheep blood, MacConkey
    B.    Columbia CNA, MacConkey
    C.    KV-laked agar, Thayer-Martin
    D.    Columbia CNA, chocolate
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Upon review of a sputum gram stain, the technician notes that the nuclei of all of the neutrophils present in the smear are staining dark blue. The best explanation for this finding is:

    A.    The iodine was omitted from the staining procedure
    B.    The sputum smear was prepared too thin
    C.    The slide was inadequately decolorized with acetone/alcohol
    D.    The cellular components have stained as expected
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. When performing a Kovac indole test, the substrate must contain:

    A.    Ornithine
    B.    Indole
    C.    Tryptophan
    D.    Paradimethylaminobenzaldehyde
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. The ONPG test allows organisms to be classified as a lactose fermenter by testing for which of the following?

    A.    Permease
    B.    Beta-galactosidase
    C.    Phosphatase
    D.    Beta-lactamase
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Sodium bicarbonate and sodium citrate are components of which of the following?

    A.    NYC medium
    B.    MTM agar
    C.    ML agar
    D.    JEMBEC system
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Chocolate agar base containing vancomycin, colistin, anisomycin, and trimethoprim is also known as:

    A.    Columbia CNA agar
    B.    Martin Lewis agar
    C.    Modified Thayer-Martin agar
    D.    EMB agar
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. A medium that aids in the presumptive identification of organisms based on their appearance on the medium is called:

    A.    Differential
    B.    Enriched
    C.    Specialized
    D.    Selective
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. SPS is used as an anticoagulant for blood cultures because it:

    A.    Inactivates penicillin and cephalosporins
    B.    Inactivates neutrophils and components of serum complement
    C.    Prevents clumping of red cells
    D.    Facilitates growth of anaerobes
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. When evaluating a new susceptibility testing system, if the new system characterizes a susceptible isolate as resistant, this is termed a:

    A.    Major error
    B.    Minor error
    C.    Very major error
    D.    Acceptable error
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Which of the following methods is inadequate for the detection of vancomycin-intermediate S aureus?

    A.    Gradient diffusion
    B.    Agar dilution
    C.    Broth macrodilution
    D.    Disk diffusion
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. In a disk diffusion susceptibility test, which of the following can result if disks are placed on the inoculated media and left at room temperature for an hour before incubation?

    A.    The antibiotic would not diffuse into the medium, resulting in no zone
    B.    There would be no effect on the final zone diameter
    C.    Zones of larger diameter would result
    D.    Zones of smaller diameter would result
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Which of the following factors would make an organism appear to be more resistant on a disk diffusion susceptibility test?

    A.    The presence of 0.5% NaCl in the medium
    B.    Too many organisms in the inoculum
    C.    A medium with a pH of 7.4
    D.    Too little agar in the plate
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. First-generation cephalosporins can be adequately represented by:

    A.    Cefoxitin
    B.    Ceftriaxone
    C.    Cefotetan
    D.    Cephalothin
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. An antibiotic that inhibits cell wall synthesis is:

    A.    Chloramphenicol
    B.    Sulfamethoxazole
    C.    Penicillin
    D.    Colistin
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Which one of the following organisms does not require susceptibility testing to the antimicrobial indicated when isolated from a clinically significant source?

    A.    Escherichia coli-levofloxacin
    B.    Proteus mirabilis-gentamicin
    C.    Streptococcus pyogenes-penicillin
    D.    Staphylococcus aureus-clindamycin
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Which of the following antibiotics would routinely be tested and reported for isolates of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

    A.    Penicillin
    B.    Gentamicin
    C.    Clindamycin
    D.    Erythromycin
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Which of the following must be incubated in a microaerophilic environment for optimal recovery of the organism?

    A.    Campylobacter jejuni
    B.    Escherichia coli
    C.    Proteus mirabilis
    D.    Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Diagnosis of typhoid fever can be confirmed best by culture of:

    A.    Blood
    B.    Stool
    C.    Urine
    D.    Bone marrow
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Vibrio parahaemolyticus can be isolated best from feces on:

    A.    Hektoen enteric (HE) agar
    B.    Salmonella Shigella (SS) agar
    C.    Thiosulfate citrate bile salts (TCBS) agar
    D.    Eosin methylene blue (EMB) agar
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Which of the following media can be used to culture Campylobacter jejuni?

    A.    Skirrow medium
    B.    Bismuth sulfite
    C.    Anaerobic CAN agar
    D.    CIN agar
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Tests for beta-lactamase production in Haemophilus influenzae:

    A.    Are not valid for any other bacterial species
    B.    Should be performed on all blood and CSF isolates
    C.    Are not commercially available
    D.    Include tests that measure a change to an alkaline pH
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Media used to support growth of Legionella pneumophila should contain which of the following additives?
     
    A.      Dextrose and laked blood
    B.      Hemin and Vitamin K
    C.      Charcoal and yeast extract
    D.      X and V factors
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. The best medium for culture of Bordetella pertussis is:
     
    A.      Ashdown agar
    B.      Regan-Lowe agar
    C.      Martin Lewis agar
    D.      Cystine blood agar
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. The best medium for culture of Francisella tularensis is:
     
    A.      Loeffler medium
    B.      Charcoal selective medium
    C.      Cycstine glucose blood agar
    D.      Bordet-Gengou medium
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. The most rapid method for detection of Francisella tularensis is:
     
    A.       Fluorescent antibody staining techniques on clinical specimens
    B.      Polymerase chain reaction
    C.      Dye stained clinical specimens
    D.       Serological slide agglutination utilizing specific antiserum
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. When processing throat swabs for a group A Streptococcus culture, the medium of choice is:
     
    A.      Rabbit blood agar
    B.      Horse blood agar
    C.      Human blood agar
    D.      Sheep blood agar
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. The ability to detect oxacillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus may be enhanced by:
     
    A.       Using Mueller-Hinton broth with 2% NaCl
    B.      Incubating susceptibility plates at 39oC-41oC
    C.       Shortening incubation of standard susceptibility plates
    D.      Adjusting inoculum to 0.1 McFarland before inoculating susceptibility plates
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. The optimal wound specimen for culture of anaerobic organisms should be:
     
    A.       A syringe filled with pus, obtained before administration of antibiotics
    B.      A swab of lesion obtained after administration of antibiotics
    C.      A syringe filled with pus, obtained after administration of antibiotics
    D.       A swab of lesion obtained before administration of antibiotics
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. A 21-year-old patient presents with pharyngitis. A throat swab is collected and submitted for anaerobic culture. This specimen should be:
     
    A.      Sent to a reference laboratory
    B.      Set up immediately
    C.      Inoculated into thioglycollate broth
    D.      Rejected as unacceptable
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Anaerobic susceptibility testing is helpful in the management of patients with:
     
    A.      Rectal abscesses
    B.      Synovial infections
    C.      Streptococcal pharyngitis
    D.      Pilonidal sinuses
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. An antibiotic used to suppress or kill contaminating fungi in media is:
     
    A.      Amphotericin B
    B.      Penicillin
    C.      Cyclohexamide
    D.      Streptomycin
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Production of beta-lactamase is inducible in which of the following:
     
    A.      Haemophilus influenzae
    B.      Streptococcus pyognenes
    C.      Corynebacterium diphtheriae
    D.      Staphylococcus aureus
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. A sputum specimen is received for culture and gram stain. The gram stained smear from this specimen is seen in the image (total magnification 100x):


     
    The technologist’s best course of action would be to:
     
    A.       Inoculate appropriate media and incubate anaerobically
    B.      Call the patient care area and request a new specimen
    C.      Inoculate appropriate media and incubate aerobically
    D.       Call the physician and notify him of this “life-threatening” situation
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. A technologist is reading a gram stain from a CSF and observes many neutrophils lancet-shaped gram-positive diplococci. Which set of chemistry and hematology CSF results would most likely be seen in someone with this type of infection?
     



































    CSF results

    WBC

    Glucose

    Protein

    A

    Increased

    Increased

    Increased

    B

    Decreased

    Decreased

    Decreased

    C

    Increased

    Decreased

    Increased

    D

    Decreased

    Increased

    Decreased








     
    A.      Result B
    B.       Result C
    C.       Result A
    D.      Result D
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Refer to the following illustration:


     
    Examine the broth microdilution susceptibility test shown above and determine the MIC for gentamicin.
     
    A.      32 ug/mL
    B.       16 ug/mL
    C.      <2 ug/mL
    D.       >64 ug/mL
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Which of the following tests is used to monitor bactericidal activity during antimicrobic therapy in cases of endocarditis?
     
    A.       Sherris synergism
    B.       Elek
    C.      Tolerance
    D.      Schlichter
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Quality control results for disk diffusion susceptibility tests yield the following results: aminoglycoside zones too small and penicillin zones too large. This is most likely due to the:
     
    A.       Inoculum being too heavy
    B.      Inoculum being too light
    C.      calcium and magnesium, concentration in the agar being too high
    D.       pH of Mueller-Hinton agar being too low
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. When using a control strain of Staphylococcus aureus, the technologist notices that the zone around the oxacillin disk is too small. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
     
    A.      Use of outdated oxacillin disks
    B.       Inoculation of the plates 10 minutes after preparing the inoculum
    C.      Incubation of the Mueller-Hinton plates at 35oC
    D.       Use of a 0.25 McFarland standard to prepare inoculum
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. In the disk diffusion method of determining antibiotic susceptibility, the size of the inhibition zone used to indicate susceptibility has been determined by:
     
    A.      Correlating the zone size with the antibiotic content of the disk
    B.       Correlating the zone size with minimum bactericidal concentrations
    C.       Testing 30 strains of 1 genus of bacteria
    D.      Correlating the zone size with minimum inhibitory concentrations
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Which of the following organisms may be mistaken for Neisseria gonorrhoeae in gram stained smears of uterine cervix exudates?
     
    A.       Moraxella osloensis
    B.       Streptococcus agalactiae
    C.       Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    D.       Lactobacillus species
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. A 73-year-old man diagnosed as having pneumococcal meningitis is not responding to his penicillin therapy. Which of the following tests should be performed on the isolate to best determine this organism’s susceptibility to penicillin?
     
    A.      Oxacillin disk diffusion
    B.      Schlichter test
    C.       Beta-lactamase
    D.       Penicillin disk diffusion
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Salmonella enteritidis is isolated from multiple blood cultures in a patient with fever. Susceptibility results are as follows: ampicillin-susceptible, ceftriaxone-susceptible, ciprofloxacin-susceptible, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole-resistant. What is the next step?
     
    A.       Report all of the susceptibility testing results with no changes
    B.      Perform a beta-lactamase test on the isolate before reporting the ampicillin as susceptible
    C.       Test the isolate against nalidixic acid and if resistant report the ciprofloxacin as resistant
    D.      Report gentamicin since the trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole is resistant
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Which of the following antimicrobials would be inappropriate to report on an E coli isolated from a wound culture?
     
    A.      Ampicillin
    B.      Nitrofurantoin
    C.       Cefazolin
    D.       Gentamicin
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. The susceptibility results below are reported on an Enterococcus faecalis isolated from peritoneal fluid.


























    Ampicillin:

    Susceptible

    Vancomycin:

    Resistant

    Clindamycin:

    Susceptible

    Levofloxacin:

    Resistant

    Linezolid:

    Susceptible



    The physician calls questioning the results. Which of the following should have been done before the report was released?
     
    A.      The ampicillin result should have been changed to resistant since the isolate is vancomycin resistant
    B.       The clindamycin result should have been removed from the report since it is inactive against Enterococcus
    C.       The linezolid result should have been removed from the report since it is inactive against Enterococcus
    d.      Ciprofloxacin should have been added to the report since levofloxacin was resistant
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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