Hematology Exam I

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mbailey585
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227789
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Hematology Exam I
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2013-07-21 21:13:26
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Intro Anemia Iron Metabolism Deficiency Sideroblastic Chronic Disease Renal Megaloblastic Body Fluids II
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Hematology Exam I
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  1. Which of the following influence(s) iron absorption?

    a. Amount and type of iron in food
    b. Function of GI mucosa and pancreas
    c. Erythropoietic needs and iron stores
    d. All of the above
    d.
  2. Which of the following depicts the structure of the hemoglobin molecule?

    A. Two heme groups, two globin chains
    B. Two heme groups, four globin chains
    C. Four heme groups, four globin chains
    D. Four heme groups, two globin chains
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which of the following conditions may show a microcytic hypochromic blood smear?

    a. Eearly childhood
    b. Thalassemia
    c. Peptic ulcer with chronic hemorrhage
    d. All of the above
    d.
  4. The Prussian Blue stain on a bone marrow is negative. Which of the following is indicated?

    A. Lead poisoning
    B. Thalassemia minor
    C. Chronic hookworm infection
    D. Anemia associated with rheumatoid                                                                                                                                                                                                                                              arthritis
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. A patient with a vitamin B12 anemia is given a high dose of folate. Which of the following is expectedas a result of this treatment?

    A. Toxicity of the liver and kidneys
    B. An improvement n hematological abnormalities only
    C. An improvement in the neurological problems only
    D. No expected improvement
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. All of the following statements regarding sideroblastic anemias are correct, except:

    A. Sideroblastic anemic diseases result from impaired iron utilization and defective Hgb formation
    B. Can be hereditary or acquired
    C. Treated with pyridoxine to stimulate hemesynthesis
    D. Iron stores in the bone marrow are decreased
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Causes of non-megaloblastic, macrocytic anemias include all of the following except:

    A. Chronic liver disease
    B. Hyperlipidemia
    C. Folate deficiency
    D. Alcoholism
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. A patient has a mild anemia, a normal reticulocyte count, and a normocytic red cells with slight hypochromia on smear. Bone marrow stain shows decreased numbers of sideroblasts and increased storage iron. The most likely diagnosis would be:

    A. Sideroblastic anemia
    B. Thalassemia minor
    C. Anemia of chronic disease
    D. Iron deficiency anemia
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Which of the following is a normochromic, normocytic anemia:

    A. Iron deficiency
    B. Anemia of chronic renal disease
    C. Thalassemia
    D. Sideroblastic anemia
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. A definitive test(s) for the differentiating iron deficiency anemia of chronic disease is:

    A. Serum iron level
    B. Bone marrow stained for iron
    C. Serum ferritin level
    D. A and C, but not B
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Indicate the correct correlation of iron:

    A. Ferritin is stored iron, hemoglobin is transported iron and transferring carries functional iron
    B. Ferritin is stored, hemoglobin is functional iron and transferring carries transported iron
    C. Ferritin is functional iron, hemoglobin is stored iron and transferring carries transported iron
    D. Ferritin is transported iron, hemoglobin is stored and transferring carries functional iron
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Which of the following CBC test parameters are commonly used to help diagnose anemia?

    a. HCT
    b. MCV
    c. Retic
    d. All of the above
    d.
  13. The primary cause of anemia of chronic renal disease is:

    A. Hemolysis resulting from capillary thrombosis
    B. Decreased erythropoietin production
    C. A deficiency of iron
    D. Blood lost in the urine
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Which statement below is correct regarding anemia due to lead poisoning?

    A. Degree of anemia is more pronounced in adults than children
    B. It is a macrocytic anemia, due to the presence of reticulocytes
    C. Retic count is decreased, suggesting a hemolytic component
    D. Large aggregates of basophilic stippling is a classic finding
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. In order for hemoglobin to combine reversibly, with oxygen, the iron must be:

    A. In the ferrous state
    B. Attached to transferring
    C. Complexed with haptoglobin
    D. Freely circulating in the cytoplasm
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. A confirmatory test for differentiating iron deficiency anemia from thalassemia minor is:

    A. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
    B. Retic count
    C. MCV
    D. RBC count
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. True statements about evaluation of bone marrow aspirate smears for the presence of iron include:

    a. Only a small number of blue granules are seen in normal sideroblasts
    b. 30-50% sideroblasts may be seen in normal marrow
    c. Storage iron in the marrow is located in the macrophages
    d. All of the above
    d.
  18. Increase in heart rate and respiratory rate, increased cardiac output and more rapid delivery of blood with reduced oxygen content are symptoms seen when:

    a. There is an increased of erythropoietin secretion by the kidney
    b. An anemia develops slowly
    c. Neither of the above
    d. Both a and b
    b.
  19. Which are characteristic laboratory finding(s) for IDA?

    a. Increased RDW
    b. Decreased MCV, MCH, MCHC
    c. Ovalocytes, elliptocytes, microcytes
    d. All of the above
    d.
  20. All of the following are contributing causes that may lead to IDA, except:

    A. Increased need
    B. Inadequate intake
    C. Chronic blood loss
    D. Antibody to intrinsic factor
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. On average, what percentage of ingested iron is absorbed each day?

    A. 100%
    B. 5% to 10%
    C. 80% to 90%
    D. 25% to 35%
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Megalobastic anemia is associated with:

    A. Ineffective erythropoiesis and increased reticulocytes
    B. Ineffective erythropiesis and decreased absolute restic count
    C. Ineffective erythropoiesis and decreased erythropoietin
    D. Ineffective erythropoiesis and decreased LDH
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. What is the diagnostic value of the reticulocyte count in the evaluation of anemia?

    A. Determines the corrected RBC count after calculation
    B. Determines the response and potential of the bone marrow
    C. Determines the potential sampling error for RBC count
    D. Determines how long the anemia has been progressing
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Macrocytosis associated with megaloblastic anemia results from:

    A. Reduced cell divisions
    B. Activation of a gene that is typically active only in megalokaryocytes
    C. Reduced concentration of Hb in the cells so that larger cells are needed to provide the same oxygen carrying capacity
    D. Reticulocytosis attempting to compensate for the anemia
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. The most common form of sideroblastic anemia is:

    A. Hereditary, autosomal dominant
    B. Hereditary, X-linked
    C. Acquired, lead poisoning
    D. Acquired, alcohol related
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Impaired DNA metabolism is characteristic of

    A. Hemoglobin C disease
    B. Sideroblastic anemia
    C. Folic acid deficiency
    D. Iron deficiency anemia
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. The most common cause of iron deficiency in American women of childbearing years is:

    A. Gastrointestinal bleeding
    B. Urinary excretion
    C. Menstrual bleeding
    D. Dietary insufficiency
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Anemia of chronic disease (inflammation) may be confused initially with iron deficiency anemia because both disorders exhibit:

    A. Elevated reticulocyte counts
    B. Low iron stores in reticuloendothelial cells
    C. Elevated total iron binding capacities
    D. Low serum iron levels
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Signs/symptoms of anemia may include all of the following except:

    A. Pallor of conjuctiva
    B. Tachycardia (rapid pulse or heart rate)
    C. Dizziness (vertigo)
    D. Abdominal pain
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. _____ Howell-Jolly body:

    A. Young red cells which stain diffusely basophilic
    B. Homogeneously disturbed dark-staining, punctate granules seen nin red cells
    C. Prussian Blue positive granules in a nucleated RBC; deposited in mitochondria
    D. A smaller red cell with part if the membrane missing
    E. Mature RBC with irregularly clustered granules; stain positive for Prussian Blue
    F. Represents a nuclear remnant
    F.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. _____ Siderocytes:

    A. Prussian Blue positive granules in a nucleated RBC; deposited in mitochondria
    B. Young red cells which stain diffusely basophilic
    C. A smaller red cell with part if the membrane missing
    D. Homogeneously disturbed dark-staining, punctate granules seen nin red cells
    E. Mature RBC with irregularly clustered granules; stain positive for Prussian Blue
    F. Represents a nuclear remnant
    E.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. _____ Coarse basophilic stippling:

    A. Represents a nuclear remnant
    B. Prussian Blue positive granules in a nucleated RBC; deposited in mitochondria
    C. Homogeneously disturbed dark-staining, punctate granules seen nin red cells
    D. Young red cells which stain diffusely basophilic
    E. Mature RBC with irregularly clustered granules; stain positive for Prussian Blue
    F. A smaller red cell with part if the membrane missing
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. _____ Ringed sideroblast:

    A. Young red cells which stain diffusely basophilic
    B. Homogeneously disturbed dark-staining, punctate granules seen nin red cells
    C. Prussian Blue positive granules in a nucleated RBC; deposited in mitochondria
    D. Represents a nuclear remnant
    E. Mature RBC with irregularly clustered granules; stain positive for Prussian Blue
    F. A smaller red cell with part if the membrane missing
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. _____ Polychromatophilic RBC:

    A. Homogeneously disturbed dark-staining, punctate granules seen nin red cells
    B. Mature RBC with irregularly clustered granules; stain positive for Prussian Blue
    C. A smaller red cell with part if the membrane missing
    D. Represents a nuclear remnant
    E. Young red cells which stain diffusely basophilic
    F. Prussian Blue positive granules in a nucleated RBC; deposited in mitochondria
    E.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. A patient with an MCV of 107 fL, hypersegmented neutrophils, and markedly decreased intrinsic factor, would most likely have which of the following red cell inclusions?

    A. Hgb crystals
    B. Howell-Jolly bodies
    C. Siderotic granules
    D. Heinz bodies
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Elevation of which of the following points to reduced rbc life span and a hemolytic anemia:

    A. MCV
    B. Hgb
    C. Hct
    D. Reticulocyte count 
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Anemia secondary to uremia characteristically is:

    A. Macrocytic
    B. Microcytic, hypochromic
    C. Normocytic, normochromic
    D. Hemolytic
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. A schilling test gives the following results:

    Part I: 2% excretion of radioactive vitamin B12 (normal = 5%-35%)
    Part II: 8% excretion of radioactive B12 after intrinsic factor was given with vitamin B12 (normal = 7%-10%)

    The results indicate:

    A. Blind loop syndrome
    B. Tropical Sprue
    C. Pernicious anemia
    D. Transcobalamin anemia
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Which of the following laboratory findings coincide with megaloblastic anemia?

    a. Increased serum bilirubin
    b. Increased serum iron
    c. Increased LDH
    d. All of the above
    d.
  40. A set symptoms accompanying iron deficiency anemia which encompasses strange cravings, including clay or cornstarch, is known as:

    A. Petechiae
    B. Dyspnea
    C. Glossitis
    D. Pica
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. There is an anemia that develops because the bone marrow becomes scarred. As a result the amount of active bone marrow is diminished, including RBC precursors. The cells that are present are normal, but there are too few to meet the demand for blood cells, and anemia develops. The reticulocyte count is low. This anemia would be described as:

    A. Insufficient erythropoiesis
    B. Extramedullary erythropoiesis
    C. Effective erythropoiesis
    D. Ineffective erythropoiesis
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. A 50-year old patient is suffering from pernicious anemia. Which of the following laboratory data are most likely on this patient?

    WBC PLT
    A. 12,500/uL (12.5 x 109/L) 250,000/uL (250 x 109/L)
    B. 2,500/uL (2.5 x 109/L) 50,000/uL (50 x 109/L)
    C. 5,000/uL (5.0 x 109/L) 750,000/uL (750 x 109/L)
    D. 6,500/uL (6.5 x 109/L) 80,000/uL (80 x 109/L)
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Acquired reversible sideroblastic anemias are associated with all the following except:

    A. Isoniazid treatment
    B. Chloramphenical use
    C. Thalassemia major
    D. Acute alcohol ingestion
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Laboratory features of megaloblastic anemia include all of the following except:

    A. High M:E ratio
    B. Thrombocytopenia
    C. Hypersegmented neutrophils
    D. Giant bands and metamyelocytes
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. What are two major categories of iron deficiency?

    A. Defective RBC catabolism and recovery of iron
    B. Problems with transport and storage of iron
    C. Defects in globin synthesis and iron incorporation
    D. Low availability and increased loss of iron
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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