Bio 112 Final

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Bio 112 Final
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  1. Chemical equations must be balanced:

    A)To obey the law of conservation of matter

    B)To obey the law of conservation of energy

    C)So the right amount of products will react to form reactants

    D)To prevent an exothermic reaction
    A)To obey the law of conservation of matter
  2. Because of water's polar nature:

    A)water molecules form hydrogen bonds between one another

    B)water is a good solvent for charged or polar molecules

    C)water is an excellent temperature buffer

    D)water is a reactant or product in many chemical reactions

    E)all of the above
    E)all of the above
  3. Isotopes:

    A)may be radioactive

    B)atoms of an element that differ in their number of neutrons

    C)atoms of an element that differ in their atomic mass

    D)Choices a, b, and c are all correct
    D)Choices a, b, and c are all correct
  4. What is the difference between an acid and a base?

    A)an acid has a higher concentration of hydrogen (H+) ions and a base has a higher concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-)

    B)an acid has a higher concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) and a base has a higher concentration of hydrogen ions (H+)

    C)acids have a pH less than 7 and bases have a pH greater than 7

    D)acids are hydrogen ion acceptors and bases are hydrogen ion donors

    E)both A and C are correct
    E)both A and C are correct
  5. What factor distinguishes organic compounds from inorganic compounds?

    A)organic compounds are not found in living things

    B)organic compounds are naturally occurring

    C)all organic compounds are made of the elements carbon and hydrogen

    D)organic compounds cannot be made in the lab
    C)all organic compounds are made of the elements carbon and hydrogen
  6. Any scientific study or investigation first begins with _____.

    A)a hypothesis

    B)observation

    C)conclusions

    D)experimentation
    B)observation
  7. "Good" biology is:

    A)the study of life

    B)an experiment that works

    C)when animals are not harmed during testing

    D)based on proof and is an ongoing process of testing and evaluation

    E)none of the above
    D)based on proof and is an ongoing process of testing and evaluation
  8. Where is most of the mass of an atom found?

    A)protons

    B)nucleus

    C)electrons

    D)neutrons
    B)nucleus
  9. Which of the following is true about hydrogen, carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen?

    A)they are all man made

    B)they are not naturally occurring

    C)they are the most abundant elements

    D)they are not found in living organisms
    C)they are the most abundant elements
  10. Which part of the atom is involved in chemical bonding?

    A)only the protons

    B)only the nucleus

    C)only the 1st energy level electrons

    D)only the outer energy level (valence) electrons
    D)only the outer energy level (valence) electrons
  11. Which of the following is NOT a property of an inorganic compound?

    A)lack carbon atoms

    B)usually form ionic bonds

    C)usually small and simple in structure

    D)found in very high percentages in living organisms
    D)found in very high percentages in living organisms
  12. Why does water form polar molecules?

    A)water molecules are polar molecules because it is an ionic compound made of positive hydrogen ions and negative oxygen ions

    B)water molecules are polar molecules because the oxygen pulls the electron away from hydrogen making the hydrogen positive and the oxygen negative

    C)water molecules are polar because there is an unequal sharing of the electron pair in the covalent bond.  The shared pair of electrons are closer to the oxygen atom then they are to the hydrogen atom, thereby giving the oxygen a slight negative charge and the hydrogen atom a slight positive charge

    D)water molecules are polar because the oxygen atom has more electrons then the hydrogen atom.  So this gives the oxygen negative charge and the hydrogen has one proton so it has a positive charge
    C)water molecules are polar because there is an unequal sharing of the electron pair in the covalent bond.  The shared pair of electrons are closer to the oxygen atom then they are to the hydrogen atom, thereby giving the oxygen a slight negative charge and the hydrogen atom a slight positive charge
  13. What geometric shape does water form in zero gravity?

    A)a cube

    B)a sphere

    C)a tetrahedron

    D)a cylinder
    B)a sphere
  14. A salt is define as:

    A)an organic compound

    B)substance made of long chains of carbon atoms

    C)a substance that forms ions in water, but is not an acid or a base

    D)compound only produced when sodium metal reacts with chlorine gas
    C)a substance that forms ions in water, but is not an acid or a base
  15. When an acidic ionic compound dissolves in water the atoms of the compound will dissociate and form cations and anions.  In an acidic compound, which of the following ion concentrations will increase in the water as the acidic compound dissolves?

    A)carbon

    B)oxygen

    C)hydroxide

    D)hydrogen
    D)hydrogen
  16. If you dissolve an ionic compound in water and it releases hydroxide ions, what will that do to the pH of the solution?

    A)the solutions pH will become more basic

    B)the solutions pH will become more acidic

    C)the solutions pH will not change

    D)this will cause the solutions pH to become neutral
    A)the solutions pH will become more basic
  17. In liquid water, the force of attraction of the oxygen on one water molecule can pull a hydrogen atom away from another water molecule.  What happens when this occurs?

    A)this causes the two water molecules to bond together into one molecule

    B)this causes the formation of hydronium (H3O+) ions and hydroxide (OH-) ions

    C)this causes the two water molecules to become water vapor and bubble out into the atmosphere

    D)none of the above
    B)this causes the formation of hydronium (H3O+) ions and hydroxide (OH-) ions
  18. Which of the following is NOT true about chemical reactions?

    A)new substances are formed

    B)reactants produce products

    C)energy may be released or absorbed during

    D)reactants will have the same chemical and physical properties as the products
    D)reactants will have the same chemical and physical properties as the products
  19. Which of the following is NOT true about carbon?

    A)cannot bond to itself

    B)very chemically reactive

    C)form covalent bonds very easily

    D)forms 3D shapes that produce biological activity
    A)cannot bond to itself
  20. Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide contain carbon, but they are not considered to be organic compounds.  Why are CO2 and CO not considered organic compounds?

    A)they both do not also contain nitrogen

    B)they do not contain carbon and hydrogen

    C)they do not contain oxygen and hydrogen

    D)they are organic because they contain carbon and that is all a compound needs to be considered organic
    B)they do not contain carbon and hydrogen
  21. The gel-like substance contained by the plasma membrane and surrounds the organelles is the:

    A)cytosol

    B)cytoplasm

    C)cytoskeleton

    D)water
    A)cytosol
  22. Animal and plant cells have most things in common except:

    A)cell wall, a large central vacuole, and plastids

    B)ribosomes, DNA and RNA

    C)golgi apparatus, DNA and RNA

    D)endoplasmic reticulum, golgi apparatus, and cytoplasm
    A)cell wall, a large central vacuole, and plastids
  23. The structure that regulates what enters and leaves the cell is called:

    A)the nucleus

    B)the Golgi

    C)the nuclear membrane

    D)the cell (plasma) membrane
    D)the cell (plasma) membrane
  24. Cells can take on a variety of shapes with the help of support structures inside the cell.  The cell organelles are also suspended within the cell and the chromosomes are also moved around during cell division, how is this possible?

    A)a network of fibers called the cytoskeleton provides structure, support, and facilitates movement within the cell

    B)a system of flattened, membrane-bound sacs facilitates cell movement and gives the cell its shape

    C)a rigid structure surrounding the outer wall produces the cell movement

    D)transport proteins within the plasma membrane facilitates the movement and provides structure and support for the cell
    A)a network of fibers called the cytoskeleton provides structure, support, and facilitates movement within the cell
  25. The main function of the ribosome is:

    A)to chemically label immature proteins and send them to various locations in the cell

    B)digesting the contents of the vesicle

    C)to aid in the production of proteins

    D)to facilitate (aid in) cell division
    C)to aid in the production of proteins
  26. The scientist who showed that plants are composed of cells

    A)Theodor Schwann

    B)Matthias Schleidan

    C)Oswald Avery

    D)Robert Griffith
    B)Matthias Schleidan
  27. The process of depositing a vesicle's contents outside of the cell is termed:

    A)endocytosis

    B)phagocytosis

    C)lysosomal digestion

    D)exocytosis
    D)exocytosis
  28. A dense region in the nucleus where ribosomal RNA is produced:

    A)a nucleolus

    B)the endoplasmic reticulum

    C)the Golgi apparatus

    D)the mitochondria
    A)a nucleolus
  29. This cell structure is composed of two layers of phospholipids with proteins embedded into the layers of phospholipids.  It is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells and it is said to be selectively permeable.

    A)cell wall

    B)endoplasmic reticulum

    C)chloroplast

    D)plasma membrane
    D)plasma membrane
  30. The scientist who discovered that cells divide to produce new cells was:

    A)Theodor Schwann

    B)Matthias Schleidan

    C)Oswald Avery

    D)Rudolf Virchow
    D)Rudolf Virchow
  31. What is the function of the nucleus?

    A)produce proteins

    B)modifies proteins

    C)produces energy for the cell

    D)houses the DNA
    D)houses the DNA
  32. The scientist who showed that animals were composed of cells:

    A)Theodor Schwann

    B)Matthias Schleidan

    C)Oswald Avery

    D)Robert Griffith
    A)Theodor Schwann
  33. Golgi apparatus are a series of membrane bound sac-like organelles that:

    A)function during photosynthesis

    B)produces energy by breaking down sugars

    C)modifies proteins taken in from the endoplasmic reticulum to make them a functional protein

    D)all of the above
    C)modifies proteins taken in from the endoplasmic reticulum to make them a functional protein
  34. The cytosol and all the cell organelles inside the cell are collectively called the:

    A)cell

    B)basic unit of life

    C)cytoplasm

    D)organism
    C)cytoplasm
  35. The term used to describe DNA and its associated proteins within the nucleus of the eukaryotic cell.

    A)chromosomes

    B)chromatin

    C)ribosome

    D)nucleoplasm
    B)chromatin
  36. Which cell structure functions by producing energy in a form that can be used by the cell?

    A)ribosome

    B)mitochondria

    C)chloroplast

    D)nucleus
    B)mitochondria
  37. Which of the following cell structure DOES NOT have a membrane made up of two layers (bilayer) of phospholipids?

    A)Golgi

    B)nucleus

    C)endoplasmic reticulum

    D)they all have phospholipid bilayers
    D)they all have phospholipid bilayers
  38. Which cell structure is responsible for the production of the digestive enzymes found in lysosomes?

    A)Golgi

    B)ribosome

    C)mitochondria

    D)endoplasmic reticulum
    A)Golgi
  39. Which of the following is an example of passive transport?

    A)osmosis

    B)facilitated diffusion

    C)simple diffusion of alcohol through the plasma membrane

    D)all of the above
    D)all of the above
  40. This must be present if diffusion is going to occur?

    A)a concentration gradient

    B)an isotonic environment

    C)a living cell

    D)all of the above
    A)a concentration gradient
  41. Which of the following molecules could easily pass through the plasma membrane by simple diffusion?

    A)hydrophobic gases such as O2 and CO2

    B)ions such as Na+, Cl-, and K+

    C)large uncharged polar molecules such as glucose

    D)all of the above will easily pass through the plasma membrane
    A)hydrophobic gases such as O2 and CO2
  42. In receptor-mediated endocytosis, all of the following are true except:

    A)occurs at clathrin coated pits on the plasma membrane

    B)used to export large molecules from the cell

    C)involves the attachment of large molecules to specific receptors located on the external surface of the plasma membrane

    D)used to import large molecules from the outside of the cell
    B)used to export large molecules from the cell
  43. The type of endocytosis that a macrophage uses to engulf a bacterial cell or an amoeba uses to take in a food particle:

    A)phagocytosis

    B)phinocytosis

    C)receptor mediated endocytosis

    D)all of the above
    A)phagocytosis
  44. Which two substances can NOT pass through the plasma membrane by simple diffusion?

    A)H2O & O2

    B)H2O & Na+

    C)K+ & Cl-

    D)none of the above can move through by simple diffusion
    C)K+ & Cl-
  45. Which type of active transport directly uses ATP to transport substances across the plasma membrane?

    A)primary active transport

    B)secondary active transport

    C)tertiary active transport

    D)passive active transport

    E)facilitated active transport
    A)primary active transport
  46. Both endocytosis and exocytosis are used to transport large particles, macromolecules, and fluids across the plasma membrane.  This type of transport is referred to as:

    A)passive transport

    B)facilitated transport

    C)vesicular transport

    D)primary active transport

    E)secondary active transport
    C)vesicular transport
  47. The type of endocytosis known as "cellular drinking", where the cell takes in extracellular fluid:

    A)phagocytosis

    B)phinocytosis

    C)receptor mediated endocytosis

    D)none of the above
    B)phinocytosis
  48. When an enzyme is non competitively inhibited:

    A)substrate binding is blocked because another molecule has bound to its binding site on the enzyme

    B)it functions at a higher rate and at greater temperatures than it would normally

    C)substrate binding is prevented because another molecule has bound to the enzyme at an allosteric binding site and changed the structure of the enzyme substrate binding site

    D)the enzyme can not function because it has been denatured (broken down) completely
    C)substrate binding is prevented because another molecule has bound to the enzyme at an allosteric binding site and changed the structure of the enzyme substrate binding site
  49. Which of the following is true about cell respiration?

    A)does not occur in plant cells

    B)only occurs in the mitochondria

    C)uses only sugars to produce ATP energy

    D)occurs in all organisms that use organic compounds, such as sugars and fats, to produce ATP energy
    D)occurs in all organisms that use organic compounds, such as sugars and fats, to produce ATP energy
  50. The cell structure(s) where aerobic cell respiration takes place:

    A)cytoplasm

    B)nucleus

    C)mitochondria

    D)both B & C only

    E)both A & C only
    E)both A & C only
  51. When a spring driven watch is wound and the watch begins to run, we see an example of:

    A)energy being destroyed

    B)kinetic energy slowly converting to potential energy

    C)potential energy slowly converting to kinetic energy

    D)both choice A & choice B are occurring
    C)potential energy slowly converting to kinetic energy
  52. The series of chemical reactions that occur in glycolysis of cell respiration are an example of:

    A)feedback inhibition

    B)a metabolic pathway

    C)cell respiration

    D)receptor-mediated endocytosis
    B)a metabolic pathway
  53. Which statement is NOT true about ATP?

    A)contains three high-energy phosphate molecules

    B)the energy molecule used by all living organisms

    C)contains potential energy in the form of chemical energy

    D)when ATP releases energy it becomes ADP, which cannot be converted back to ATP

    E)all of the above are true about ATP
    D)when ATP releases energy it becomes ADP, which cannot be converted back to ATP
  54. Which of the following is NOT a function of ATP?

    A)building blocks of proteins

    B)supply energy for muscle contractions

    C)supply energy for synthesis of macromolecules

    D)supply energy for active transport of substances across the plasma membrane
    A)building blocks of proteins
  55. When the cars of a roller coaster pause at the top of a hill for a second then start to move down the hill we see an example of:

    A)the first law of thermodynamics

    B)kinetic energy converting to potential energy

    C)potential energy converting to kinetic energy

    D)both A & C are correct
    D)both A & C are correct
  56. Chemical reactions that have negative free energy are called _____ reactions.

    A)exergonic

    B)endergonic

    C)endothermic

    D)synthesis
    A)exergonic
  57. What has occurred when an enzyme is competitively inhibited?

    A)the enzyme functions at a higher rate and at greater temperature than it would normally

    B)the enzyme cannot function because it has been denatured (broken down) completely

    C)substrate binding is blocked because another molecule has bound to its binding site on the enzyme

    D)substrate binding is prevented because another molecule has bound to the enzyme at an allosteric binding site and changed the structure of the enzyme substrate binding site
    C)substrate binding is blocked because another molecule has bound to its binding site on the enzyme
  58. In the generation of ATP, when a phosphate group is transferred directly to ADP from another compound to form ATP it is called:

    A)substrate level phosphorylation

    B)oxidative level phosphorylation

    C)photophosphorylation

    D)active phosphorylation
    A)substrate level phosphorylation
  59. If the products of a chemical reaction have more energy than the initial reactants then the reactions is classified as a ______ reaction.

    A)exergonic

    B)endergonic

    C)exothermic

    D)decomposition
    B)endergonic
  60. As the concentration of one of the products at or near the end of a metabolic pathway increases it begins to shut down the metabolic pathway.  This is an example of:

    A)competitive inhibition

    B)noncompetitive inhibition

    C)feedback inhibition

    D)competitive induction
    C)feedback inhibition
  61. An oxidation reaction that involves the movement of a hydrogen ion and electron is called:

    A)anabolism

    B)dehydrogenation

    C)oxidative phosphorylation

    D)reduction
    B)dehydrogenation
  62. In aerobic cell respiration the majority of ATP is formed by chemiosmosis.  In this process electrons are passed down a chain of proteins with oxygen being the final electron acceptor.  This passing of electrons causes hydrogen ions to be transported across a membrane.  The subsequent movement of the hydrogen ions back across the membrane through ATP synthase proteins results in the formation of ATP.  This is an example of:

    A)oxidative phosphorylation

    B)substrate level phosphorylation

    C)active transport

    D)both choice A & B are correct
    A)oxidative phosphorylation
  63. Which of the following is the correct equation for aerobic cell respiration?

    A)6H20+6CO2+ATP-->C6H12O6+6O2

    B)C6H12O6+6CO2-->+6O2+6H2O+ATP

    C)6H20+6CO2+6O2-->C6H12O6+ATP

    D)C6H12O6+6O2-->6H2O+6CO2+ATP
    D)C6H12O6+6O2-->6H2O+6CO2+ATP
  64. The reason we cannot live without oxygen is:

    A)the Krebs cycle will not function without oxygen being present

    B)because sugar cannot be broken down in glycolysis without oxygen

    C)because we must use it to make lactic acid so our muscles will contract

    D)oxygen is used to make water as the final electron acceptor in electron transport chain of cell respiration
    D)oxygen is used to make water as the final electron acceptor in electron transport chain of cell respiration
  65. What are the two common end products of anaerobic cell respiration?

    A)ethanol and acetone

    B)lactic acid and ethanol

    C)glucose and ethanol

    D)lactic acid and water
    B)lactic acid and ethanol
  66. Occurs in the cristae of the inner membrane of the mitochondria:

    A)acetyl CoA

    B)electron transport chain

    C)glycolysis

    D)Krebs cycle
    B)electron transport chain
  67. Occurs in the matrix (inner space) of the mitochondria:

    A)acetyl CoA

    B)electron transport chain

    C)glycolysis

    D)Krebs cycle
    D)Krebs cycle
  68. Glucose is broken down into two, three carbon pyruvate molecules:

    A)acetyl CoA

    B)electron transport chain

    C)glycolysis

    D)Krebs cycle
    D)Krebs cycle
  69. What pyruvate must be converted to before it enters the Krebs cycle:

    A)acetyl CoA

    B)electron transport chain

    C)glycolysis

    D)Krebs cycle
    A)acetyl CoA
  70. The only step used by both aerobic and anaerobic organisms:

    A)acetyl CoA

    B)electron transport chain

    C)glycolysis

    D)Krebs cycle
    C)glycolysis
  71. Uses hydrogen ions and electrons from NADH and FADH2 to produce a large amount of ATP:

    A)acetyl CoA

    B)electron transport chain

    C)glycolysis

    D)Krebs cycle
    B)electron transport chain
  72. Step in cell respiration where oxygen is used as the final electron acceptor:

    A)acetyl CoA

    B)electron transport chain

    C)glycolysis

    D)Krebs cycle
    B)electron transport chain
  73. Results in the complete breakdown of pyruvate of CO2, which is then given off:

    A)acetyl CoA

    B)electron transport chain

    C)glycolysis

    D)Krebs cycle
    D)Krebs cycle
  74. The two steps that do not occur in anaerobic organisms or in your muscle cells when oxygen is low or not present:

    A)acetyl CoA

    B)electron transport chain

    C)glycolysis

    D)Krebs cycle
    • B)electron transport chain
    • D)Krebs cycle
  75. Also known as the TCA or citric acid cycle and it is the second step in aerobic cell respiration:

    A)acetyl CoA

    B)electron transport chain

    C)glycolysis

    D)Krebs cycle
    D)Krebs cycle
  76. Which term defines autotrophs, for example those that live in deep sea thermal vents, that have the ability to make glucose by oxidizing inorganic compounds such as iron and sulfur compounds?

    A)photoautotroph

    B)heterotroph

    C)herbivore

    D)chemoautotroph
    D)chemoautotroph
  77. Which wavelengths of light are used the most by photosynthetic organisms?

    A)green

    B)only yellow and orange

    C)ultraviolet and infrared

    D)colors on the red and blue ends of the spectrum
    D)colors on the red and blue ends of the spectrum
  78. Within which cell layer(s) of the leaf does photosynthesis occur?

    A)spongy cell layer

    B)palisade cell layer

    C)cuticle cell layer

    D)lower epidermis

    E)A & B only
    E)A & B only
  79. In the chloroplast, where do light dependent reactions of photosynthesis take place?

    A)inner membrane of chloroplast

    B)outer membrane of chloroplast

    C)stroma of the chloroplast

    D)thylakoid membranes within the chloroplast
    D)thylakoid membranes within the chloroplast
  80. In photosynthesis the sugar glucose, C6H12O6 is produced.  Where does the oxygen in glucose come from?

    A)from water

    B)from NADPH

    C)from carbon dioxide 

    D)from the atmosphere
    C)from carbon dioxide
  81. Special areas in the thylakoid membranes that contain chlorophyll atoms, which become excited and loose electrons when the absorb specific wavelengths of light:

    A)grana

    B)photosystem I

    C)electron carrier proteins

    D)photosystem II

    E)both B & D
    E)both B & D
  82. Molecules of DNA are composed of many:

    A)amino acids

    B)fatty acids

    C)nucleotides

    D)nucleosomes
    C)nucleotides
  83. The DNA molecule resembles a winding staircase.  It has also been described as a ladder.  What molecules make up the sides of the DNA staircase (ladder)?

    A)the nitrogen bases

    B)one nitrogen base bonded to the deoxyribose sugar

    C)alternating phosphate groups bonded to deoxyribose sugars

    D)phosphate groups bonded to a nitrogen base
    C)alternating phosphate groups bonded to deoxyribose sugars
  84. The functional unit for packaging DNA into chromosomes is called a ______ unit.

    A)histome

    B)nucleotide

    C)ribosome

    D)nucleosome
    D)nucleosome
  85. Cells spend most of their life in:

    A)G2 phase

    B)mitosis

    C)S phase

    D)G1 phase
    D)G1 phase
  86. Uses light energy, CO2, and H2O to make sugars such as glucose and gives off O2:

    A)light dependent reactions

    B)light independent reactions

    C)both light dependent and light independent reactions
    C)both light dependent and light independent reactions
  87. CO2, NADPH, and APT are used to form the sugar glucose:

    A)light dependent reactions

    B)light independent reactions

    C)both light dependent and light independent reactions
    B)light independent reactions
  88. Occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast:

    A)light dependent reactions

    B)light independent reactions

    C)both light dependent and light independent reactions
    B)light independent reactions
  89. Electrons from chlorophyl ions in photosystem I and hydrogen ions (H+) from water are used to reduce NADP+ to form NADPH:

    A)light dependent reactions

    B)light independent reactions

    C)both light dependent and light independent reactions
    A)light dependent reactions
  90. Water is split into H+ and O- ions and electrons from the hydrogen ions are used to reduce chlorophyll ions back to stable chlorophyll and oxygen is released as O2 gas:

    A)light dependent reactions

    B)light independent reactions

    C)both light dependent and light independent reactions
    A)light dependent reactions
  91. CO2 is used to form the sugar glucose:

    A)light dependent reactions

    B)light independent reactions

    C)both light dependent and light independent reactions
    B)light independent reactions
  92. Reactions that occur within the chloroplast of mesophyll cells in plant leaves:

    A)light dependent reactions

    B)light independent reactions

    C)both light dependent and light independent reactions
    C)both light dependent and light independent reactions
  93. Oxygen is produced:

    A)light dependent reactions

    B)light independent reactions

    C)both light dependent and light independent reactions
    A)light dependent reactions
  94. An enzyme embedded in the thylakoid membrane (ATP synthase) is used to produce ATP as hydrogen ions (H+) move through it from the inside of the thylakoid to the outside of the thylakoid membrane:

    A)light dependent reactions

    B)light independent reactions

    C)both light dependent and light independent reactions
    A)light dependent reactions
  95. Photosystems I and II are used:

    A)light dependent reactions

    B)light independent reactions

    C)both light dependent and light independent reactions
    A)light dependent reactions
  96. In which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

    A)G2 phase

    B)mitosis

    C)S phase

    D)G0 phase
    C)S phase
  97. Cells that will no longer divide, leave the cell cycle, and are said to be in:

    A)G0 phase

    B)G2 phase

    C)S phase

    D)G1 phase
    A)G0 phase
  98. DNA replication occurs:

    A)on ribosomes

    B)in the nucleus of the cell

    C)in the cytoplasm

    D)in the nucleolus within the nucleus
    B)in the nucleus of the cell
  99. The enzyme responsible for adding nucleotide units (A, T, C, G) to the "unzipped" DNA molecule during DNA replication is:

    A)nuclease

    B)helicase

    C)DNA replicase

    D)DNA polymerase
    D)DNA polymerase
  100. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle starting with interphase?

    A)M---G2--S--G1

    B)G1--S--G2--M

    C)G1--S--M--G2

    D)S--G1--G2--M
    B)G1--S--G2--M
  101. Visible chromosomes are always seen:

    A)as long thin single strands

    B)in the form of a circle

    C)as two packed copies of DNA

    D)attached to the cell wall
    C)as two packed copies of DNA
  102. In a bacterium, cell division takes place when:

    A)its nucleus divides, then a cell wall forms between the two nuclei

    B)the DNA is copied and the cell splits into two cells, one of which receives all of the DNA

    C)the DNA is copied, a new cell wall forms between the DNA copies, and the cell splits into two cells

    D)the DNA is copied, a new cell wall forms between the DNA copies, and the cell splits into four cells
    C)the DNA is copied, a new cell wall forms between the DNA copies, and the cell splits into two cells
  103. At the end of mitosis, which statement is true?

    A)the two new cells contain half the DNA of the original cell and enter G1 of the cell cycle

    B)the two new cells are genetically different and contain half the DNA of the original cell

    C)the two new cells enter G2 of the cell cycle and contain the same amount of DNA as the original cell

    D)the two new cells contain the same amount of DNA as the original cell and the DNA is genetically identical to that of the original cell

    E)the two new cells enter S phase of the cell cycle and then divide again
    D)the two new cells contain the same amount of DNA as the original cell and the DNA is genetically identical to that of the original cell
  104. In which phase of the cell cycle does the cell produce the proteins it needs for mitosis?

    A)G1 phase

    B)G2 phase

    C)S phase

    D)G0 phase
    B)G2 phase
  105. In plant cells cytokinesis occurs when:

    A)the chromosomes make exact copies of themselves

    B)spindle fibers are formed

    C)a new cell wall forms between the two sets of chromosomes

    D)the plant cell loses water and the pressure becomes too low
    C)a new cell wall forms between the two sets of chromosomes
  106. Griffith's experiment showed that:

    A)dead bacteria could still make humans sick

    B)harmful bacteria were hardier than harmless bacteria

    C)genetic material could be transferred between dead bacteria and living bacteria

    D)heat caused harmful and harmless varieties of bacteria to fuse
    C)genetic material could be transferred between dead bacteria and living bacteria
  107. Hershey and Chase investigated the nature of the genetic material by conducting experiments that involved:

    A)bacteria and mice

    B)bacteria that infect viruses

    C)human DNA injected into mice

    D)viruses that infect bacteria
    D)viruses that infect bacteria
  108. The experiments of which scientist(s) showed without a doubt that DNA was the genetic material?

    A)Hershey and Chase

    B)Watson and Crick

    C)Fredrick Griffith

    D)Oswald Avery and his colleagues
    A)Hershey and Chase
  109. What year was the Nobel Prize awarded for the discovery of the structure of the DNA molecule?

    A)1953

    B)1958

    C)1962

    D)1999
    C)1962
  110. The understanding of the molecular processes use to copy the DNA code for a protein into RNA and then "read" the RNA into a protein is called the central dogma of molecular biology.  What is the order of the four stages to the central dogma of molecular biology?

    A)Translation Replication Transcription RNA processing

    B)Replication Transcription Translation RNA processing

    C)Transcription RNA processing Translation Replication

    D)Replication Translation RNA processing Transcription

    E)Replication Transcription RNA processing Translation
    E)Replication Transcription RNA processing Translation
  111. During transcription:

    A)proteins are made

    B)RNA molecules are produced

    C)DNA is replicated

    D)translation occurs
    B)RNA molecules are produced
  112. Translation (protein synthesis) occurs:

    A)in the cytoplasm of the cell

    B)in the nucleus of the cell

    C)in the nucleolus within the nucleus

    D)all of the above
    A)in the cytoplasm of the cell
  113. DNA recombination includes:

    A)isolation, removal, and purification of a foreign gene

    B)the isolation and reproduction of transformed bacteria

    C)transfer of plasmid or viral DNA into bacteria or other cells

    D)the production of large quantities of the cells containing new gene

    E)transfer of a foreign gene into a bacterial plasmid producing recombinant DNA
    E)transfer of a foreign gene into a bacterial plasmid producing recombinant DNA
  114. The general term that describes the use of genetically modified organisms to clean up contaminated environments, such as crude oil "eating" bacteria:

    A)biodetoxification

    B)biodegradable

    C)biodecontamination

    D)bioremediation
    D)bioremediation
  115. The type of RNA that is copied from DNA found in the nucleolus region within the nucleus and when it exits the nucleus it binds to proteins to form an RNA-Protein sub unit:

    A)mRNA

    B)tRNA

    C)nRNA

    D)rRNA
    D)rRNA
  116. Before mRNA leaves the nucleus, which of the following is NOT part of the RNA processing that occurs:

    A)all introns are spliced out

    B)a poly-A tail is added to 3' end

    C)all exons are spliced out

    D)a guanine cap is added to 5' end

    E)all of the above can occur during mRNA processing
    C)all exons are spliced out
  117. The production of RNA occurs:

    A)in the cytoplasm of the cell

    B)in the nucleus of the cell

    C)on the ribosomes

    D)all of the above
    B)in the nucleus of the cell
  118. The type of RNA, that after leaving the nucleus folds into a three-dimensional structure by base pairing with itself and then binds to amino acids in the cytosol:

    A)mRNA

    B)tRNA

    C)nRNA

    D)rRNA
    B)tRNA
  119. Which cell(s) is (are) diploid in chromosome number?

    A)onion root tip cells

    B)your gametes

    C)skin cells

    D)an unfertilized egg

    E)both A & C are correct
    E)both A & C are correct
  120. Meiosis I results in:

    A)the formation of 2 cells, each with half the original number of single stranded chromosomes

    B)the formation of 4 cells, each with half of the original number of double stranded chromosomes

    C)the formation of 2 cells, each with half the original number of double stranded chromosomes

    D)the formation of 4 cells each with half the original number of single stranded chromosomes
    C)the formation of 2 cells, each with half the original number of double stranded chromosomes
  121. During which phase of meiosis do you find homologous chromosomes exchanging DNA segments?

    A)prophase II

    B)metaphase II

    C)anaphase II

    D)prophase I

    E)anaphase I
    D)prophase I
  122. Meiosis II results in:

    A)the formation of 4 cells, each with the diploid number of single stranded chromosomes

    B)the formation of 2 cells, each with the haploid number of double stranded chromosomes

    C)the formation of 2 cells, each with the diploid number of double stranded chromosomes

    D)the formation of 4 cells each with the haploid number of single stranded chromosomes
    D)the formation of 4 cells each with the haploid number of single stranded chromosomes
  123. The phase of meiosis where tetrads (homologous chromosomes) line-up at the center of the cell:

    A)prophase II

    B)metaphase I

    C)metaphase II

    D)anaphase II

    E)telophase I
    B)metaphase I
  124. The phase of meiosis that results in four cells each having single stranded chromosomes:

    A)prophase II

    B)metaphase I

    C)anaphase I

    D)telophase I

    E)telophase II
    E)telophase II
  125. Phase of meiosis where replicated chromosomes become visible and homologs chromosomes pair-up:

    A)prophase I

    B)prophase II

    C)metaphase I

    D)anaphase II

    E)telophase II
    A)prophase I
  126. The phase of meiosis where homologs chromosomes separate and are pulled to opposite sides of the cell by spindle fibers:

    A)prophase I

    B)metaphase II

    C)anaphase I

    D)anaphase II

    E)telophase I
    C)anaphase I
  127. Believed that each sperm contained a homunculus (preformed human), which grew into the baby when placed in the female womb:

    A)Aristotle

    B)ovists

    C)blending theory

    D)Hippocrates

    E)spermists
    E)spermists
  128. Believed that "seeds" were produced by various body parts and were transmitted to that offspring during conception:

    A)Aristotle

    B)ovists

    C)pangenesis

    D)Hippocrates

    E)spermists
    D)Hippocrates
  129. Believed that the mixing of sperm and egg resulted in offspring that were a blend of the parent's genetic traits:

    A)Aristotle

    B)ovists

    C)blending theory

    D)pangenesis

    E)hippocrates
    C)blending theory
  130. Believe that a preformed human was in the egg and sperm merely stimulated its growth:

    A)Aristotle

    B)ovists

    C)blending theory

    D)spermists
    B)ovists
  131. In the 20th century biotechnology was used during the cold war to:

    A)produce beer and wine

    B)clone whole organisms

    C)develop biological weapons

    D)produce antibiotics
    C)develop biological weapons
  132. Which field(s) of science has (have) been the most influential in bringing biotechnology to the point it is today?

    A)biochemistry

    B)microbiology

    C)molecular biology

    D)both B & C
    D)both B & C
  133. DNA recombinant technology involves:

    A)isolation, removal, and purification of a foreign gene

    B)transfer of a foreign gene into a bacterial plasmid or virus

    C)transforming the bacterial with the plasmid containing the foreign gene

    D)selecting the transformed bacteria and culturing of the transformed bacteria

    E)all of the above
    E)all of the above
  134. DNA transformation includes:
    A)isolation, removal, and purification of a foreign gene

    B)transfer of a foreign gene into a bacterial plasmid or virus

    C)transfer of plasmid or viral DNA into bacteria or other cells, isolation and reproduction of those cells

    D)the production of large quantities of the cells containing new gene
    C)transfer of plasmid or viral DNA into bacteria or other cells, isolation and reproduction of those cells
  135. What is it called when may DNA gene coding regions from a specific organism are removed using RENs and then each gene fragment is cloned into a specific bacteria or virus?

    A)PCR

    B)RFLPs

    C)impossible

    D)a genomic library
    D)a genomic library

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