more fundies

The flashcards below were created by user Anonymous on FreezingBlue Flashcards.

  1. what was created with the fiscal year 2000 defense authorization bill
    • (CEFIP)
    • career enlisted flyer incentive pay
  2. list the requirements for CEFIP entitlements
    • entitled to basic pay
    • AFSC as a flyer or enrolled in flying training
    • qualified for aviation status
    • aeronautical orders
  3. what is the CEFIP amount for an aircrew member with less than 4 years of aviation service
  4. what is the CEFIP amount for an aircrew member with over 4 years but less than 8 years of aviation service
  5. what is the CEFIP amount for an aircrew member with over 8 years but less than 14 years of aviation service
  6. what is the CEFIP amount for an aircrew member with over 14 years of aviation service
  7. a point in your aviation career at which your total time performing operational flying duties is measured according to the aviation career incentive act
  8. ADS to 10 years and must log 6 years continued aviation service
    gate 1
  9. ADS to 15 years and must log 9 years continued aviation service
    gate 2
  10. ADS to 20 years and must log 14 years continued aviation service
    gate 3
  11. how many days a month must an enlisted aviator be available to receive aviation service credit
    15 days
  12. what type of CEFIP will you receive if you have met your "gate" increments
  13. what type of CEFIP will you receive if you have passed the 25-year mark of aviation service
  14. how many hours a month must you fly to receive flight pay if you have not met your flying gate requirements
    4 hrs
  15. who provides primary health care for all aircrew members
    flight surgeon
  16. what type of flight physical is required for all enlisted aircrew members
    class 3
  17. in the waiver process, who is required for all enlisted aircrew members
    wing flight surgeon
  18. in the waiver process who is responsible for approving the waiver
    majcom flight surgeon
  19. which form is used to track a crewmembers DNIF status
  20. what is the most common cause for DNIF status
  21. what is the timeline for a short-term DNIF status
    back in 30 days
  22. what is the timeline for a long term DNIF status
    30-90 days
  23. what is the criteria for a flight physical based on
    • age
    • gender
    • AFSC
  24. what is the timeline for an indefinite term DNIF status
  25. how long is a flyer that has received a local anesthetic held in DNIF status
    8 hrs
  26. how long is a flyer that has donated blood held in DNIF status
    72 hrs
  27. how long is a flyer that has been given immunizations held in DNIF status
    12-24 hrs
  28. how long is a flyer that has been scuba diving held in DNIF status
    24 hrs
  29. how long is a flyer that has taken an altitude chamber flight held in DNIF status
    12 hrs
  30. what may also ground a crewmember
    • aircraft mishap
    • in flight emergency
    • airsickness
  31. what is the max logged flying time for 7 days
    56 hrs
  32. what is the max logged fly time for 30 days
    125 hrs
  33. what is the max logged fly time for 90 days
    330 hrs
  34. which afi states that a crewmember must receive adequate rest
    AFI 11-22V3
  35. what is crew rest
    non-duty period before the flight duty period begins
  36. what is the air force policy on drinking prior to performing aircrew duties
    12 hrs
  37. what is outside medical attention
    anything other than the flight surgeon
  38. is a crewmember DNIF if they recive any if they receive outside medical attention
  39. can aircrew members self-medicate
  40. what are accepted over the counter medications
    • antacids
    • eye drops
    • multivitamins
  41. why is physical conditioning important
    to help handle fatigue and stress
  42. name the five major components of a fixed wing aircraft
    • wings
    • fuselage
    • empennage
    • landing gear
    • power plant
  43. the empennage consists of what two stabilizers
    • vertical
    • horizontal
  44. what component is designed to provide the force of lift
  45. the wings airfoil design is contoured to take maximum advantage of what
  46. name the four forces associated with tan aircraft in flight
    • lift
    • weight
    • thrust
    • drag
  47. what is the key aerodynamic force
  48. what principal states that "as the velocity of a fluid increases the pressure exerted by the fluid decreases
  49. the wing is designed to divide airflow into areas of ____ below the wing and ____ above the wing
    • high pressure
    • low pressure
  50. angle between the wing cord line and the direction of the relative wind
    angle of attack
  51. what can occure if the angle of attack of a wing is increased too much
  52. what are the two main types of drag
    • parasitic
    • induced
  53. what type of drag is the byproduct of lift and is directly related to the AOA of the wing or flight control surface
    induced drag
  54. what type of drag is the disruption  in the flow of air around the aircrafts surfaces
    parasitic drag
  55. what parasitic drag is caused from structures that protrude into the relative wind
    form drag
  56. what parasitic drag occurs when varied currents of air travel over an aircrafts surfaces
    interference drag
  57. what parasitic drag is caused from the aircrafts srfaces
    skin friction drag
  58. name the three types of parasitic drag
    • form
    • interference
    • skin friction
  59. name the five components of the helicopter
    • airframe (cockpit, cargo)
    • tail boom
    • landing gear
    • power plant
    • rotor group
  60. what component of a helo houses the tail rotor drive shaft, gearboxes, and vertical pylon
    tail boom
  61. what helo component contains the main rotor head, swash plate, and main rotor blades
    power plant
  62. what serves as the attachment point for the main rotor blades
    main rotor head
  63. what provides lift for a helo
    main rotor blades
  64. what is the purpose of the swashplate
    translates the pilots commands to change blade angel
  65. what helo component overcomes the effects of torque and keeps the nose of the helo on the desired heading
    tail rotor assembly
  66. what delivers mechanical power from the gearboxes to the main rotor and tail rotor
    drive shaft
  67. what two types of rotary wing unique flight characteristics
    • hovering
    • autorotation
  68. the ability of a helo to descend rapidly and land safely without power
  69. what are the primary flight controls for fixed wing aircraft
    • aileron
    • elevator
    • rudder
  70. when lowered these increase the camber of the wing
  71. the three axes that all aircraft use to carry out flight are
    • longitudinal
    • lateral
    • vertical
  72. where are the elevators and rudder located
  73. what kind of control surface are the flaps
  74. what are secondary control surface
    trim tabs
  75. what axis is pitch
  76. what control surface controls pitch on a lateral axis
  77. vertical axis goes through the fuselage from
    top to botom
  78. what primary control surface provides yaw movement on the vertical axis
  79. what axis is front to back of the aircraft
  80. what axis is parallel with the wings
  81. a helos movement on the longitudinal and lateral axis is controlled by the
    swash plate
  82. the tail rotor on a helo provides yaw movement on what axis
  83. an aircrafts weight and balance is primarily based along which axis
    longitudinal axis
  84. the point about which an item, cargo or aircraft would be balanced if suspended from that point
    center of gravity
  85. the beginning point for all horizontal weight and balance measurements. it is also perpendicular to the longitudinal axis
  86. a reference point identified by a numerical designation, in inches, from the RDL
    fuselage station
  87. the horizontal distance in inches from the RDL of the aircraft to the center of an item
  88. what are the three different weights associated with aircraft weight and balance
    • basic
    • operating
    • take off
  89. the basic weight plus the weight of crew, baggage, mission required equipment and emergency equipment
    operating weight
  90. which aircraft weight should you be concerned with for calculating the aircraft center of gravity arm
    takeoff weight
  91. how do we compute for moment
    weight X arm= moment
  92. name the three types of moments
    • basic
    • operating
    • take off
  93. what are the two power sources on board the aircraft
    • apu
    • engines
  94. what component produces AC power on the aircraft
  95. what are two ways we generate DC power on board the aircraft
    • transformer-rectifier
    • batteries
  96. in an aircraft hydraulic system, the force that the fluid exerts on a piston is measured in
    pound per square inch
  97. what is the purpose of the bleed air system
    • supply air to pneumatically operated systems of the aircraft
    • climate control
    • pressurizing the cabin
  98. the air conditioning system provides the temp control through the use of
    heat exchangers
  99. the air conditioning system provides the temp controls through use of the heat eschangers and supplies what for pressurization of the aircrafts cabin
    air volume
  100. list the 4 types of external communications
    • satcom
    • uhf
    • vhf
    • hf
  101. what are the 2 types of internal communications
    • pa
    • intercom
  102. what is a respectable safe distance to stay from any jet aircraft with engines running
    • 100ft idle
    • 500ft full throttle
  103. what is the minimum safe danger area to the rear of a turbo prop engine aircraft
  104. sound intensity or noise level is measured in
    • decibles
    • dBA
  105. what aer the symptoms of noise overdose
    sickness or injury
  106. what are some ways you can protect your hearing
    • earplugs
    • head set
  107. describe antenna radiation hazard
    • burning under the skin
    • can kill you
  108. what is placed by maintenance personnel 50ft in front of the aircraft while the radar is transmitting to indicate the RF hazard
    orange safety cones
  109. what is fod
    foreign object damage
  110. why is fod dangerous
    it can cause damage to the aircraft
  111. why is ice dangerous to an aircraft in flight
    can change the aerodynamics of surfaces
  112. what is the most severe weather hazard to fligt
  113. what is the primary wildlife hazard concern that poses a threat to flight operations
  114. what governs the BASH program
    AFPAM 91-212
  115. list the four categories reduction of strike hazard are divided into
    • awareness
    • control measures
    • avoidance
    • aircraft design
  116. bird watch conditions
  117. ways to thin populations or discourage birds from being there
    control measures
  118. avoiding times birds are know to populate an area
  119. making plane strike surfaces stronger
    aircraft design
  120. when armed when will the emergency exit light come on
    when power has failed
  121. what aircraft will have first aid kits on board
  122. inspect oxygen bottles and recharger outlets for the presence of oil or grease contaminaton
    prior to servicing
  123. what type of system do aircraft smoke detectors use to detect fires
  124. what is an integral part of the life raft assemblies
    survival kit
  125. what AFI establishes standards for personal/ life support equipment and oxygen requirements
    AFI 11-202v3
  126. what do all air force crewmembers wear when performing aircrew duties
    professional equipment
  127. what type of corrective eye glasses must be used by crewmembers while performing aircrew duties
    air force provided
  128. who will prescribe use of NVG during aircraft operations
  129. the AERP units are to be used in chemical warfare defense (CWD) environment. what does AERP stand for
    aircrew eye respiratory protection
  130. what door can be opened from both inside and outside of the aircraft
    crew entrance door
  131. when would the chopping area be used
    last resort
  132. why does the crash ax have a rubber handle
    insulate from accidental contact with power wires and grip
  133. when using an escape slide at night when does its light strips light up
    when inflated
  134. where are escape ropes stowed
    emergency exits
  135. control info and observable actions about mission capabilities, limitations, and intentions in order to prevent or control exploitation by an adversary is the goal of what
  136. why does the air force have COMSEC and other security programs
    provide specific security measures
  137. when does the US government give into the demands of hijackers
  138. what charged the FAA administration with exclusive responsibility for the direction of law enforcement activities in aircraft hijacking situations
    FAA act of 1958
  139. when is an aircraft most vulnerable to hijacking
    on ground crew on board and prepared for flight
  140. suspicious behavior of recording and monitoring
  141. suspicious behavior through mail, fax, phone, or in person
  142. suspicious behavior that test reaction time, procedures, and measures
    test of security
  143. suspicious behavior of buying stuff to do things
    acquiring supplies
  144. suspicious behavior of not belong in an area
    suspicious persons out of place
  145. suspicious behavior or putting plans in action with out actually following through
    dry run
  146. suspicious behavior of committing the act
    deploying assets
  147. what are the 3 basic rules that will greatly increase your chance of avoiding a personal encounter with a terrorist
    • assume a low profile
    • be unpredictable
    • remain vigilant
  148. aircrew members are more or less vulnerable to terrorist activity that the average person
  149. what AFI governs and defines physical security
    AFI 31-101
  150. increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature, and extent of which are unpredictable
    FPCON alpha
  151. applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists
    FPCON bravo
  152. applies when an incident occurs of intelligence received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely
    FPCON Charlie
  153. applies in the immediate are where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent
    FPCON Delta
  154. theft compromise destruction
    controlled area
  155. specifically designed area, valuable resource or sensitive or classified info, limited entry
    restricted area
  156. what term is use to alert flightline personnel of an intruder in the restricted or controlled area without proper identification
    helping hands
  157. pronounceable words or phrases that have been assigned meanings for expediting messages handling on circuits where radio/telephone produces and employed
  158. purpose of standardization, speed, and conciseness
    brevity words
  159. signal strength is very strong
  160. a call sign assigned to a specific purpose, unit, or activity
  161. a call sign that is randomly selected
  162. when continuous reception cannot be relied upon your signal is
  163. always check the accuracy of all information berore
  164. provides current forecast for departure, planned destination bases, and projected route of flight are covered
    weather briefing
  165. when a crew is scheduled to fly with other aircraft as part of a formation the crews must meet in this briefing
    cell briefing
  166. requires full coordination between crewmembers for the proper planning of scheduled events
    mission planning
  167. where all aspects of the flight will be briefed
    mission briefing
  168. involves everyone who might have played a part in the mission and is a mandatory formation
    mission debriefing
  169. what program has the air force built to standardized human factors training
    crew resource management
  170. the focusing of conscious attention on a limited number of environmental cues to the exclusion of others with a higher or immediate priority.
    channelized attention
  171. what is the number 1 human factor causing a loss of Situational awareness
    channelized attention
  172. too much attend to at one time
    task saturation
  173. crewmembers are under-challenged
  174. adapted and subsequent inattention to a cue or a warning sign
  175. aircrew members personal motivation that is not consistent whit the goals of the mission
    inappropriate motivation
  176. refers to the placement of unnecessary demands on ones self or equipment beyond the known limitations
  177. typically competitive and assertive personality traits are inconsistent with the safe accomplishment of the mission and or the actions taken directly contradict published guidance, they are neither appropriate nor professional
    misdirected peer pressure
  178. feeling intimidated by a supervisor resulting in an unsafe situation
    supervisor pressure
  179. personal motivation to reach a destination that is in conflict with safe completion of the mission
    get-home-itis syndrome
  180. I am uncomfortable; let us talk about this before we continue
    time out
  181. i have been saying i am uncomfortable; but no one has heard me or i am being ignored
    this is stupid
  182. stop current activity, level off, and return to base
    knock it off
  183. what are the inappropriate motivations
    • pressing
    • misdirected peer pressure
    • supervisor pressure
    • get home itis
  184. explain why crew coordination is essential to successful mission accomplishment
    without it the mission cannot be accomplished
  185. what are the 3 components to effective communications
    • sender
    • message
    • receiver
  186. who is responsible for operating the aircraft safely, legally, and carefully at all times
    aircrew members
  187. the absolute authority for all activities onboard the aircraft belongs to
    aircraft commander
Card Set:
more fundies
2013-07-28 18:56:58

Show Answers: