Recip Inspections Final.txt

Card Set Information

Recip Inspections Final.txt
2013-07-31 11:17:49
Roberts Recip Inspections Final Study

Recip Inspections Final Exam Study Notes
Show Answers:

  1. Which unit most accurately indicates fuel consumption of a reciprocating engine?
    Fuel Flowmeter.
  2. The fuel flowmeter used with a continuous-fuel injection system installed on an aircraft horizontally opposed reciprocating engines measures the fuel pressure drop across the
    Fuel Nozzles
  3. The principal fault in the pressure type fuel flowmeter indicating system, installed on a horizontally opposed continuous-flow fuel injected aircraft reciprocating engine, is that a plugged fuel injection nozzle will cause a
    Higher than normal fuel flow indication.
  4. On a twin-engine aircraft with fuel-injected reciprocating engines, one fuel-flow indicator reads considerably higher than the other in all engine operating configurations. What is the probable cause of this indication?
    One or more fuel nozzles clogged.
  5. The fuel-flow indication system used with many fuel-injected opposed engine airplanes utilizes a measure of
    Fuel Pressure
  6. In addition to fuel quantity, a computerized fuel system (CFS) with a totalizer-indicator provides indication of?
    Fuel flow rate, fuel used since reset or initial start-up, & fuel time remaining at current power setting

  7. In an aircraft equipped with a pressure-drop type fuel-flow indicating system, if one of the injector nozzles becomes restricted, this would cause a decrease in fuel flow with
    An increased fuel flow indication on the gauge.
  8. A manifold pressure gauge is designed to
    Indicate absolute pressure in the intake manifold.
  9. The purpose of an exhaust gas analyzer is to indicate the
    Fuel/air ratio being burned in the cylinders.
  10. Which of the following types of electric motors are commonly used in electric tachometers?
    Sychronous Motors
  11. Where are the hot and cold junctions located in an engine cylinder temperature indicating system?
    The hot junction is located at the cylinder and the cold junction is located at the instrument.
  12. Basically, the indicator of a tachometer system is responsive to change in
  13. Which statement is correct concerning a thermocouple-type temperature indicating instrument system?
    It requires no external power source.
  14. Which statement is true regarding a thermocouple-type cylinder head temperature measuring system?
    The voltage output of the thermalcouple system is determined by the temperature difference between the two ends of the thermalcouple.
  15. What basic meter is used to indicate cylinder head temperature in most aircraft?
  16. Which of the following is a primary engine instrument?
  17. A complete break in the line between the manifold pressure gauge and the induction system will be indicated by the gauge registering
    Prevailing Atmospheric Pressure.
  18. Engine oil temperature gauges indicate the temperature of the oil
    Entering the engine.
  19. Why do helicopters require a minimum of two synchronous tachometer systems?
    One indicates engine RPM and the other main rotor RPM.
  20. If the thermocouple leads were inadvertently crossed at installation, what would the cylinder temperature gauge pointer indicate?
    Moves off-scale on the zero side of the meter.
  21. A common type of electrically operated oil temperature gauge utilizes
    Either a Wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuit.
  22. The indication on a thermocouple-type cylinder head temperature indicator is produced by
    A current generated by the temperature difference between dissimiliar metal hot and cold junctions.
  23. (1) Powerplant instrument range markings show whether the current state of powerplant operation is normal, acceptable for a limited time, or unauthorized.
    (2) Powerplant instrument range markings are based on installed engine operating limits which may not exceed (but are not necessarily equal to) those limits shown on the engine Type Certificate Data Sheet.Regarding the above statements,
    Both No.1 and No.2 are true.
  24. Thermocouple leads
    Are designed for a specific installation and may not be altered.
  25. What unit in a tachometer system sends information to the indicator?
    The three-phase AC generator.
  26. Which of the following instrument discrepancies require replacement of the instrument?
    • Glass cracked.
    • Will not zero out.
    • Pointer loose on shaft
    • Fogged.
  27. A Bourdon-tube instrument may be used to indicate
    • pressure.
    • temperature.
  28. An indication of unregulated power changes that result in continual drift of manifold pressure indication on a turbosupercharged aircraft engine is known as?
  29. Which of the following instrument conditions is acceptable and does NOT require immediate correction?
    Case paint chipped.
  30. A change in engine manifold pressure has a direct effect on the
    Mean effective cylinder pressure.
  31. Instruments that provide readings of low or negative pressure, such as manifold pressure gauges, are usually what type?
    Diaphragm or bellows.
  32. Instruments that measure relatively high fluid pressures, such as oil pressure gauges, are usually what type?
    Bourdon Tube.
  33. The RPM indication of a synchronous ac motor-tachometer is governed by the generator
  34. The EGT gauge used with reciprocating engines is primarily used to furnish temperature readings in order to
    Obtain the best mixture setting for fuel efficiency
  35. What device is used to convert alternating current, which has been induced into the loops of the rotating armature of a dc generator, to direct current?
    A commutator
  36. A red triangle, dot, or diamond mark on an engine instrument face or glass indicates
    Maximum limit for high transients such as starting.
  37. A certain direct current series motor mounted within an aircraft draws more amperes during start than when it is running under its rated load. The most logical conclusion that may be drawn is
    The condition is normal for this type of motor.
  38. The stationary field strength in a direct current generator is varied
    According to the load requirments.
  39. What type of electric motor is generally used with a direct-cranking engine starter?
    Direct Current, Series-wound motor
  40. Upon what does the output frequency of an ac generator (alternator) depend?
    The speed of rotation and the number of field poles.
  41. A high surge of current is required when a dc electric motor is first started. As the speed of the motor increases,
    The counter EMF builds up and opposus the applied EMF, thus reducing the current flow through the armature.
  42. Alternators (ac generators) that are driven by a constant-speed drive (CSD) mechanism are used to regulate the alternator to a constant
    Hertz Output
  43. What is used to polish commutators or slip rings?
    Very Fine Sandpaper
  44. If a generator is malfunctioning, its voltage can be reduced to residual by actuating the
    Generator Master Switch
  45. If the points in a vibrator-type voltage regulator stick in the closed position while the generator is operating, what will be the probable result?
    Generator Output Voltage will increase.
  46. Why is a constant-speed drive used to control the speed of some aircraft engine-driven generators?
    So that the frequency of the alternating current output will remain constant.
  47. According to the electron theory of the flow of electricity, when a properly functioning dc alternator and voltage regulating system is charging an aircraft's battery, the direction of current flow through the battery
    Is into the negative terminal and out the positive terminal
  48. Aircraft that operate more than one generator connected to a common electrical system must be provided with
    Individual generator switches that can be operated from the cockpit during flight.
  49. The most effective method of regulating aircraft direct current generator output is to vary, according to the load requirements, the
    Strength of the stationary field.
  50. Electric motors are often classified according to the method of connecting the field coils and armature. Aircraft engine starter motors are generally of which type?
  51. As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will
    Remain constant and the amperage output will increase.
  52. As the flux density in the field of a dc generator increases and the current flow to the system increases, the
    Force required to turn the generator increases.
  53. What is the purpose of a reverse-current cutout relay?
    It opens the main generator circuit whenever the generator voltage drops below the battery voltage.
  54. Generator voltage will not build up when the field is flashed and solder is found on the brush cover plate. These are most likely indications of
    An open armature.
  55. Why is it unnecessary to flash the field of the exciter on a brushless alternator?
    Permanent magnets are installed in the main field poles.
  56. One way that the automatic ignition relight systems are activated on gas turbine engines is by a
    Drop in compressor discharge pressure.
  57. How are the rotor windings of an aircraft alternator usually excited?
    By a variable direct current.
  58. What precaution is usually taken to prevent electrolyte from freezing in a lead acid battery?
    Keep the battery fully charged.
  59. What is the ampere-hour rating of a storage battery that is designed to deliver 45 amperes for 2.5 hours?
    112.5 Ampre-hour
  60. How many hours will a 140 ampere-hour battery deliver 15 amperes?
    9.33 Hours
  61. What is a basic advantage of using ac for electrical power for a large aircraft?
    AC systems operate at a higher voltage than DC systems and therefore use less current and can use smaller and ligher wiring.
  62. What are two types of ac motors that are used to produce a relatively high torque?
    Three phase induction and capacitor start.
  63. (1) Alternators are rated in volt-amps, which is a measure of the apparent power being produced by the generator.
    (2) Alternating current has the advantage over direct current in that its voltage and current can easily be stepped up or down.Regarding the above statements,
    Both No.1 and No.2 are true
  64. What is the frequency of most aircraft alternating current?
    400 Hertz
  65. The reason for flashing the field in a generator is to
    Restore correct polarity and/or residual magnetism to the field poles.
  66. The part of a dc alternator power system that prevents reverse flow of current from the battery to the alternator is the
  67. The generating system of an aircraft charges the battery by using
    Constant voltage and varying current
  68. The constant current method of charging a ni-cad battery
    Is the method most effective in maintaining cell balance.
  69. (Refer to Figure 4.) The following data concerning the installation of an electrical unit is known: current requirements for continuous operation -- 11 amperes; measured cable length -- 45 feet; system voltage -- 28 volts (do not exceed 1 volt drop); cable in conduit and bundles. What is the minimum size copper electrical cable that may be selected?
  70. Which of the following aircraft circuits does NOT contain a fuse/circuit breaker?
    Starter Circuit.
  71. The maximum number of terminals that may be connected to any one terminal stud in an aircraft electrical system is
  72. What is the maximum number of bonding jumper wires that may be attached to one terminal grounded to a flat surface?
  73. As a general rule, starter brushes are replaced when they are approximately
    One-half their original length.
  74. When installing an electrical switch, under which of the following conditions should the switch be derated from its nominal current rating?
    Direct-current motor circuits.
  75. The resistance of the current return path through the aircraft is always considered negligible, provided the
    Structure is adequately bonded.
  76. In order to reduce the possibility of ground shorting the circuits when the connectors are separated for maintenance, the AN and MS electrical connectors should be installed with the
    Pin section on the ground side of the electrical circuit.
  77. When does current flow through the coil of a solenoid-operated electrical switch?
    Continually, as long as the control circuit is complete.
  78. When a 28 volt, 75 ampere generator is installed on an aircraft, an electrical load analysis ground check is performed and it is determined that the battery is furnishing 57 amperes to the system, with all electrical equipment operating. This indicates
    The load will be with in the generator load limit.
  79. What type of lubricant may be used to aid in pulling electrical wires or cables through conduits?
    Soapstone Talc
  80. Which of the following is regulated in a generator to control its voltage output?
    The strength of the field
  81. Bonding jumpers should be designed and installed in such a manner that they
    Provide a low electrical resistance in the ground circuit.
  82. When the starter switch to the aircraft gas turbine engine starter-generator is energized and the engine fails to rotate, one of the probable causes would be the
    Starter Solenoid is defective.
  83. Arcing at the brushes and burning of the commutator of a motor may be caused by
    Weak brush springs.
  84. The maximum allowable voltage drop between the generator and the bus bar is
    2 percent of the regulated voltage.
  85. ON-OFF two position engine electrical switches should be installed
    So the ON position is reached by a forward or upward motion
  86. When selecting an electrical switch for installation in an aircraft circuit utilizing a direct current motor,
    A derating factor should be applied
  87. When installing electrical wiring parallel to a fuel line, the wiring should be
    Above the fuel line.
  88. (Refer to Figure 4.) In a 28-volt system, what is the maximum continuous current that can be carried by a single No. 10 copper wire 25 feet long, routed in free air?
    35 Ampres
  89. What speed must an eight-pole ac generator turn to produce 400-Hertz ac?
    6,000 RPM
  90. How many basic types of circuit breakers are used in powerplant installation electrical systems?
  91. Which Federal Aviation Regulation specifies that each resettable circuit protective device requires a manual operation to restore service after the device has interrupted the circuit?
    14 CFR Part 23
  92. Which Federal Aviation Regulation requirement prevents the use of automatic reset circuit breakers?
    14 CFR Part 23
  93. The time/current capacities of a circuit breaker or fuse must be
    Below those of the associated conductor
  94. (1) Most modern aircraft use circuit breakers rather than fuses to protect their electrical circuits.
    Only No.1 is true
  95. Electrical switches are rated according to the
    Voltage and the current they can control
  96. Electrical circuit protection devices are installed primarily to protect the
  97. (1) Electrical circuit protection devices are rated based on the amount of current that can be carried without overheating the wiring insulation.
    (2) A 'trip-free' circuit breaker makes it impossible to manually hold the circuit closed when excessive current is flowing.Regarding the above statements,
    Both No.1 and No.2 are true
  98. Which of the following Federal Aviation Regulations require that all aircraft using fuses as the circuit protective devices carry 'one spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind required'?
    14 CFR Part 91
  99. What is the smallest terminal stud allowed for aircraft electrical power systems?
  100. A typical barrier type aircraft terminal strip is made of
    Paper base phenolic compound
  101. A term commonly used when two or more electrical terminals are installed on a single lug of a terminal strip is
  102. (1) Electrical wires larger than 10 gauge use uninsulated terminals.
    Only No.1 is true.
  103. Aircraft electrical wire size is measured according to the
    American Wire Gauge System
  104. Aircraft copper electrical wire is coated with tin, silver, or nickel in order to
    Prevent Oxidization
  105. A Cessna 180 aircraft has a McCauley propeller Model No. 2A34C50/90A. The propeller is severely damaged in a ground accident, and this model propeller is not available for replacement. Which of the following should be used to find an approved alternate replacement?
    Aircraft Specifications/ Type Certificate Data Sheets.
  106. On a reciprocating engine aircraft using a shrouded exhaust muffler system as a source for cabin heat, the exhaust system should be
    Visually inspected for any indication of cracks or an operational carbon monoxide detection test should be done.
  107. True-False? Airworthiness Directives are Federal Aviation Regulations and must be complied with unless specific exemption is granted.
  108. Which of the following contains a minimum checklist for 100-hour inspections of engines?
    14 CFR Part 43 Appendix D
  109. When must an Airworthiness Directive (AD) be complied with after it becomes effective?
    As specified in the AD.
  110. Which of the following contains a table that lists the engines to which a given propeller is adaptable?
    Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheet
  111. Which of the following component inspections is to be accomplished on a 100-hour inspection?
    Check cylinder compression
  112. You are performing a 100-hour inspection on an R985-22 aircraft engine. What does the '985' indicate?
    The total piston displacement of the engine.
  113. Where would one find type design information for an R1830-92 engine certificated under the Civil Air Regulations (CAR) and installed on a DC-3?
    The aircraft engine specifications.
  114. The breaking loose of small pieces of metal from coated surfaces, usually caused by defective plating or excessive loads, is called
  115. Each powerplant installed on an airplane with a Standard Airworthiness Certificate must have been
    Type Certificated
  116. A severe condition of chafing or fretting in which a transfer of metal from one part to another occurs is called
  117. Indentations on bearing races caused by high static loads are known as
  118. What publication is used for guidance to determine whether a powerplant repair is major or minor?
    Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 43, Appendix A
  119. Which of the following contains approved data for performing a major repair to an aircraft engine?
    Manufacturer's maintenance instruction when FAA approved.
  120. What maintenance record(s) is/are required following a major repair of an aircraft engine?
    Entries in the engine maintenance record and FAA Form 337
  121. A ground incident that results in propeller sudden stoppage would require a crankshaft runout inspection. What publication would be used to obtain crankshaft runout tolerance?
    Current Manufacturer's maintenance instructions.
  122. The wear caused by rubbing action between two parts under a light pressure is known as
  123. A furrowing condition in which a displacement of metal occurs. It is usually caused by piece of metal or foreign material becoming trapped between moving parts.
  124. All of the propellers that are approved for a specific airplane are listed where?
    The aircraft specifications or type Certificate data sheet
  125. True-False? Airworthiness Directives of an emergency nature may require immediate compliance upon receipt.
  126. A form of surface corrosion caused by minute movement between two parts clamped together under considerable pressure is?
  127. A series of deep scratches caused by foreign particles between moving parts, or careless assembly or disassembly techniques is?
  128. The best approach to troubleshooting is?