Developmental Psychology

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Developmental Psychology
2013-09-29 14:25:33

Developmental psychology
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  1. What is meant by the G x E interaction?
    Interaction of genetics and environment
  2. What is a genotype?
    Characteristics that are determined by information coded on the genes
  3. What is a phenotype?
    A person's observable and measurable characteristics
  4. What is meant by the term "range of reaction"?
    An individual's genetics set boundaries for the possible phenotypes that can occur, but the environment determines which outcomes will materialize
  5. Regarding G x E interaction, individuals with __________ genetic endowment have a larger range of reaction.
    Higher (e.g., range is broader for those with higher intelligence)
  6. What is a critical period?
    Limited time span during which an organism is biologically prepared to acquire certain behaviors but requires the presence of environmental stimuli to occur (e.g., imprinting in geese)
  7. What is a sensitive period?
    In humans, optimal time for behaviors to develop, but they can develop earlier or later
  8. What is maturation?
    Genetically determined patterns of development on which environment has little or no effect (e.g., sequence of behaviors in learning to walk)
  9. What is canalization?
    The narrow developmental path to some characteristics that are relatively unaffected by the environment (e.g., sensorimotor development)
  10. What are secular trends?
    Long-term patterns or differences across cohorts that provide evidence for the effect of environment on development (e.g., age of first period)
  11. What is the heritability index?
    Statistic used to estimate the degree to which a particular characteristic is determined by genetic factors
  12. Through what type of research is the heritability index determined?
    Kinship studies
  13. Studies reveal the heritability of intelligence to be in what range?
    .30 to .70, with .50 being most common
  14. How many pairs of chromosomes do people have?
  15. In chromosome pairs, one chromosome is obtained from the ___________ and one is obtained from the ____________.
    Mother; father
  16. What does DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) do?
    Carries codes for traits and other developmental phenomena
  17. What does it mean when a trait is termed polygenic?
    They are determined by multiple genes
  18. Chromosomes are made up of thousands of ____________.
  19. What are autosomes?
    The name given to the 22 pairs of chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes
  20. What does homologous mean regarding chromosomes?
    Exact duplicates; this term applies to all of the autosomes
  21. What is an allosome?
    Sex chromosome
  22. In the allsome, females have an ____ pair while males have an ____ pair.
    XX; XY
  23. If a person has one dominant gene and one recessive gene for a particular characteristic, which one will be displayed?
  24. What are some examples of dominant genes?
    Dark hair, immunity to poison ivy, normal hearing, type B blood
  25. What are some examples of recessive genes?
    Red hair, susceptibility to poison ivy, congenital deafness, type O blood
  26. A person will display a recessive gene if and only if what is true?
    Both genes in the pair are recessive
  27. What does it mean when a characteristic is described as "sex-linked"?
    It is a recessive characteristic that is carried on the allosomes
  28. Sex-linked characteristics are most commonly carried on which sex chromosome?
  29. Which sex has a greater chance of inheriting a sex-linked characteristic and why?
    Males; since they have XY chromosomes, the characteristic cannot be "cancelled out" by a dominant X chromosome
  30. What is an example of a sex-linked characteristic?
    Red-green colorblindness
  31. Red-green colorblindness is twice as common in ___________.
  32. What are three examples of recessive gene disorders?
    • 1. PKU (Phenylketonuria)
    • 2. Tay-Sachs Disease
    • 3. Sickle-Cell Anemia
  33. What is PKU or Phenylketonuria?
    A recessive gene disorder is which individuals lack the enzyme needed to digest phenylalanine
  34. What happens if phenylalanine is not properly digested?
    It is toxic to the brain and causes severe mental retardation
  35. How can complications from PKU be minimized?
    A child with the disorder should be on a low phenylalanine diet for the first 6-9 years of life
  36. What foods are high in phenylalanine?
    Milk, eggs, fish, bread
  37. What is Tay-Sachs disease?
    A recessive gene disorder which involves deterioration of nerve cells and mental and physical abilities; symptoms usually begin around 6 months of age and usually result in death by age 4
  38. What is sickle cell anemia?
    A recessive gene disorder characterized by red blood cells that take on an abnormal, rigid sickle shape; results in a shorter life expectancy (mid to late 40's)
  39. In which group of people is sickle cell anemia most common?
    Individuals with ancestry in tropical and sub-tropical, sub-saharan regions
  40. What is cystic fibrosis?
    A recessive gene disorder that results in the abnormal transport of sodium and chloride and affects the lungs, pancreas, liver, and intestines
  41. Huntington's chorea is a __________ gene disorder.
  42. What are the chances of a child of an affected parent inheriting Huntington's chorea?
    50 percent
  43. 1 in every _____ babies is born with a chromosomal abnormality.
  44. What is Down Syndrome caused by?
    An extra 21st chromosome
  45. Down syndrome occurs in 1 out of every _________ live births.
  46. What maternal factor influences the prevalence of Down Syndrome?
  47. What are the characteristics of Down Syndrome?
    Moderate to profound MR, and physical features such as short, stocky build, flattened face, protruding tongue, and almond-shaped eyes; heart abnormalities, thyroid dysfunction, malformations of the intestinal tract, and susceptibility to respiratory infections
  48. What is the cause of Klinefelter's Syndrome?
    Extra X chromosome in males
  49. What problems are characteristic of Klinefelter's Syndrome?
    Incomplete development of secondary sex characteristics and sterility in afflicted males
  50. What is the cause of Turner's Syndrome?
    All or part of the second X chromosome is missing in a female
  51. What problems are characteristic of Turner's syndrome?
    Afflicted females have a short stature, stubby fingers, webbed neck, and maldeveloped secondary sex characteristics
  52. What is the cause of Fragile X syndrome?
    A weak site on the X chromosome
  53. What is the gender prevalence of Fragile X syndrome?
    It can occur in both males and and females, but is more common in males because they lack the influence of a normal X chromosome
  54. What are the characteristics of Fragile X syndrome?
    A unique constellation of physical, intellectual, and behavioral deficits, including moderate to severe MR, facial deformities, and a rapid, staccato (abrupt) speech rhythm
  55. What are teratogens?
    Environmental agents that cause abnormalities by interfering with normal prenatal development
  56. When is the germinal period?
    From conception to implantation (8-10 days later)
  57. What effects can result from exposure to teratogens during the germinal period?
    It varies -- only a few cells may be damaged, or many cells can be damaged, leading to death
  58. When is the embryonic period?
    From end of second week after conception to end of eighth week
  59. What effects can result from exposure to teratogens during the embryonic period?
    Major structural defects in organs
  60. When is the CNS most affected by exposure to teratogens?
    Beginning of the 3rd week to middle of the 6th week
  61. When is the heart most affected by teratogens?
    Middle of the 3rd week to middle of the 6th week
  62. When is the fetal period?
    From the beginning of the 9th week until birth
  63. What effects can result from exposure to teratogens during the fetal period?
    Organs are less affected, but other less severe defects can occur (e.g., external genitalia, brain abnormalities); prolonged exposure can lead to growth retarding and decreased IQ
  64. The features associated with fetal alcohol syndrome vary based on what?
    The amount of alcohol consumed
  65. What are the typical features of fetal alcohol syndrome?
    Growth retardation, facial deformities, microcephaly, irritability, hyperactivity, and neurological abnormalities
  66. What is the leading cause of mental retardation in the US?
    Fetal alcohol syndrome
  67. Most children with fetal alcohol syndrome have mental retardation with IQ scores in what range?
  68. What is fetal alcohol effects?
    When one or more symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome is present, but not the full syndrome
  69. Fetal alcohol effects are observed in as many as 1 out of every _____ live births.
  70. What effects can arise from exposure to heroin/methadone in the womb?
    Increased risk of prematurity, low birth weight, physical malformations, respiratory disease, mortality at birth
  71. What happens to infants born after exposure to heroin/cocaine?
    They are physically addicted and develop withdrawal symptoms
  72. What is microcephaly?
    A small, underdeveloped brain
  73. What effects can result from exposure to marijuana in the womb?
    Low birth weight, muscle tremors, increased startle response, visual problems
  74. What effects can result from exposure to cocaine in the womb?
    growth retardation, preterm birth, malformations in brain, intestines, and genital-urinary tract; may be born with hemorrhages, lesions and swelling in brain, small head circumference, heart defects, brain seizures, and abnormalities in motor development; due to altered function of neurotransmitters, may show irritability, rigidity, muscle tremors, difficulty self-soothing, difficulty being consoled, and excessive reactivity to stimuli; impaired senory function, decreased visual attention, difficulty regulating arousal state; concentration/memory problems, learning disabilities, social problems
  75. What syndrome is associated with exposure to benzodiazepines in the womb?
    Prenatal syndrome
  76. What are the characteristics prenatal syndrome?
    Feeding problems, hypothermia, deficiency in muscle tone
  77. If Lithium is taken in the first trimester it increases the risk of ____________ by 10 times.
    Ebstein's anomaly, a heart defect
  78. If taken around the time of birth, exposure to Lithium is associated with which syndrome?
    Perinatal syndrome
  79. What are the characteristics of perinatal syndrome?
    Bluish skin discoloration and decreased muscle tone
  80. Taking valproic acid while pregnant increases the risk of ____________________.
    Fetal malformation
  81. What effects can result from exposure to cigarette smoking in the womb?
    high risk for spontaneous abortion, prematurity, low birth weight, and death during the period surrounding birth; infants are less responsive to the environmental and more irritable; prenatal exposure has been linked to hyperactivity, short attention span, and reduced school achievement in reading, math, and spelling
  82. What effects can result from exposure to rubella (german measles) in the womb?
    Congenital rubella syndrome, which includes heart defects, eye cataracts, deafness, GI abnormalities, and mental retardation
  83. ____ percent of babies exposed to rubella in the womb die shortly after birth.
  84. The most severe damage from pre-natal exposure to rubella occurs during what time period?
    When the disease strikes during the 4th to 8th week of pregnancy
  85. The risk of miscarriage is ____ times the normal rate if herpes simplex is contracted in early pregnancy.
  86. Herpes simplex virus is usually contracted through delivery. What can be done to prevent this?
    Caesarian section
  87. What effects can result from exposure to herpes simplex?
    High risk of death, brain damage, blindness
  88. The use of anti-virals to treat babies exposed to herpes simplex helps about _____ percent of cases avoid damage.
  89. What usually results from exposure to cytomegalovirus (CMV) during the embryonic stage?
  90. What effects can result from exposure to cytomegalovirus (CMV) after the embryonic stage?
    retarded growth, blindness, deafness, MR, microencephaly , and cerebral palsy
  91. What is microencephaly?
    Small head circumference associated with delayed motor, speech, and mental development
  92. What effects can occur if exposure to syphilis is untreated during pregnancy?
    Deafness, facial deformities, malformation of teeth and bones, excess fluid in brain, and mental retardation
  93. What is perinatal transmission?
    Transmission of a disease from mother to child during pregnancy, labor/delivery, or breastfeeding
  94. Without retroviral treatment, ______ percent of affected mothers transmit HIV to their babies.
  95. With retroviral treatment, _______ percent of affected mothers transmit HIV to their babies.
  96. The risk of perinatal transmission of HIV is reduced if antiretrovirals are administered during what time period?
    During the last 2 trimesters and to the infant for 6 weeks after birth
  97. What effects are common for HIV-infected newborns?
    Prematurity and being small for gestational age
  98. What symptoms of the virus can develop in HIV-infected babies during the first year?
    Increased susceptibility to other infections, failure to thrive, swollen lymph nodes, and developmental delays
  99. What is failure to thrive?
    Failure to gain weight as expected, accompanied by poor height growth
  100. About ____ percent of HIV-infected babies develop AIDS.
  101. About ______ percent of HIV-infected babies die during the first year of life.
  102. What effects are observed amongst HIV-infected children?
    Variety of infections during childhood and are at high risk for immunologic abnormalities and CNS dysfunctions including loss of developmental milestones, attention and concentration problems, and declining IQ scores
  103. What effects can result from prenatal malnutrition during the first trimester?
    Spontaneous abortion or congenital malformations
  104. What effects can result from prenatal malnutrition during the third trimester?
    low birth weight and low brain weight due to fewer neurons, less extensive branching of dendrites, and reduced myelinization; behavioral consequences – apathy, unresponsiveness to stimuli, irritability, abnormally high-pitched cry, intellectual deficits, and lags in motor development
  105. Women who experience chronic, severe anxiety or stress during pregnancy have more ____________ and give birth to infants with a greater number of _____________.
    Medical complications; abnormalities
  106. What effects can result from chronic, severe stress during pregnancy?
    spontaneous abortion, premature delivery, and more difficult labor; children are at risk for low birth weight, respiratory problems, higher levels of irritability and hyperactivity, bowel irregularities, and problems with sleep and eating
  107. What can greatly reduce the negative effects associated with maternal stress during pregnancy?
    Supportive social relationships
  108. Percentage of babies with low birth weight is greatest for mothers under the age of ___ and over the age of ___.
    15; 45
  109. Women who are over the age of 35 when giving birth have a slightly greater change of what complications?
    Miscarriage, placenta previa (placenta is inserted wholly or partially in lower uterine segment), high blood pressure, diabetes, and birth by caesarian section
  110. The risk of congenital birth defects is increased for older mothers, especially those who _____________________.
    Give birth to their first child in their 40s
  111. Both _____ and _____ quality decline with age.
    Egg; sperm
  112. What is the definition of a premature infant?
    One who is born before 37 weeks gestation
  113. What factors have been linked with premature births?
    lack of prenatal care, malnutrition, maternal  age (esp younger than 15), drug use, low SES, and multiple gestations
  114. Babies born prematurely often "catch up" to their peers in cognitive, language, and social skills by age ___________.
    2 or 3
  115. What is meant when a baby is referred to as "small for gestational age?"
    Birth weight below the 10th percentile expected for gestational age
  116. As compared to premature infants, infants who are considered small for gestational age have a higher risk for what problems?
    Respiratory disease, hypoglycemia, and asphyxia during birth
  117. What is fetal distress?
    A condition during the birth process that indicates fetus is at risk due to change in heart rate, respiration, or anoxia
  118. What is anoxia?
    Sudden shortage or lack of oxygen
  119. What can cause prolonged anoxia in the child during birth?
    A twisted umbilical cord and/or sedatives given to the mother
  120. What effects can result from prolonged anoxia during the birth process?
    Cognitive and motor delays, mental retardation, cerebral palsy
  121. What is a reflex?
    An automatic physical response to specific types of stimulation
  122. Most infant reflexes disappear by what age?
    6 months
  123. Why do infant reflexes disappear after 6 months?
    It is believed to be due to a gradual increase in voluntary control as the cortex gains influence over behavior and suppresses subcortical reflexive responses
  124. What is the palmar grasp reflex?
    An infant grasps a finger pressed against the surface of her palm
  125. What is the Babinski reflex?
    An infant extends her big toe and spreads small toe when sole of foot is stroked
  126. What is the moro or startle reflex?
    When someone supporting the infant’s body permits her head to drop slightly or when there is a sudden loud sound, the infant arches her back, extends her legs, and throws her arms outward as if grabbing for support
  127. What is the stepping reflex?
    When the infant is held in an upright position and the soles of her feet touch the ground, she makes stepping motions
  128. What is the visual acuity of a newborn?
  129. Within a few days, newborns prefer ________ images to _______ images.
    Facial; non-facial
  130. At what age can an infant discriminate between her mother's face and the faces of others?
    One month
  131. At what age do infants develop color vision?
    2-3 months
  132. At what age do infants develop some depth perception and visual acuity close to that of adults?
    By 6 months
  133. Newborns' hearing is somewhat _________ sensitive than adults.
  134. At what point do infants prefer human voices, recognize mother’s voice, and distinguish between “a” and “I” sounds?
    Within a few days after birth
  135. What is auditory localization?
    Turning one's head toward the direction of a sound
  136. What is the chronology of development of auditory localization in infants?
    Newborns exhibit this shortly after birth, then it disappears between 2 and 4 months, and then reemerges and becomes fully developed by 1 year
  137. Regarding tastes, newborns prefer things that taste __________.
  138. At what point in their development do infants respond to unpleasant odors?
    A few days after birth
  139. When can infants distinguish between different odors?
    2-7 days after birth
  140. Which part of the brain is least developed at birth?
  141. What two changes occur to neurons (that are present at birth) as a child develops?
    • 1. Growth of new dendrites
    • 2. Myelinization of neurons
  142. At what point do neurons in the primary motor cortex become myelinated?
    During the first months of life; this accounts for infants' ability to engage in voluntary movements (e.g., raise head while lying on stomach)
  143. Mosy myelinization is completed during the __________ year of life, but continues at a slower rate into ___________.
    Second year; early adolescence
  144. What percentage of its adult weight has a child's brain reached by age 1?
  145. What gross and fine motor skills are present in infants 1 month of age?
    Can turn head from side to side and have a strong grasp reflex
  146. What two gross motor skills are present in infants 3 months of age?
    • 1. Can hold head erect when sitting, but it bobs forward
    • 2. Regards own hand
  147. What three fine motor skills are present in infants 3 months of age?
    • 1. Can hold rattle
    • 2. Pulls at clothes
    • 3. Brings objects from hand to mouth
  148. What three gross motor skills are present in infants 5 months of age?
    • 1. holds head erect and steady when sitting
    • 2. reaches and grasps
    • 3. puts foot to mouth when lying face up
  149. What fine motor skills are present in infants 5 months of age?
    • 1. plays with toes
    • 2. takes objects directly to mouth
    • 3. grasps objects voluntarily
  150. What two gross motor skills are present in infants 7 months of age?
    • 1. sits, leaning forward on both hands
    • 2. stands with help
  151. What fine motor skill is present in infants 7 months of age?
    Transfers objects from one hand to the other
  152. What 2 gross motor skills are present in infants 9 months of age?
    • 1. creeps on hands and knees
    • 2. pulls self to standing position while holding furniture
  153. What fine motor skill develops in infants 10 months of age?
    The pincer grasp (use of thumb and index finger to grasp)
  154. What three gross motor skills develop in infants 11-15 months of age?
    • 1. Can walk holding onto furniture
    • 2. Can stand alone
    • 3. Can walk without help (12-14 mos)
  155. What fine motor skill develops in infants 11 months of age?
    Can remove objects from tight enclosure
  156. What fine motor skill develops in infants 12 months of age?
    Can turn page in a book
  157. What fine motor skill develops in infants 15 months of age?
    Can use a cup well
  158. What 6 gross motor skills develop in babies 18-24 months of age?
    • 1. runs clumsily
    • 2. walks up stairs with hand held
    • 3. can use a spoon (18 mos)
    • 4. goes up and down stairs alone
    • 5. kicks ball
    • 6. 50% of children can use the toilet during the day
  159. What is the relationship between practice and the reaching of motor milestones?
    Early practice can affect the age at which they are achieved
  160. What happens in cultures where training in walking begins a few months after birth?
    Children begin to walk relatively sooner
  161. Which types of skills does training affect most?
    Complex skills, rather than basic motor skills
  162. What did McGraw's study of training find?
    He trained one member of fraternal twins in motor activities. The second twin caught up, but in adolescence and adulthood, the trained twin was more skilled and interested in the activities
  163. What did Rutter assert regarding risk factors for psychopathology?
    The greater the number of risk factors for psychopathology, the greater the negative outcome
  164. What are the six risk factors for psychopathology?
    • 1. low SES
    • 2. overcrowding or large family size
    • 3. severe marital discord
    • 4. parental criminality
    • 5. maternal psychopathology
    • 6. placement of child outside the home
  165. Regarding risk factors for psychopathology, ____ percent of children with 0-1 factors are considered a psychiatric risk, while ____ percent of children with 4 or more are considered a psychiatric risk.
    2; 21
  166. High risk babies are more likely to have a positive outcome if which three factors are present?
    • 1. They experience fewer stressors following birth
    • 2. They have an easy temperament
    • 3. They are provided with stable support from parent or primary caregiver
  167. What is the primary assertion of Bronfenbrenner's ecological model?
    Environmental influences on development can be described in terms of four interacting systems (microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem)
  168. In the ecological model, what is the microsystem?
    The child’s immediate setting, including family, daycare center, and school
  169. In the ecological model, what is the mesosystem?
    Interconnections between the different components of the microsystem (e.g., a crisis in the family can affect a child's behavior at school)
  170. In the ecological model, what is the exosystem?
    Aspects of the environment that the child is not in direct contact with but is affected by (e.g., parents’ jobs and friends)
  171. In the ecological model, what is the macrosystem?
    Cultural and subcultural context in which the other systems are embedded (e.g., racism, cultural standards about child-rearing)
  172. In Piaget's theory, what is a cognitive schema?
    An organized way of thinking about the world
  173. In Piaget's theory, what is adaptation?
    The process of building cognitive schemas through interaction with the environment
  174. In Piaget's theory, what are the two processes of adaptation?
    • 1. Assimilation
    • 2. Accommodation
  175. In Piaget's theory, what is assimilation?
    The incorporation and interpretation of new information in terms of existing schemas
  176. In Piaget's theory, what is accommodation?
    A process by which schemas are modified in order to account for newly-understood properties of objects
  177. In Piaget's theory, what are equilibrium and disequilibrium?
    Equilibrium refers to times in which we can use existing schemas to interpret the world, while disequilibrium refers to times when we notice that new information does not fit into our current schemas. Disequilibrium forces us to modify our schemas and leads to a subsequent state of equilibrium
  178. In Piaget's theory, the stages of cognitive development are _____________, meaning that they occur in a __________ sequence and none can be skipped.
    Invariant; fixed
  179. In Piaget's theory, during what age range does the sensorimotor stage generally occur?
    Birth to 2 years
  180. In Piaget's theory, what are the characteristics of the sensorimotor stage?
    A child learns about objects through sensory information; thought is based on action; learning is the result of circular reactions
  181. What are circular reactions?
    When behaviors are performed to reproduce events that happened initially by chance
  182. What two abilities emerge during the sensorimotor stage?
    • 1. Object permanence- the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are not visible
    • 2. Deferred imitation- the ability to imitate an observed act at a later point in time
  183. In Piaget's theory, how many substages are in the sensorimotor stage?
  184. What is Substage 1 of the sensorimotor stage?
    Basic Reflexes (birth to 1 month): the first schemas are inborn reflexes and the newborn begins to get control of them
  185. What is Substage 2 of the sensorimotor stage?
    Primary Circular Reactions (1 to 4 months): infants find actions involving their own bodies by accident then learn to repeat them by trial and error
  186. What is Substage 3 of the sensorimotor stage?
    Secondary CircularReactions (4 to 8 months): infants find actions involving objects in the environment then try to reproduce the actions or events by trial and error
  187. What is Substage 4 of the sensorimotor stage?
    Coordination of Secondary Schemes (8 to 12 months: infants intentionally put together two schemes to reach a goal or solve a problem; object permanence begins
  188. What is Substage 5 of the sensorimotor stage?
    Tertiary Circular Reactions (12 to 18 months): infants are curious, explore through trial and error trying to produce novel reactions and consequences
  189. What is Substage 6 of the sensorimotor stage?
    Transition to Symbiotic Thought: toddlers begin to form mental or symbolic representations of events, using body movements for movements of objects, to think about events and to determine the consequences of an action
  190. In Piaget's theory, during what age range does the preoperational stage generally occur?
    2-7 years
  191. What are the characteristics of the preoperational stage?
    Marked by an extraordinary increase in symbolic thought, resulting in strides in language and the appearance of substitute pretend play and sociodramatic play
  192. What is substitute pretend play?
    Play in which objects are used to stand for something different
  193. What is sociodramatic play?
    Play that involves acting out scripts
  194. Prevalent in the preoperational stage, what is egocentrism?
    Inability to understand that others do not experience the world in the same way
  195. Prevalent in the preoperational stage, what is magical thinking?
    The erroneous belief that one has control over objects or events or that thinking about something will actually cause it to occur
  196. Prevalent in the preoperational stage, what is precausal or transductive reasoning?
    An incomplete understanding of cause and effect
  197. Prevalent in the preoperational stage, what is centration?
    the tendency to focus on one detail of a situation to the neglect of other important features
  198. Prevalent in the preoperational stage, what is irreversibility?
    The inability to understand that actions can be reversed
  199. In Piaget's theory, the concrete operational stage occurs generally during which age range?
    7-12 years
  200. In Piaget's theory, what are the characteristics of the concrete operational stage?
    The development or reversibility and decentration, which allow for conservation
  201. Prevalent in the concrete operational stage, what is conservation?
    Understanding that the underlying properties of an object may not change even when its physical appearance changes
  202. According to Piaget's theory, in which sequence of properties does conservation develop?
    First number, then length, liquid, mass, area, weight, volume
  203. In Piaget's theory, what is horizontal decelage?
    The sequential mastery of concepts within a single stage of development
  204. Prevalent in the concrete operational stage, what is transivity?
    The ability to mentally sort objects
  205. Prevalent in the concrete operational stage, what is hierarchical classification?
    The ability to sort objects into hierarchies and classes and subclasses based on similarities and differences
  206. According to Piaget, the formal operational stage occurs in which age range?
    Age 12 and up
  207. Prevalent in the formal operational stage, what is hypothetical-deductive reasoning?
    the ability to arrive at and test alternative explanations for observed events
  208. Prevalent in the formal operational stage, what is propositional thought?
    the ability to evaluate the logical validity of verbal assertions without making reference to real world circumstances
  209. What is formal operational egocentrism?
    A phenomenon observed in adolescents, which is characterized by a rigid insistence that the world can become a better place through implementation of their idealistic schemas
  210. What researcher is associated with formal operational egocentrism in adolescents?
  211. What are two characteristics of formal operational egocentrism?
    • 1. Imaginary audience
    • 2. Personal fable
  212. According to Elkind, what is imaginary audience?
    belief that others are as concerned with and critical of the adolescent’s behavior as the adolescent is
  213. According to Elkind, what is personal fable?
    adolescent’s belief that he or she is unique and indestructible
  214. What has research found regarding Piaget's assertion that cognitive development occurs in invariant stages?
    It has confirmed this assertion
  215. Piaget's theory has been criticized for its tendency to ______________ the cognitive abilities of children, especially in the preoperational stage.
  216. Research regarding Piaget's theory has shown that children as young as __________ can recognize that others see things from a different perspective.
  217. Research regarding Piaget's theory has shown that children as young as _________ can be taught to conserve.
    3 or 4
  218. What two findings have challenged Piaget's belief that everyone reaches the formal operational stage?
    • 1. Arlin found that only about half of the adult population reaches this stage
    • 2. Lorten found that many adults use formal operational thinking only in areas of expertise and experience
  219. What is the major difference between Piaget's theory and Neo-Piagetian thought?
    Neo-Piagetians describe the increasing complexity of stages in terms of the child’s information processing system or the upper limits or constraints on levels of functioning
  220. Neo-Piagetians recognize the role of both ______________ and ______________ factors in cognitive development
    Endogenous (biological); exogenous (social learning and experience)
  221. What does information processing theory assert about cognitive development?
    The cognitive processes of the human mind compare to the functioning of computer programs and processes; Both process information through logical rules and strategies and have a limited capacity for the nature and amount of info that can be processed; Children can become better info processors through brain and sensory systems changes and learning rules and strategies for processing info better
  222. What is the main assertion of Vygotsky's sociocultural theory of cognitive development?
    Cognitive development depends on the social, cultural, and historical context and is directly related to social interactions
  223. In Vygotsky's theory, learning occurs on which two levels?
    • 1. Interpersonal-between the child and another person
    • 2. Intrapersonal-within the child
  224. According to Vygotsky, what is the zone of proximal development?
    The gap between what a child can do alone and what she/he can accomplish with help from parents or more competent peers
  225. According to Vygotsky, learning occurs most rapidly when teaching is within the _____________________.
    Zone of proximal development
  226. In Vygotsky's theory, what is scaffolding?
    Support provided to a child by others
  227. Under what three conditions is scaffolding most effective?
    • 1. When it involves giving cues
    • 2. When it involves encouraging thoughts about other potential actions
    • 3. When it involves modeling
  228. Babies' ability to recall is influenced by what 3 factors (the same as in older children and adults)?
    • 1. The nature of events
    • 2. The number of times they experience them
    • 3. The availability of cues or reminders
  229. Infants tested a which ages can recall details about hidden objects, their location, and their size?
    2,4,and 6 months
  230. Children in what age range are capable of both immediate and long-term recall of specific events in their lives?
    1 to 3
  231. By age 2, children can recall events that occurred _______________ prior.
    Several months
  232. What is infantile amnesia?
    The failure to retrieve memories from the first years of life; most adults cannot remember anything prior to age 3
  233. Infantile amnesia is theorized to be the result of what three factors?
    • 1. A lack of schematic organization of experience
    • 2. A different way of encoding in early childhood
    • 3. The importance of language development
  234. Regarding recall of events, children initially make memories through talking about them with _____________; later these conversations are carried out _______________.
    Someone else; within the child him/herself
  235. Children show significant gains in memory around age 7 due to which 4 factors?
    • 1. Increased short-term memory capacity
    • 2. Consistent use of rehearsal & other memory strategies
    • 3. Increased knowledge about things that are to be remembered
    • 4. Development of metamemory
  236. What is metamemory?
    Knowledge about one’s own memory processes
  237. Shortly after birth, infants emit 3 distinct cries. What are they?
    • 1. Basic cry, usually for hunger
    • 2. Pain cry
    • 3. Anger cry
  238. By three weeks of age, infants develop a 4th cry, which is what?
    The cry for attention
  239. What results are seen in both parents and non-parents when an infant cries?
    Signs of physiological arousal, including changes in heart rate and skin conductance
  240. First time mothers and fathers response more ____________ to infant cries than parents who already have children.
  241. Parents respond to infants' cries more ____________ than non-parents.
  242. Adults rate a _____ cry as the most unpleasant, and it yields the most physiological arousal.
  243. What is the most effective response to crying that a mother can provide to an infant under the age of 1?
    Lift the baby to her shoulder
  244. Parents are somewhat better at distinguishing the cries of _____________ as opposed to those of ____________.
    Their own child; other children
  245. What 3 components are included in the definition of "language"?
    • 1. It is a system of words that stand for something (serve as symbols)
    • 2. It is rule-governed
    • 3. Within the rules, it is creative (combine words to take on new meaning)
  246. What is cooing and when does it begin?
    Cooing begins in infants around 1-2 months of age; it consists of vowel-like sounds that are usually emitted when the infant is content
  247. What is babbling and when does it begin?
    Babbling begins in infants around 4-6 months of age; it is the repetition of consonant and vowel combinations (e.g., bababa)
  248. Babies from all linguistic environments (including deaf babies) begin babbling around the same time. At what age do babbling sounds narrow to languages that the child has been exposed to?
    9 months
  249. When do babies generally begin to utter their first words and what do these words generally refer to?
    10-16 months; usually refer to people or to manipulable or moving objects (e.g., mama, ball, cat) and to events that have salient properties of change (e.g., bye-bye, up, more)
  250. What is holophrastic speech and when does it occur?
    It generally occurs between 12-18 months; it involves the combination of a single word with gestures and intonation to express an entire thought or sentence
  251. What is telegraphic speech and when does it occur?
    It generally occurs between 18-24 months; it involves two word sentences that are made up of the most critical words (e.g, my truck, hi mommy)
  252. When does rapid vocabulary growth occur?
    Between 30 and 36 months; by the age of 3, children generally have a vocabulary of about 1000 words and can use simple 3-word sentences
  253. When does the development of complex grammatical forms occur in children?
    3-6 years
  254. What 7 developments are associated with the development of complex grammatical forms?
    • 1. Correct use of the verb "to be"
    • 2. Mastery of the concept of negation
    • 3. Asking questions
    • 4. Connection of whole sentences and verb phrases
    • 5. Production of embedded sentences
    • 6. Use of direct and indirect objects
    • 7. Use of passive voice
  255. How do traditional behavioral theories of language acquisition differ from more recent ones?
    Traditional theories view language acquisition as the result of classical and operant conditioning and imitation; more recent views focus on strategies that caregivers use to facilitate language development (e.g., motherese, recasting)
  256. What is motherese?
    Talking in simple sentences at a slow pace with a high-pitched voice
  257. What is recasting?
    Rephrasing a child's sentence in a different way
  258. What do nativist theories of language acquisition focus on?
    The role of innate, genetically-determined factors
  259. What does Chomsky believe about language acquisition?
    Consistent with a nativist theory, he believes humans are born with a biologically innate language acquisition device (LAD) that enables children who have acquired sufficient vocab to combine words into novel but grammatically consistent utterances and to understand the meaning of what they hear (cannot have been directly taught all of these rules)
  260. What three research findings seem to lend support for Chomsky's nativist theory of language acquisition?
    • 1. Certain aspects of language are universal
    • 2. There is brain lateralization for language
    • 3. Language is best acquired during a sensitive period
  261. What do cognitive theories of language acquisition assert?
    They view language development as a part of cognitive development and propose that language acquisition is motivated by a child’s desire to express meaning
  262. Consistent with a cognitive theory of language acquisition, what does Bowerman assert?
    Language does not introduce new meanings, but instead is used to express those meanings a child has already formulated independently of language
  263. How many American children speak a language other than English in their homes?
    3 million
  264. Research has shown that bilingual children perform better than monolingual children on which types of tests?
    • 1. Cognitive flexibility
    • 2. Divergent thinking
    • 3. Metalinguistic awareness
  265. What three factors have been found to influence the academic performance of bi/multilingual children?
    • 1. Age of second language acquisition
    • 2. Community support
    • 3. Academic services
  266. What did Ruiz find about academic performance of bilingual children?
    Children who are not proficient in their native language and then are abruptly submerged in an “English-only” educational environment risk semilingualism
  267. Related to bilingualism, what is semilingualism?
    Inadequate proficiency in both languages
  268. What is code switching?
    Changing to another language during a conversation
  269. What are three reasons that code switching might be used by bilingual individuals?
    • 1. If they cannot adequately express themselves in one language, they can switch to the other
    • 2. It's a sign of solidarity with the group that uses the minority language
    • 3. It is used to convey attitudes toward the listener (e.g., parent first asking in one language, when no compliance, asking in the other language)
  270. The idea of bilingual education continues to be controversial. It has been difficult to evaluate its effects because of which 3 confounding variables?
    • 1. Differences in teacher experience
    • 2. Differences in school resources
    • 3. Differences in SES of students
  271. Children in good-quality bilingual programs do ________ in acquiring English skills and learn subject matter ____________.
    as well; as well or better
  272. Regarding gender differences in communication, what 4 things are women more likely to do than men?
    • 1. Ask rhetorical questions
    • 2. Hesitate
    • 3. Use hedges (sort of, I guess)
    • 4. Add tag questions to statements (Isn't it?)
  273. What has research found regarding gender differences in interruptions?
    There is no difference in the number of times men vs. women interrupt, but women interrupt more often for rapport-building or cooperation
  274. What gender differences have been observed in the topics discussed by men vs. women in mixed-gender dyads?
    Men tend to discuss masculine or neutral topics, while women discuss more feminine topics
  275. What gender differences have been observed regarding the amount of talking that men vs. women do?
    Men tend to talk more overall or in certain circumstances
  276. As many as ________ percent of children have troubles with sleep during the first few years of life.
  277. Infant sleep problems often become _________ if left untreated.
  278. When are parents encouraged to begin "Ferberizing/progressive waiting method"?
    When infant is 5-6 months of age
  279. What is "Ferberizing/progressive waiting method"?
    A technique for training children to sleep on their own. It starts with a soothing pre-bedtime routine and putting the child down while still awake. If child begins to cry, parents go in after 5 minutes and provide verbal comforting only and then leave the room. With each progressive cry, the interval of waiting should be increased until the child falls asleep.
  280. If parents can endure Ferberizing, their children should be able to sleep on their own in how long?
    About one week
  281. Ferberizing should not be used with which type of children?
    Highly anxious
  282. What has research found regarding Ferberizing/progressive waiting method?
    It is effective in developing more stable sleep patterns and reversing maladaptive sleep problems
  283. What is attachment?
    the strong affectional tie we feel for special people in our lives that leads us to feel pleasure and joy when we interact with them and to be comforted by their nearness in times of stress
  284. What did Freud believe about attachment?
    He viewed it as the result of feeding (mother satisfies infant’s oral needs by providing nourishment)
  285. Describe Harlow's study re: attachment and its findings.
    He separated a monkey from its mother at birth and provided it with a surrogate wire and terry-cloth mother that did not provide the baby with food. Monkeys preferred the feel of the cloth monkey, clung to it, and ran to it when frightened even though no food was delivered. Provided support for the idea that contact comfort was more important than feeding.
  286. What is contact comfort?
    The pleasant tactile sensation provided by a soft, cuddly parent
  287. What are the main tenets of Bowlby's ethological theory?
    Infants and their mothers are biologically programmed for attachment. The infant is endowed with a set of built-in, attachment-related behaviors (sucking, crying, smiling, cooing). Mother responds with behaviors that are appropriate to the attachment needs (e.g., during 1st 6 wks of life, the mother varies the pitch and tone of her voice so that baby’s recognition of her is enhanced).
  288. What is the evolutionary usefulness of attachment-related behaviors in infants?
    To keep the infant’s mother in close proximity and thereby increase the infant’s chance of survival
  289. What are internal working models?
    Mental representations of the child’s self and their attachment figures that is developed during the first year of life and guide children’s behavior in later relationships
  290. Although infants begin to show preference for their mother by ___ months of age, clear signs of attachment are not visible until ____ months.
    4; 6 or 7
  291. What are the four primary signs of attachment?
    • 1. Social referencing
    • 2. Separation anxiety
    • 3. Stranger anxiety
    • 4. Response to prolonged separation
  292. What is social referencing and when does it begin to occur?
    Infants "read" the emotional reactions of their mothers, especially in uncertain situations, and use that information to guide their own behaviors
  293. What method has been used to study social referencing?
    The visual cliff
  294. What is the visual cliff and what findings has it yielded?
    It involves having the mother stand on the deep side of a cliff and the child on the shallow side. It has shown that when the mother smiles or says something in a soothing voice, the child will cross the cliff to be with her; when the mother frowns or utters a meaningless phrase in a fearful tone, the child often cries and will not cross the cliff
  295. When does separation anxiety first develop?
    Around 6 months of age
  296. When is separation anxiety strongest?
    Between 14-18 months of age; then, it gradually becomes less intense and frequent through preschool years
  297. What is separation anxiety?
    Infants respond with distress to separation from their primary caregiver(s)
  298. What is stranger anxiety?
    Infants have strong negative reactions to strangers
  299. When does stranger anxiety first develop?
    As early as 6 months, but more commonly at 8 to 10 months
  300. When is stranger anxiety strongest?
    At about 18 months of age; it is also affected by situational factors (e.g., whether their mother is nearby)
  301. When infants age 15-30 months were separated from their mothers for an extended period of time, what 3 sequential behaviors did they exhibit?
    • 1. Protest (loud crying, restlessness, rejection of attention from other adults)
    • 2. Despair (crying, inactivity, withdrawal)
    • 3. Detachment (apathy, may continue even when mother returns)
  302. Ainsworth conducted an experiment known as the "strange situation". What was it and what did it study?
    Used to study attachment patterns, the strange situation placed infants in situations where they spent time lone, with their mothers, and with a stranger.
  303. Ainsworth proposed that differences in attachment style are due to differences in what?
    How responsive a mother is to her child's needs
  304. What are the four attachment styles proposed by Ainsworth?
    • 1. Secure
    • 2. Anxious/avoidant
    • 3. Anxious/resistant
    • 4. Disorganized/disoriented
  305. How did babies who were securely attached respond to the strange situation?
    They actively explored the environment when alone or with mother; were friendly to a stranger when mother was present, but clearly preferred the mother; showed distress when the mother leaves and sought physical contact with her when she returned
  306. Mothers of children who exhibit a secure attachment style are ____________.
    Emotionally sensitive and responsive
  307. How did babies with anxious/avoidant attachment styles respond to the strange situation?
    They were uninterested in the environment, show little distress when mother left and avoided contact with her when she returned, wariness of strangers was variable
  308. Mothers of children who exhibit an anxious/avoidant attachment style are _________________.
    Either impatient and nonresponsive or overly responsive, involved, and stimulating
  309. How did babies with anxious/resistant attachment styles respond to the strange situation?
    They were anxious even when mother was present and became distressed when she left; they were ambivalent when she returns and sometimes resisted her attempts to make physical contact; they were very wary of a stranger even when mother was present
  310. Mothers of children who exhibit an anxious/resistant attachment style are __________________.
    Inconsistent in their responses, sometimes being indifferent and other times being enthusiastic
  311. How did babies with disorganized/disoriented attachment styles respond to the strange situation?
    They showed conflicting responses to their mother, alternating between avoidance/resistance and proximity-seeking; their overall behavior was dazed, confused, and apprehensive.
  312. A disorganized/disoriented attachment style is often observed in children who have been ___________________.
    Maltreated by their caregiver(s)
  313. What instrument has been utilized to investigate adult attachment patterns?
    The Adult Attachment Interview (AAI)
  314. What information is elicited through the use of the Adult Attachment Interview?
    It is used to elicit details about early family life, relationships with parents, and unresolved emotional issues; interviewees are asked to describe their relationship with their parents during childhood and to provide specific memories to support global evaluations
  315. What four categories do adult attachment patterns fall into?
    • 1. Secure-autonomous
    • 2. Dismissing
    • 3. Preoccupied
    • 4. Unresolved
  316. What characteristics are present in adults with secure-autonomous attachment patterns?
    They tend to value attachment relationships and have a secure base provided by at least one parents; they do not idealize parents or feel angry about their childhood; they can integrate both positive and negative experiences
  317. Most children of adults with a secure-autonomous attachment style have a ______________ attachment style.
  318. What characteristics are present in adults with dismissing attachment patterns?
    They tend to devalue the importance of attachment relationships, are guarded and defensive when asked about childhood, idealize their parents yet cannot support these evaluations with concrete examples
  319. 75 percent of children of adults with a dismissing attachment style have a _____________ attachment style.
  320. What characteristics are present in adults with preoccupied attachment patterns?
    They are confused and incoherent regarding attachment memories; their childhood is characterized by disappointment, frustrated attempts to please their parents, and role reversals; they remain enmeshed with family-of-origin issues and may be angry or have a sense of resignation about them
  321. Most children of adults with a preoccupied attachment style have a __________ attachment style.
  322. What characteristics are present in adults with an unresolved attachment pattern?
    They have experienced severe trauma and early losses that have not been mourned or integrated; they are frightened by memories associated with the trauma and may dissociate to avoid the pain; they have very negative and dysfunctional relationships with their own children, often being abusive and neglectful.
  323. Children of adults with an unresolved attachment pattern tend to have a ___________ attachment style.
  324. At what age do infants begin interacting with peers through smiling, touching, gesturing, and vocalizing?
    6 months
  325. At what age do peer interactions revolve
    around playing with toys and often involve fights over toys or displays of affection?
    14 months
  326. What developments in peer relations are observed during the preschool years?
    Children begin to prefer some peers over others, usually due to similarities in gender, age, and behavioral tendencies
  327. What two factors influence choice of peers amongst elementary school aged children?
    • 1. Gender (groups are often gender-segregated)
    • 2. Shared activities and reciprocity (mutual respect, affection, loyalty)
  328. While gender segregation of peer groups is common in ___________, it decreases in _________.
    Elementary school; adolescence
  329. In adolescence, peer relationships are based on what two factors?
    • 1. Intimacy and self-disclosure (especially for girls)
    • 2. Similarity in interests, attitudes, and values
  330. Gender differences in relationships become more pronounced with increasing _______.
  331. According to Maccoby's view of gender differences in social relationships, females have a more ________ style while males have a more ________ style.
    Enabling; restrictive
  332. According to Maccoby what are the characteristics of an "enabling style" most present in females' social relationships?
    This style serves to increase intimacy and equality between peers and is characterized by expressing agreement, making suggestions, and providing support
  333. According to Maccoby, what are the characteristics of a "restrictive style" most present in males' social relationships?
    This style tends to interfere with continuing interactions; includes bragging, contradicting, and interrupting
  334. According to Erwin, what gender differences are present regarding the function of relationships?
    Females emphasize the intimate, emotional aspects, while males emphasize shared activities and interests
  335. Although physical characteristics have been shown to contribute to popularity, what has been found to be even more important?
    Social behavior
  336. What three physical characteristics have been shown to influence popularity?
    • 1. Attractiveness
    • 2. Physical size
    • 3. Maturity
  337. Popular children are skilled at initiating and maintaining positive relationships. What other three characteristics have been found to be present amongst popular children?
    • 1. More intelligent
    • 2. More academically successful
    • 3. More outgoing, supportive, communicative, and nonpunitive
  338. What characteristics are present in children who are rejected by peers vs. those who are neglected?
    • 1. More psychological and behavioral problems (aggressiveness, disruptive behaviors, loneliness)
    • 2. These problems are more stable and more likely to continue into adulthood
    • 3. Less likely to improve social relationships over time and different circumstances (i.e., change in friend group)
  339. What characteristics are present in children who are neglected by peers vs. those who are rejected?
    • 1. Difficulties are related primarily to social isolation
    • 2. More likely to improve social relationships with changes in friend group
  340. Conformity regarding social relationships is strongest during what age range?
  341. Children are encouraged by peers to engage in both anti-social and prosocial behavior. During what time period is the encouragement of anti-social behavior strongest?
  342. Adolescents with what two beliefs about themselves are least susceptible to peer pressure?
    • 1. Believe they are competent
    • 2. Believe they are worthwhile
  343. In adolescents, peer pressure mainly impacts ____________ while parents have a greater impact on ______________.
    Attitudes & behavior related to status within the peer group (e.g., dress, choice of music); life decisions & values
  344. According to Piaget, what two stages of moral development are present in children?
    • 1. Heteronomous morality or morality of constraint
    • 2. Autonomous morality or morality of reciprocity
  345. According to Piaget, what is heteronomous morality or morality of constraint?
    It is a stage of moral development present in children ages 4-7; children at this stage believe that rules are absolute and unchangeable and breaking them leads to imminent justice; they also judge acts based on their consequences (the more severe the consequence, the worse the act)
  346. Piaget believed that heteronomous morality is due to which two developmental factors?
    • 1. Preoperational egocentrism
    • 2. Constraint of parental authority
  347. According to Piaget, what is autonomous morality or morality of reciprocity?
    It is a stage of moral development that is developed around ages 7 and 8; children at this stage understand that rules are developed between agreement of people and are alterable; they judge acts based on their intentions
  348. Piaget believed that autonomous morality is due to which three developmental factors?
    • 1. Decline in egocentrism
    • 2. Social interaction with peers
    • 3. Gradual release from adult vigilance and constraint
  349. According to Piaget, how do children under the age of 6 conceptualize lies?
    They understand them as things they are not supposed to say (similar to "dirty words")
  350. According to Piaget, how do children between the ages of 6 and 10 conceptualize lies?
    They label any untrue statement as a lie.
  351. According to Piaget, how do children ages 11 and older conceptualize lies?
    They understand that only intentionally false statements are lies
  352. What did Piaget believe about children's deliberate lying and what has research shown about this?
    Piaget believed that children do not deliberately lie until around age 7, but studies have shown that children as young as 3 or 4 will lie to avoid punishment or embarrassment
  353. How was Kohlberg's theory of moral development derived?
    It was derived through studies that presented subjects with hypothetical moral dilemmas and asking them what they thought the person should do
  354. How many stages are present in Kohlberg's theory of moral development?
  355. Including stages 1 and 2 of Kohlberg's theory of moral development, what is preconventional morality?
    Preconventional morality generally occurs until children are 10-13 years of age; this type of morality is based on the consequences of the act (good behaviors are rewarded, bad behaviors are punished)
  356. What is the name of the first stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral development and what are its characteristics?
    Punishment and obedience orientation; children focus on avoiding punishment when making moral judgments
  357. What is the name of the second stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral development and what are its characteristics?
    Instrumental hedonistic orientation; children view that which satisfies their own needs as moral
  358. Including stages 3 and 4 of Kohlberg's theory of moral development, what is conventional morality?
    Conventional morality generally occurs until mid-adolescence or later; moral reasoning is guided by the desire to maintain existing social laws, rules, and norms
  359. What is the name of the third stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral development and what are its characteristics?
    “Good boy-good girl” (social relations) orientation: focused on maintaining the approval or relatives and friends
  360. What is the name of the fourth stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral development and what are its characteristics?
    Authority and social order-maintaining orientation; focus on obeying society’s laws and rules
  361. Including stages 5 and 6 of Kohlberg's theory of moral development, what is post-conventional morality?
    Post-conventional morality is defined by self-chosen principles (not all individuals may get to this stage)
  362. What is the name of the fifth stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral development and what are its characteristics?
    Social contract and individual rights orientation; focused on upholding democratically-determined laws, but recognizes that the laws can be ignored or changed for a valid reason
  363. What is the name of the sixth stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral development and what are its characteristics?
    Universal ethical principles orientation; focus on fundamental ethical principles (justice, fairness) that transcend legal standards
  364. What are four key assumptions of Kohlberg's theory of moral development?
    • 1. They are passed through in an invariant sequence
    • 2. Not all people reach all stages
    • 3. Moral development is an outgrowth of cognitive development and results from disequilibrium, but cognitive growth itself does not promote progression through stages (other factors, including social perspective-taking parents’ childrearing practices, peer interactions, and formal education influence)
    • 4. Each stage represents an organized whole (the person applies a distinct pattern of moral reasoning to a wide variety of situations)
  365. What has research shown regarding the correlation between level of moral development and actual behavior?
    Studies have found a low correlation between stage of development and actual behavior
  366. What did Kohlberg believe about the relationship between level of moral development and actual behavior?
    Kohlberg believed that the higher the stage of development, the stronger the relationship between reasoning and behavior
  367. A study conducted by Kohlberg to examine the relationship between level of moral development and cheating yielded what results?
    55 percent of individuals who were in Stage 3 or 4 of moral development cheated when given the opportunity while 15 percent of individuals in Stage 5 cheated
  368. What criticisms of Kohlberg's theory have been asserted by Gilligan?
    Kohlberg's emphasis of principles of justice and fairness have a “male bias” (males are more likely to use these principles, while females refer to interpersonal connectedness and care); research has not supported this hypothesis
  369. What has research shown regarding gender differences in moral development?
    Studies have found no consistent gender differences in moral orientation and progress through stages
  370. A number of theorists suggest that children develop higher levels of conscience when parents relied on ______________ discipline techniques rather than on ______________ discipline techniques.
    Love-oriented; object-oriented
  371. What are examples of love-oriented discipline techniques?
    Praise, social isolation, withdrawal of affection
  372. What are examples of object-oriented discipline techniques?
    Tangible rewards, physical punishment, withdrawal or material objects/privileges
  373. Kochanska believed that for the development of conscience, the most effective form of discipline depends on what?
    The child's temperament
  374. To promote the development of conscience, what is the most effective form of discipline for fearful children?
    Gentle discipline that deemphasizes power and capitalizes on the child’s internal discomfort; this type of discipline elicits an optimal level of arousal in the child, which facilitates semantic processing of the parents’ message that can then become internalized
  375. To promote the development of conscience, what is most effective with fearless children?
    Secure attachment and maternal responsiveness which promotes cooperation based on positive motivation inherent in the relationship; gentle discipline is not effective due to an insufficient level of arousal in response to this type of discipline
  376. What is gender-role identity?
    An individual’s own sense of identification as male or female, distinguished from actual biological sex
  377. By age 3, what level of awareness do children have about gender?
    They have an established gender-role identity as either a boy or girl, recognize what is expected or appropriate based on this, and note that others are the same or opposite sex
  378. Gender-role identity has a ________ impact on self-esteem than biological sex.
  379. What is androgyny?
    Both masculine & feminine preferences and characteristics
  380. Androgyny is associated with the highest level of self-esteem for which gender?
    Both males and females
  381. Masculinity is associated with ___________ levels of self-esteem than femininity in both males and females.
  382. Gender-role differences decrease in late adolescence, but increase again during what time period?
    When the first child is born; women tend to take on child-rearing and domestic responsibilities
  383. What happens to gender roles in middle age?
    A degree of gender role reversal starts in middle age, with women becoming more independent, outgoing, active, and competitive and men becoming more dependent, sensitive, and passive
  384. What are the tenets of the social learning theory of gender-role identity development proposed by Kagan?
    It focuses on the role of social factors on the development of gender role identity, yet primarily emphasizes the impact of modeling and reinforcement; proposes children first gain gender-typed behaviors through rewards & punishments, modeling and imitation, and then develop a gender role identity
  385. What are the tenets of the gender schema theory of gender-role identity development proposed by Bern?
    Children develop schema about what is expected of them as girls or boys within a sociocultural environment; these schema influence how the perceive and think about the world, and then they apply those schema to their own behavior (e.g., adaptingattitudes & behaviors to fit the expectations of what boys or girls are “supposed to do”); classified as a social cognitive approach
  386. What are the tenets of the cognitive-developmental theory of gender-role identity development proposed by Kohlberg?
    Emphasizes cognitive processes that underlie gender role identity development; parallels cognitive development across three stages: gender identity, gender stability, and gender constancy
  387. What are the three stages of Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental theory of gender identity development?
    • 1. Gender identity- when a child recognizes that he or she is either male or female; usually developed by age 2 or 3
    • 2. Gender stability- the realization that gender identity is consistent over time (e.g., girls become women)
    • 3. Gender constancy- an understanding that gender doesn’t change because of changes in appearance, behavior, or situations; around 6 or 7 years of age
  388. What are the tenets of the psychodynamic theory of gender identity developed defined by Freud?
    Focuses on resolution of the phallic stage of development (e.g., identification with the same-sex parent)
  389. What is temperament?
    An individual’s basic behavioral style
  390. What research results provide evidence for temperament having a strong genetic component?
    Studies that show identical twins are more similar in terms of temperament than fraternal twins
  391. What did Kagan's research find about the relationship between temperament in early childhood and personality in later childhood?
    Followed two groups of children into early adolescence; 1/3 of children who were shy, fearful, and inhibited at 2 years old were sullen and inhibited at age 13; 1/2 of children who were outgoing, uninhibited, and social at 2 years old were enthusiastic and highly extroverted at age 13
  392. Temperament is relatively __________ during the first year of life.
  393. Temperament prior to age _______ is not a good predictor of temperament in childhood, adolescence, and adulthood.
  394. What did Korn find in a large-scale longitudinal study of temperament?
    Measures of temperament during infancy were poor predictors of measurements made later in life, but measurements during a 4-year period in elementary school was .42, and correlation between measurements in adolescence and early adulthood were .62.
  395. What nine characteristics did Thomas & Chess assert contribute to temperament?
    • 1. activity level
    • 2. rhythmicity
    • 3. approach/withdrawal
    • 4. adaptability
    • 5. threshold of responsiveness
    • 6. intensity of reaction
    • 7. quality of mood
    • 8. distractibility
    • 9. attention span/persistence
  396. Thomas & Chess concluded that the majority of children can be classified into three categories based on temperament. What are these three categories?
    • 1. Easy children
    • 2. Slow-to-warm-up children
    • 3. Difficult children
  397. According to Thomas & Chess, what are the characteristics of easy children?
    Usually cheerful, have reactions to new stimuli that are low to moderate in intensity, adapt easily to changes, and have regular feeding and sleeping schedules
  398. According to Thomas & Chess, what are the characteristics of slow-to-warm-up children?
    Often sad or tense, have low-intensity reactions to new stimuli, take time to adapt to change and initially withdraw from new experiences, and have variable feeding and sleeping schedules
  399. According to Thomas & Chess, what are the characteristics of difficult children?
    Respond to new experiences with irritability, are difficult to soothe, are very active, and have irregular feeding and sleeping schedules
  400. Thomas & Chess believe that healthy psychological development requires goodness-of-fit between temperament and __________.
    Environmental factors
  401. What is the focus of prevention and intervention programs based on Thomas & Chess's transactional model of development?
    Modification of the behaviors and overt attitudes of parents to better fit the child's temperament.
  402. What are the main assumptions of Freud's theory of psychosexual development?
    A person’s sexual impulses are centered in a different area of the body in each stage of development; too much or too little gratification of these impulses can result in the fixation of psychic energies at that stage
  403. What are the five stages of Freud's theory of psychosexual development?
    • 1. Oral stage
    • 2. Anal stage
    • 3. Phallic stage
    • 4. Latency stage
    • 5. Genital stage
  404. According to Freud, during what time period does the oral stage occur?
    Birth to one year
  405. What are the characteristics of Freud's oral stage?
    sensual pleasure is obtained through the mouth, tongue, and lips; newly-emerging ego directs the baby’s sucking activities toward the breast or bottle to satisfy hunger and obtain pleasant stimulation; fixation may result in habits such as thumbsucking, fingernail biting, and pencil chewing beginning in childhood and overeating and smoking later in life
  406. According to Freud, what result can occur if someone's needs are overgratified in any of the psychosexual stages?
    The person will be unwilling to move on to the next stage
  407. According to Freud, what result can occur if someone's needs are undergratified in any of the psychosexual stages?
    The person will continually seek gratification of the frustrated drive
  408. What are the characteristics of Freud's anal stage?
    pleasure is derived from the anal and urethral area of the body; the child must learn to postpone release of feces and urine, and toilet training becomes a major conflict; fixation produces anal retentiveness (obsessive punctuality, orderliness, and cleanliness) or anal expulsiveness (messiness and disorder)
  409. According to Freud, during what time period does the anal stage occur?
    1-3 years
  410. According to Freud, during what time period does the phallic stage occur?
    3-6 years
  411. What are the characteristics of Freud's phallic stage?
    The child derives pleasure from genital stimulation; the Oedipal (for boys) or Electra (for girls) conflict takes place – the child feels unconscious sexual desire for the opposite sex parent but represses this desire out of fear of the same-sex parent; if the conflict is resolved successfully, the child identifies with the same-sex parent and the superego is formed
  412. According to Freud, during what time period does the latency stage occur?
    6 years to puberty
  413. What are the characteristics of Freud's latency stage?
    Sexual instincts lie repressed and dormant; the child works on solidifying the superego by playing with and identifying with same-sex children and assimilating social values from the larger society
  414. According to Freud, during what time period does the genital stage occur?
  415. What are the characteristics of Freud's genital stage?
    The sexual drive of the early phallic stage is reactivated but can now be gratified through love relationships outside the family; if development has proceeded appropriately during earlier stages, this stage is characterized by mature sexuality
  416. What are the three main criticisms of Freud's psychosexual theory?
    • 1. It overemphasizes the influence of sexual feelings on development
    • 2. It fails to acknowledge the role of social and intellectual factors
    • 3. It does not address the developmental tasks of the later years
  417. What are the two main assumptions of Erikson's psychosocial theory of development?
    • 1. Each new stage builds on progress made in previous stages
    • 2. Successful outcome in each stage is more likely if previous conflicts have been successfully resolves
  418. What are the eight stages of Erikson's psychosocial theory of development?
    • 1. Trust vs. Mistrust
    • 2. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
    • 3. Initiative vs. Guilt
    • 4. Industry vs. Inferiority
    • 5. Identity vs. Identity Confusion
    • 6. Intimacy vs. Isolation
    • 7. Generativity vs. Stagnation
    • 8. Ego Integrity vs. Despair
  419. During what time period does Erikson's Trust vs. Mistrust stage occur?
    Birth to age 1
  420. What are the characteristics of Erikson's Trust vs. Mistrust stage?
    Due to warm, responsive parental care and pleasurable sensations while feeding, the infant gains a sense of confidence that caregivers are predictable, good, and gratifying. Mistrust of others results when the infant has to wait too long for comfort and is handled harshly
  421. During what time period does Erikson's Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt stage occur?
    1-3 years of age
  422. What are the characteristics of Erikson's Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt stage?
    Increasing motor control and cognitive skills lead to greater exploration and independence. Autonomy is fostered when parents offer guided opportunities for free choice and do not overly restrict or shame the child
  423. During what time period does Erikson's Initiative vs. Guilt stage occur?
    3-6 years of age
  424. What are the characteristics of Erikson's Initiative vs. Guilt stage?
    Through make-believe play, children learn about the roles and institutions of society and gain insight into the types of person they can become. Initiative, or a sense of ambition and responsibility, develops when parents support the child’s emerging sense of purpose and direction. Too many parental demands for self-control may lead to excessive guilt.
  425. During what time period does Erikson's Industry vs. Inferiority stage occur?
    6 years of age to puberty
  426. What are the characteristics of Erikson's Industry vs. Inferiority stage?
    Children develop the capacity for productive work and cooperation with others. Inferiority develops when experiences in school, in the peer group, or with parents do not foster feelings of competence and mastery
  427. During what time period does Erikson's Identity vs. Identity Confusion stage occur?
  428. What are the characteristics of Erikson's Identity vs. Identity Confusion stage?
    This marks the transition between childhood and adulthood. The tasks of earlier stages become integrated into a lasting sense of identity. The person optimally develops a coherent sense of who he or she is and what his or her place is in society. The negative outcome is confusion about one’s sexual and occupational identity.
  429. During what time period does Erikson's Intimacy vs. Isolation stage occur?
    Young adulthood
  430. What are the characteristics of Erikson's Intimacy vs. Isolation stage?
    Relationships with others enhance the person’s sense of identity and provide gratifying feelings of connectedness. Unsuccessful resolution results in an inability to establish close relationships, an intense fear of rejection, and isolation.
  431. During what time period does Erikson's Generativity vs. Stagnation stage occur?
    Middle adulthood
  432. What are the characteristics of Erikson's Generativity vs. Stagnation stage?
    This is a time of contributing to younger generations through child-rearing, serving as a mentor or teacher, and productive work. Failure to contribute in one or more of these ways results in a sense of stagnation and boredom.
  433. During what time period does Erikson's Ego Integrity vs. Despair stage occur?
    Old Age
  434. What are the characteristics of Erikson's Ego Integrity vs. Despair stage?
    People look back at who they are and what they have done during their lives. Integrity results from the feeling that life was worthwhile; despair and regret result from a sense of dissatisfaction.
  435. Research has shown that parenting can be described in terms of two basic dimensions. What are they?
    • 1. Warmth vs. Hostility
    • 2. Restrictiveness vs. Permissiveness
  436. What are the characteristics of a warm parent?
    A warm parent is affectionate, regularly puts the child’s needs first, is enthusiastic about the child’s activities, and responds to the child with empathy and sensitivity
  437. What are the characteristics of a hostile parent?
    A hostile parents is quick to criticize, rarely shows affection, and is overtly rejecting
  438. Children who come from warm families (as opposed to hostile families) generally have which 3 positive outcomes?
    • 1. They are more securely attached
    • 2. They have higher self-esteem and IQs
    • 3. They are more empathic and altruistic
  439. What are the characteristics of a restrictive parent?
    Restrictive parents are highly controlling and demanding and expect unwavering obedience to their rules
  440. What characteristics are generally observed in children of restrictive parents?
    Their children tend to be obedient and timid and have difficulty establishing close relationships.
  441. What are the characteristics of a permissive parent?
    Permissive parents have few rules, make few demands, and let children make their own decisions.
  442. What characteristics are generally observed in children of permissive parents?
    Children of highly permissive parents are relatively thoughtless toward others and are only moderately independent.
  443. What are the four basic parenting styles defined by Baumrind?
    • 1. Authoritative
    • 2. Authoritarian
    • 3. Permissive
    • 4. Uninvolved
  444. According to Baumrind, what are the characteristics of an authoritative parent?
    These parents set high standards for their children and expect them to comply with the rules; however, they gain control by explaining rules to their children and seeking children’s input into family decisions. They are also very warm and nurturant.
  445. What outcomes are typical for children of authoritative parents?
    Children of authoritative parents have the best outcomes; they are usually independent, achievement-oriented, friendly, and self-confident
  446. According to Baumrind, what are the characteristics of authoritarian parents?
    These parents are controlling and demanding and expect children to accept their commands in an unquestioning manner; when children are disobedient, these parents are likely to respond with punitive measures.
  447. What outcomes are typical for children of authoritarian parents?
    Children of authoritarian parents are often insecure, timid, and unhappy, and they may grow up to be dependent and lacking in motivation
  448. According to Baumrind, what are the characteristics of permissive parents?
    These parents, though nurturant and accepting, fail to assert their authority and do not set rules.
  449. What outcomes are typical for children of permissive parents?
    Children of permissive parents have difficulty controlling their impulses, ignore rules and regulations, and are not very involved in academic and work activities.
  450. According to Baumrind, what are the characteristics of uninvolved parents?
    These parents are undemanding and indifferent to or rejecting of their children; they display little commitment to being parents and keep their children at a distance
  451. What outcomes are typical for children of uninvolved parents?
    Children of uninvolved parents are often noncompliant and demanding, lack self-control, and are prone to antisocial behavior. Characteristics of uninvolved parents (weak parental supervision, lack of reasonable rules, lax or erratic discipline, and a parent-child relationship characterized by hostility, indifference, or apathy) are those that are most predictive of delinquency in adolescence
  452. In a study of college students, what did Strage and Brandt find regarding authoritative parenting?
    An authoritative parenting style was most predictive of higher academic achievement as measured by students’ grades, confidence, persistence, task involvement, and rapport with teachers
  453. What has research found regarding potential moderating effects of ethnicity and peer relations on the outcomes associated with an authoritative parenting style?
    Although African-American and Hispanic parents are more authoritative than Asian-American parents, their children, on average, perform poorly in school; this may be due to minority children being more influenced by peers as compared to White children in matters of academic achievement. African-American children received little support from their peers for academic achievement, whereas Asian-Americans’ peers encouraged and rewarded this
  454. For many years, it was assumed that all adolescents go through a period of distress and disequilibrium as they disengage from their families, begin to experience an adult sex drive, and attempt to construct an adult identity, but what has research found about this issue?
    Research suggests, however, that this characterization applied to no more than 20% of the adolescent population and that the rate of psychological disturbance among adolescents is not very different from the rates for younger children and adults
  455. What two gender differences have been observed in physical maturation in adolescence?
    • 1. While preadolescent boys and girls are about equal in strength and speed, in adolescence, boys become increasingly stronger and faster
    • 2. Adolescent growth spurt begins for girls about two years earlier than boys (age 10-1/2 for girls, age 12-1/2 for boys)
  456. Regarding sexual maturation and psychological adjustment, which group has been found to have the best outcomes (popularity, school performance, and self-image)?
    Early-maturing boys, followed by average-maturing boys and girls, followed by late-maturing girls
  457. Regarding sexual maturation and psychological adjustment, which group has been found to have the worst outcomes?
    Late-maturing boys, followed by early-maturing girls, who have the worst outcomes
  458. What outcomes are associated with early-maturing girls?
    Problems with emotional instability, declines in academic achievement, and drug and alcohol usage
  459. The relationship between time of sexual maturation (early to late) and psychological outcomes can be seen when examining an adolescent's actual level of maturation, but the relationship is even stronger when measuring maturation based on what?
    Adolescents’ perceptions of their maturity; it is an adolescent’s internal model of “normal” maturation that seems to be the most important for adjustment outcomes
  460. What are Marcia's four identity statuses?
    • 1. Identity Diffusion
    • 2. Identity Foreclosure
    • 3. Identity Moratorium
    • 4. Identity Achievement
  461. According to Marcia, what characteristics are present in an adolescent with identity diffusion?
    Young people in this stage have not undergone an identity crisis and are not committed to an identity; when asked about career choice, an adolescent exhibiting this pattern might say: “I haven’t given it much thought; I don’t know what I want to be.”
  462. According to Marcia, what characteristics are present in an adolescent with identity foreclosure?
    It is characterized by a strong commitment to an identity that was not the outcome of an identity crisis but, instead, was suggested by a parent or other person. A young person exhibiting this pattern is likely to say: “I’m going to be a therapist just like my dad.”
  463. According to Marcia, what characteristics are present in an adolescent with identity moratorium?
    This occurs when the person is having an identity crisis and is actively exploring different options and beliefs. In response to a question about career choice, someone exhibiting this pattern might say that she’s feeling very confused about what kind of job she wants and is skeptical about there being one that fits her likes and dislikes
  464. According to Marcia, what characteristics are present in an adolescent with identity achievement?
    This occurs when the individual has resolved his/her identity crisis and is committed to a particular identity; a young person exhibiting this pattern may say: “I’ve given it a lot of thought and I’ve decided to be a professional wrestler.”
  465. What two findings regarding Marcia's identity statuses were obtained from research conducted by Waterman?
    • 1. Only about 60% of people have achieved a stable identity by age 24
    • 2. An identity crisis (moratorium) is relatively uncommon and, when it occurs, it is most often during the early years of college
  466. What did Gilligan believe about the identity development of adolescent girls?
    They experience a "loss of voice" due to internalization of sexist messages; during adolescence, females are at a high risk for a “relational crisis”; pressure to conform can be seen during the middle school years; parents, teachers, and others working with adolescent girls must provide them with experiences that help them to remain connected to themselves and others
  467. With regard to Gilligan's thoughts about adolescent identity development in females, what is a "relational crisis"?
    Girls' pressure to abandon themselves and others in order to conform to cultural expectations about femininity
  468. What three fears are most common in infancy?
    • 1. Loud noises
    • 2. Strange objects
    • 3. Strangers
  469. What three fears are most common in early childhood?
    • 1. Fear of animals (peaks at age 3)
    • 2. Fear of the dark (age 4 and 5)
    • 3. Fear of imaginary creatures (age 5)
  470. During adolescence, fears are often related to _____________ or _______________ situations.
    Social; sexual
  471. About ____ percent of children over 5 have fears that are excessive or unrealistic.
  472. What type of treatment, asserted by Kanfer and colleagues, is the most effective treatment for children's fears of the dark?
    A self-control procedure that involves making self-statements (e.g., "I am brave and I can take care of myself in the dark").
  473. What is contact desensitization and what childhood fears is it most effective in treating?
    Contact desensitization involves the therapist modeling each step on an anxiety hierarchy before exposing the child to it; it's effective in treating a number of fears, including those of snakes and swimming pools
  474. What is participant modeling and what childhood fears is it most effective in treating?
    Participant modeling is a therapeutic technique in which a therapist demonstrates the desired behavior and a client is aided, through supportive encouragement, to imitate the modeled behavior; it is effective in treating fears of animals, dental or medical treatments, test anxiety, and social withdrawal.
  475. No gender differences are present in aggressive behavior prior to age one, but during the next few years, boys become ________ aggressive while girls become ________ aggressive.
    More; less
  476. What type of aggression are boys more likely to engage in?
    Overt (physical and verbal) forms of aggression
  477. What type of aggression are girls more likely to engage in?
    Relational aggression, including teasing or excluding the victim from the peer group
  478. Most experts believe that gender differences are due to a combination of ___________ and ___________ factors.
    Biological; environmental
  479. It has been suggested that prenatal exposure to _______________ increases the predisposition to aggression and ___________ factors determine whether this potential is realized.
    Androgens; environmental
  480. What three environmental factors have been linked to aggression?
    • 1. Parenting factors
    • 2. Cognitive factors
    • 3. TV viewing
  481. What did Perry & Busey find regarding the link between parenting behaviors and aggression?
    Highly aggressive children often come from homes where the parents are rejecting and lacking in warmth, are either very permissive or indifferent toward their child’s aggressiveness, and rely on power assertive discipline as a means of control
  482. What did Cohn find regarding the link between aggression and attachment?
    High levels of aggression are associated with an insecure/resistant attachment pattern
  483. What did Patterson et al. find regarding the link between aggression and parental monitoring?
    High aggression was associated with lax monitoring of children's activities and behaviors
  484. What is Patterson et al.'s coercive family interaction model of aggression?
    This model reflects a social learning perspective and proposes that children learn to act aggressively as a result of both imitation and the rewards they receive for acting in aggressive ways; parents model aggression through their parenting practices, which typically involve high rates of commands combined with inconsistent, harsh physical punishment
  485. What did Perry, Perry, and Rasmussen find in their study regarding the social cognitions of aggressive vs. non-aggressive children?
    Aggressive children were much more likely to: 1) Report that it is easier to perform aggressive acts and difficult to inhibit aggressive impulses; and 2) Feel confident that aggression will have positive outcomes including reducing aversive treatment by others
  486. What are the five steps of Dodge & Crick's cognitive model of aggression?
    • 1. Encoding of social cues
    • 2. Interpretation of social cues
    • 3. Response search
    • 4. Response evaluation
    • 5. Response enactment
  487. According to Dodge and Crick, how is aggression related to cognitive processing?
    Skillful processing at each step in the cognitive mode will lead to competent performance, whereas biased or deficient processing will lead to deviant, possibly aggressive, antisocial behavior (example: aggressive children are more likely to interpret ambiguous acts of others as intentionally hostile)
  488. Children in the US spend more time ______________ than any other waking activity.
    Watching tv
  489. Huesmann et al. found that childhood exposure to TV violence is stimulating an increase in what?
    Adult aggression in males and females; these effects persist even when controlling for SES, intellectual ability, age, and parenting factors
  490. Although there is some evidence that the negative effects of watching violent TV are greater for those who are already above average in aggression, recent findings showed that what three factors predicted adult aggression regardless of the initial level of aggressiveness of the child?
    • 1. More childhood exposure to TV violence
    • 2. Greater childhood identification with same-sex aggressive TV characters
    • 3. Stronger childhood belief that violent shows tell about life "just like it is"
  491. Viewing TV violence ________ tolerance of violent behavior in others.
  492. Research has shown that the effects of TV violence may be mitigated, to some degree, by which four factors?
    • 1. The presence of an adult while viewing TV aggression
    • 2. Parental disapproval of aggression
    • 3. Parental encouragement of nonaggressive behaviors
    • 4. Limitations on the viewing of violent shows
  493. Social skills training has been found most effective for intervening with highly aggressive children. What does it involve?
    • 1. Teaching alternate ways of resolving conflict
    • 2. Using cognitive interventions to help children accurately interpret the statements and behaviors of others
    • 3. Empathy training , in which children are encouraged to identify the feelings of others and to express their own feelings in non-aggressive ways
  494. What is the cathartic approach and what has research shown regarding its effectiveness in treating aggression?
    It involves providing children with opportunities to safely vent their aggression; It has been found to be ineffective, and some studies suggest that aggression can be stimulated by this kind of experience
  495. What is the purpose of Patterson et al's behavioral modification program and what does it involve?
    It is designed to alter parents’ interactions with aggressive children; parents are taught to reinforce desirable behaviors, consistently enforce rules, and to use time-out and similar techniques as alternatives to physical punishment
  496. In a 20-year longitudinal study of Hawaiian children, Werner and Smith found that infants at high-risk for developmental difficulties were less likely to develop problems when which two conditions were met?
    • 1. They were temperamentally "easy" and socially responsive as infants
    • 2. They had a consistent caregiver (mother, father, older sibling, or other relative)
  497. Research has shown that children with chronic health conditions involving the brain exhibit which adjustment problems as compared to those with conditions that do not involve the brain?
    More behavior problems and poorer social functioning
  498. What has been found regarding the relationship between family functioning and adjustment of chronically ill children?
    Family cohesion and support for the child are positively correlated with adjustment
  499. High levels of maternal ________ are associated with poor adjustment in chronically ill children.
  500. What gender differences have been observed in adjustment of chronically ill children?
    Chronically ill boys (especially those aged 6-11) are greater risk for behavioral problems than chronically ill girls, while girls are at greater risk for self-reported symptoms of distress
  501. Chronically ill adolescents are at high risk for what behavior?
    Treatment non-compliance; this is due in part to their increased concern about “being different” from peers (adolescent hemophiliacs may participate in full contact sports; those with diabetes may intentionally deviate from dietary requirements or neglect insulin injections)
  502. What has been found with regard to the link between time at which a child is told they have a chronic illness and adjustment?
    Children who are told about their illness early have better psychological adjustment than those who learn about their disorder later and in an indirect way
  503. In her discussion of childhood cancer, Bracken concludes that the best approach to telling children about their illness involves which 3 components?
    • 1. Tell the child in a way that is consistent with the child’s age and level of understanding
    • 2. child should also be provided with many opportunities to ask questions and discuss fears
  504. What did Bracken find regarding children's age and fear about their chronic illness?
    Children age 4-5 are usually most worried about mutilation, while school-aged children are most concerned about pain and death
  505. Recent findings indicate that the rate of current illicit drug use among those 12 or older is about _____ percent, a significant decline from 1999.
  506. The top three most commonly used drugs are:
    • 1. Tobacco
    • 2. Alcohol
    • 3. Marijuana
  507. What did Kandal et al find regarding teen drug use?
    Teens who had used a particular drug in high school were likely to be using the same drug in their early 20’s
  508. Cigarette smokers are more likely to exhibit which two problems?
    • 1. Respiratory problems
    • 2. Depression
  509. According to a 2006 SAMHSA survery, in the last month, ____% of respondents had smoked cigarettes, ____% of respondents had consumed at least one alcoholic drink, and ____% had used marijuana.
    10.4, 16.6, and 6.7
  510. Illicit drug users are more likely to have a history of which two problems as compared to non-users?
    • 1. Marital and job instability
    • 2. Delinquent behavior
  511. The life circumstances of many divorcing parents leads to a "diminished capacity to parent" that typically continues for about how long after the divorce?
    Two years
  512. When parents are divorcing, what generally happens to ordinary household routines?
    They disintegrate (e.g., scheduled meals and bedtimes, completion of household chores, parent-child activities)
  513. When divorcing, parents often become inconsistent in their discipline, vacillating between being _______ and ___________.
    Detached; highly punitive
  514. When divorcing, what changes are generally observed in mothers?
    They show less affection toward their children, especially their sons, who they may treat more harshly
  515. When divorcing, what changes are generally observed in fathers?
    They become more indulgent and permissive
  516. Through the process of a divorce, what amount of time does the parent without primary physical custody generally spend with children?
    Initially, they spend more time with children, but this contact often diminishes over time
  517. Research has found that what three factors moderate children's reactions to divorce?
    • 1. Age
    • 2. Gender
    • 3. Custodial arrangement
  518. What outcomes are associated with divorce for children who are preschool aged?
    Preschool children have the most negative outcomes, especially in the short run; because of their limited cognitive abilities, it is difficult for them to understand the reasons for the divorce, and they are prone to self-blame, reversion to more immature behaviors, and intense separation anxiety
  519. What did Wallerstein find regarding the influence of child's age on divorce-related outcomes?
    Long-term consequences are worse for children who are older than preschool age; 10 years post-divorce preschoolers had few memories of the period surrounding the divorce, while older children expressed painful memories and fears about their own ability to have a happy marriage
  520. What has research found regarding the influence of divorce on boys?
    Preadolescent boys often exhibit an increase in noncompliance, demandingness, and hostility
  521. What has research shown regarding gender differences in divorce-related outcomes?
    Early research suggested that boys suffer more severe long- and short-term consequences, but recent research suggests that girls experience consequences as well but they are exhibited differently
  522. What has research found regarding the influence of divorce on girls?
    Girls are more likely to exhibit internalizing behavior (e.g., withdrawal, self-criticism) immediately after a divorce; they may also experience a "sleeper effect" (preschool and elementary aged girls at the time of the separation may have few problems, but as adolescents, they exhibit noncompliance, low self-esteem, emotional problems, and antisocial behavior); girls from divorced families are also more likely to marry young, be pregnant prior to marriage, and choose a psychologically unstable husband
  523. Research has been somewhat inconsistent regarding the influence of custody arrangements on divorce-related outcomes. What two findings have been most prevalent?
    • 1. Children who live with the same-sex parent are better adjusted than those who live with the opposite-sex parent, and this may be especially true for boys
    • 2. For adolescent males and females, father custody is associated with higher rates of depression and anxiety, poorer grades, and other problems
  524. What outcomes on school performance have been observed in children from divorced parents as compared to children from intact families?
    They obtain lower grades, like school less, exhibit more peer and behavioral problems, and are at higher risk of dropping out
  525. There is evidence that negative effects of divorce on school performance are worse for ________ and ________ children.
    Girls; older
  526. Some researchers assert that the relationship between divorce and negative effects on school performance is actually a "low-income effect." What does this mean?
    When family income is taken into account, the relationship between divorce and measures of school performance tends to weaken
  527. What has research found regarding the effect of conflict in parental relationships on children of divorced and intact families?
    Children who are exposed to open conflict in both intact and divorced families are more likely to experience negative outcomes that those from low-conflict families
  528. What four factors have been shown to mitigate the negative effects of divorce on children?
    • 1. Children maintaining positive relationships with both parents
    • 2. The extended family is available as a support system
    • 3. The school environment is positive
    • 4. Divorce does not cause substantial upheaval in the child's daily routines
  529. What has research found regarding the relationship between divorce and preexisting difficulties in children?
    Children who exhibit serious adjustment problems following divorce are often those who already had difficulties prior to the divorce
  530. When a custodial mother has another adult in the house (e.g., her own mother or a friend), this has a “buffering effect” and reduces negative consequences for children; however, this effect may not apply to _________.
  531. Stepparent families tend to have higher levels of what type of parenting style?
  532. What two negative outcomes have been observed for children with stepparents as compared to children living with both biological parents?
    • 1. Lower school grades
    • 2. Higher rates of delinquency
  533. What effects can the addition of a stepfather have on boys?
    In younger boys, it can reduce anxiety, anger, and other adjustment problems, but adolescent boys continue to have a variety of problems
  534. Do children tend to have more problems with biological parents or stepparents?
  535. What has research found regarding the relationships between stepfathers and children?
    It is often distant, disengaged, and unpleasant; the relationship between stepfathers and sons may improve over time, but this does not seem to be the case for daughters
  536. What has research found regarding the relationships between stepmothers and children?
    It often involves more frequent interaction, but this contact is generally abrasive
  537. What has research found regarding the outcomes associated with being raised by gay or lesbian parents?
    Being raised by gay or lesbian parents does not increase the risk for negative outcomes
  538. What similarities have been observed between lesbian mothers and heterosexual mothers and their children?
    Mothers are similar in terms of maternal attitudes, parenting style, problems associated with child rearing, and overall psychological adjustment; children of divorced lesbians do not differ from children of divorced heterosexuals in terms of worry, fears, physical complaints, conduct, sociability, popularity, hyperactivity, gender identity, or sex-stereotyped play
  539. What similarities have been observed between gay fathers and heterosexual fathers and their children?
    Fathers are similar in terms of parenting style, attitudes toward parenting, and level of involvement with their children; children of gay fathers do not differ significantly from children of heterosexuals on measures of adjustment; sons of gay parents are no more likely to be homosexual than the sons of heterosexual parents
  540. According to research on the subject, what is the relationship between maternal employment and maternal life satisfaction?
    In families where both parents work, maternal employment is associated with greater life satisfaction for both low and middle income mothers, as long as the mother’s employment status is consistent with her and her partner’s preferences
  541. What positive effects have been found regarding maternal employment on children?
    Children of employed mothers have higher levels of self-esteem and better family and peer relations than children of non-employed mothers, and they are less sex-stereotyped in their beliefs and attitudes
  542. What differences have been found regarding the effects of maternal employment on daughters vs. sons?
    Positive effects may be more pronounced for daughters than sons, with daughters of employed mothers having higher self-esteem and being more career and achievement oriented and more assertive than daughter of non-employed mothers; Early studies found that in middle-class families, sons of working mothers scored lower on measures of school achievement and intelligence than children of non-working mothers, but recent studies have only confirmed this when the mother works more than 40 hours per week
  543. What effect does family type (traditional vs. egalitarian) have on the relationship between maternal employment and outcomes for children?
    Family type mediates the impact of maternal employment; in traditional dual-earner families (where there is gender inequality in family roles), children may exhibit more anxiety and depression and may rate themselves lower in terms of peer acceptance and school achievement than children from egalitarian dual-earner families
  544. What did Gottfried et al find in a longitudinal study examining the effects of maternal employment on children?
    There are no long-term effects of maternal employment (i.e., adolescents whose mothers were either employed or not employed during their younger years showed no significant differences in terms of emotional, cognitive, or behavioral development)
  545. Although fathers interact more with their children now than two decades ago (especially when the mother is employed), they still spend considerably ____ time with their children than mothers.
  546. What differences have been observed in the types of interactions that mothers vs. fathers have with their children?
    Maternal interactions with infants usually revolve around caregiving, but fathers spend more time with their infants in play activities; the play of fathers tends to be “rough-and-tumble” while mothers play with infants in less physical and less arousing ways
  547. When mothers work full-time and fathers assume the role of primary caregiver, traditional parental roles do not necessarily change. What did Lamb et al find in a longitudinal study of Swedish parents regarding this issue?
    Even when fathers were the primary caregiver, mothers were still more likely than fathers to soothe, hold, kiss, vocalize to, and discipline their young children
  548. What are sibling relationships generally like in early childhood?
    There are both positive and negative interactions between siblings, but positive interactions are usually more common
  549. What child-related factors contribute to sibling rivalry?
    It is most likely to occur when siblings are of the same gender and are close in age and when one or both siblings are highly active and emotionally intense
  550. What parent-related factors contribute to sibling rivalry?
    It is more common when parents have inconsistent disciplinary practices, when parents consistently treat children differently, and when parents do not pay enough attention to the children
  551. What are sibling relationships generally like in middle childhood?
    They are characterized by a combination of closeness and conflict; siblings report greater warmth and companionship during this time, but also more friction and fighting
  552. What are sibling relationships generally like in late childhood and adolescence?
    The relationship between siblings becomes more egalitarian in terms of power and nurturance and there is usually a decline in sibling involvement as peer relationships become increasingly important; conflicts may continue especially when siblings are closer in age, but they usually peak in adolescence and then decline
  553. Which three personality traits have been found to be fairly stable across the lifespan?
    • 1. Happiness
    • 2. Assertiveness
    • 3. Hostility
  554. In women, what personality traits change during the adult years?
    Women experience increases in self-efficacy and assertiveness and decrease in dependence
  555. In men, what personality traits change during the adult years?
    Men experience increases in nurturance and interpersonal orientation
  556. What personality dimension often shifts at mid-life?
    People change from being extraverted to introverted
  557. What four "seasons" are defined by Levinson?
    • 1. Infancy through adolescence
    • 2. Early adulthood
    • 3. Middle adulthood
    • 4. Late adulthood
  558. According to Levinson, what are the three substages of early adulthood?
    • 1. Entering the adult world
    • 2. The age 30 transition
    • 3. Settling down
  559. According to Levinson, what task is associated with the age 30 transition?
    Defining "the dream," a vision of an ideal life
  560. According to Levinson, what two conflicts occur in the transition from early to middle adulthood (ages 40-45)?
    • 1. Being young vs. being old
    • 2. Being attached to others vs. being separated
  561. According to Levinson, what task occurs in the transition from early to middle adulthood (ages 40-45)?
    "Deflation of the dream" - the individual realizes that his/her goals are not really worthwhile and/or will not be fulfilled
  562. What was the gender proportion in the sample of Levinson's original study and then subsequent study, and what was found regarding gender?
    Levinson's original study included only males, but his subsequent study included both males and females. He confirmed that females are very similar to males in terms of developmental stages and tasks
  563. What did Levinson's study and then subsequent research find regarding mid-life crises?
    Levinson reported that 80% of men in his original sample experienced a mid life crisis. Subsequent research has found that while midlife is a time of reevaluation, it is only a crisis period for a minority of individuals. Midlife is not necessarily associated with increases in emotional disturbance.
  564. What was the purpose of Neugarten's Kansas City study and what were the general findings?
    The study investigated personality characteristics of adults aged 40 to 70; they found that adulthood is a time of both consistency and change
  565. Neugarten and her colleagues found that while certain adaptive characteristics (e.g., style of coping) are relatively stable, what two characteristics were found to change with age (particularly around age 50)?
    • 1. Outer-world orientation to inner world orientation
    • 2. Active to passive mastery
  566. What differences in 40 vs. 60 year olds did Neugarten observe regarding their view of the environment?
    40 year old participants were much more likely than 60 year olds to say that had control over the environment; 60 year olds were more likely to say they felt threatened by the environment
  567. Neugarten's study found that midlife is characterized by what shift in perspective?
    "Time from birth" to "time until death"
  568. What has research shown regarding increasing age and intelligence?
    Increasing age has relatively little effect on verbal tasks that measure the individual's acquired knowledge but does have a negative impact on nonverbal tasks that require rapid responding to and processing of novel stimuli
  569. The "classic aging pattern" on the WAIS consists of what patterns?
    Minimal decline on the 4 subtests that measure stored knowledge (Information, Vocabulary, Arithmetic, and Comprehension); moderate decline on the other two verbal subtests (Similarities and Digit Span); and sharper decline on the performance subtests
  570. What explanation has been offered for the "classic aging pattern" observed on the WAIS?
    Verbal tests requires crystallized intelligence, which is relatively unaffected by changes in brain functioning, while nonverbal tests depend on fluid intelligence which is directly affected by the loss of neurons and depletion of certain neurotransmitters associated with age
  571. What is crystallized intelligence?
    Reflects knowledge acquired through education and other experiences
  572. What is fluid intelligence?
    Involves active processing of information
  573. What is "terminal drop"?
    The phenomenon observed in which individuals exhibit a substantial drop in all facets of intelligence in the months before death
  574. The most consistent finding regarding cognitive functioning and age is a decrease in what?
    Processing speed, slowing of both mental and physical functions occur
  575. Reduced ________________ is believed to underlie many of the age-related declines that are found on cognitive and perceptual tasks.
    Information processing speed
  576. What has research found regarding age and the optimal time of day for completion of certain cognitive tasks?
    The optimal time of day for young children is morning; around age 12, it becomes evening; in late adulthood, it shifts back to morning
  577. What is the "synchrony effect"?
    The beneficial effect of matching task demands and preferred time of day
  578. What types of responses are positively affected by the synchrony effect?
    All responses, except highly practiced ones
  579. What functions are particularly vulnerable to time of day effects (lack of synchronization of optimal time of day and tasks)?
    Attentional regulation over both incoming information and outgoing responses
  580. What two types of attention are not significantly affected by aging?
    • 1. Sustained
    • 2. Selective
  581. What type of attention is adversely affected by aging?
    Divided attention (e.g., dichotic listening tasks in which different information is presented to the left and right ears)
  582. At what age does the brain begin to shrink due to neuronal loss?
    Around age 30
  583. At what age does an acceleration in brain atrophy occur?
    Age 60
  584. What three areas of the brain are especially impacted by age-related neuronal loss?
    • 1. Hippocampus
    • 2. Cortex
    • 3. Locus cereleus
  585. What brain functions decrease with age?
    • 1. Blood flow
    • 2. Level of neurotransmitters
  586. How does the brain compensate for neuronal loss associated with age?
    By developing new connections between the remaining neurons
  587. Research has found that new brain cells develop in the _______ during the adult years.
  588. The greatest age-related declines are found in ____________ memory, followed by ____________ memory.
    Recent long-term memory; working memory
  589. What affects are seen regarding age on remote long-term memory?
    It is relatively unaffected
  590. What is believed to underlie age-related declines in recent long-term memory and what has been found to help with this?
    Problems with encoding strategies; memory training can be helpful for older adults, especially if it teaches them to generate their own memory strategies and fosters a positive attitude about their potential to improve
  591. What is another name for recent long-term memory?
    Secondary memory
  592. While memory training has been found to be useful in assisting with age-related memory declines, for what problems is it not useful?
    Alzheimer's dementia or other brain pathology
  593. What is episodic memory?
    Memory responsible for the ability to recall personal experiences
  594. What is semantic memory?
    Memory of meanings, understandings, and other concept-based knowledge
  595. Together, episodic memory and semantic memory make up what type of memory?
    Declarative or explicit memory
  596. What is procedural memory?
    Memory for the performance of particular types of action
  597. Procedural memory is a type of __________ memory.
  598. What two types of memory make up short-term memory?
    Primary and working memory
  599. What is primary memory?
    The memory responsible for the ability to retain a small amount of information in conscious memory for a short period of time
  600. Regarding primary memory, what differences are observed between older and younger adults?
  601. What is working memory?
    The capacity to manipulate and transform information while it is held in primary memory
  602. What is believed to underlie age-related deficits in working memory?
    Older adults usually show some decline due to a loss of processing speed rather than storage capacity
  603. Episodic memory (as compared to semantic and procedural memory) appears to be most affected by age. Why is this believed to be the case?
    These effects are most likely due to problems with deliberate processing and retrieval; older adults have more difficulty when episodic memory is tested using recall rather than recognition tests
  604. Historically, research on aging and memory has investigated verbal memory, but recent research has examined nonverbal (visuospatial) memory as well. What are the findings of this research?
    Age-related declines in nonverbal memory mirror those in verbal memory
  605. What is prospective memory?
    The ability to remember to do things in the future
  606. Regarding age-related declines in prospective memory, impairments are more likely to occur with which types of tasks?
    Time-based tasks that require a response at regular intervals; age-related declines are less evident in event-based tasks that require a response to a future cue
  607. What is implicit memory?
    Automatic, nonconscious recollection of material
  608. What is explicit memory?
    Conscious recollection of material
  609. What has research found regarding age-related declines in explicit vs. implicit memory
    Deficits in explicit memory are observed in older adults, but generally they do not have problems with implicit memory
  610. What is metamemory?
    Knowledge about one’s own memory capacity and processes
  611. Generally, what has been found regarding age and metamemory?
    In general, older adults tend to be less accurate than younger adults in estimating their own memory, but the nature of the inaccuracy is dependent on the situation.
  612. If older adults are asked to estimate their general memory efficiency, they tend to _______________; while they tend to _______________ when making predictions about their performance on a particular task.
    Underestimate; overestimate
  613. What is wisdom?
    Expertise in the fundamental pragmatics of life permitting exceptional insight and judgment involving complex and uncertain matters of the human condition
  614. How is wisdom studied?
    By asking participants to subjects to think aloud about different difficult life issues
  615. In general, what has research found regarding age and wisdom?
    At least for certain people (including clinical psychologists), wisdom increases over the lifespan
  616. Until very old age, ____________ and _____________ are more important determinants of wisdom than intelligence.
    Personality factors; wisdom-related experience
  617. Which researchers were first to identify age-related physiological changes that affect
    Masters and Johnson
  618. What physical changes regarding sexuality have been found in older women?
    Less intense orgasms, thinner vaginal walls, and reduced sexual lubrication
  619. Regarding sexuality and aging, older women do not differ from younger women in terms of ___________.
    Sex drive
  620. What physical changes regarding sexuality have been found in older men?
    Erections occur less spontaneously, require more time to develop, and are more difficult to maintain; also, they exhibit a longer refractory period
  621. What is a refractory period?
    The time after ejaculation before another erection can occur
  622. For both men and women, sexual activity ___________with age, but the degree is variable.
  623. At every age, women report less sexual activity and interest than men, but at what age does this effect become more pronounced?
    In the mid- to late-60s
  624. Among men and women, what is the best predictor of sexual activity later in life?
    Sexual activity in earlier decades
  625. For women, ___________ is highly related to sexual activity in later adulthood; for men, ____________ is a strong predictor.
    Marital status (or availability of a sexual partner); health status
  626. What belief do children under age 2 have about death?
    None; they lack understanding of death
  627. What belief do children ages 2-7 have about death?
    They think death is a reversible sleep-like state
  628. What belief do children ages 7-11 have about death?
    They understand that death is irreversible and become anxious about the death of loved ones
  629. At what age does the fear of death peak?
    Middle age
  630. Elderly adults talk _____ about death and appear _____ fearful of it.
    More; less
  631. What five stages did Kubler-Ross believe people go through when faced with their own death?
    • 1. Denial
    • 2. Anger
    • 3. Bargaining
    • 4. Depression
    • 5. Acceptance
  632. Contrary to stages defined by Kubler-Ross, what has research shown regarding the experience of terminally ill individuals?
    They experience a wide range of emotions, but not necessarily in a fixed sequence; hope is a common feeling