Test 3 - Speedback 2 - questions1.txt

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  1. 1. When surface tension is too great, the alveoli collapse. This is prevented by
    A. water
    B. mucus
    C. surfactant
    D. type 1 cells
  2. 2. What cells are responsible for digesting foreign particles that enter the lungs?
    A. type 1 cells B. type 2 cells C. monocytes D. dust cells
  3. 3. Gas exchange between the blood and lungs is
    A. pulmonary ventilation
    B. external respiration
    C. gas transport
    D. internal respiration
  4. 4. The cough reflex originates at the
    A. primary bronchi B. tongue
    C. larynx
    D. carina
  5. 5. What epithelial lining of the nasal cavity is
    A. simple cuboidal
    B. simple columnar
    C. stratified squamous
    D. pseudostratified columnar
  6. 6. The alveoli are lined by______________cells.
    A. Simple squamous
    B. simple cuboidal
    C. simple columnar
    D. stratified squamous
  7. 7. The volume of voice is controlled by
    A. the force of expired air
    B. the tension in the vocal folds C. the size of the larynx
  8. 8. What are the smallest tubes of the bronchial tree?
    A. bronchioles
    B. terminal bronchioles C. segmental bronchi D. lobar bronchi
  9. 9. What layer of the trachea contains the glands?
    A. mucosa
    B. submucosa C. adventitia
  10. 10. Internal respiration occurs
    A. between the blood and lungs.
    B. only in the cariovasucalr system. C. between the blood and cells.
    D. in the lungs
  11. 11. The respiratory membrane is
    A. a layer of simple squamous epithelium.
    B. primarily type 2 cells.
    C. the combination of alveolar and capillary walls. D. the same as the alveolar wall.
  12. 12. The serosa surrounding the lungs is the
    A. the pleura
    B. the pleural cavity C. thoracic cavity
    D. serosal cavity
  13. 13. The siaphragm is innercated by the _____________nerve(s).
    A. vagus
    B. phrenic
    C. pleural
    D. intercostal
  14. 14. The respiratory system is fully matured
    A. in a fetus, at about 7 months B. at birth
    C. about two weeks after birth D. during young adulthood
  15. 15. The____________attaches to the greater curvature of the stomach.
    A. mesentery proper B. lesser omemtum C. greater omentum D. dorsal mesentery
  16. 16. Taste occurs through which papilla?
    A. filliform B. fungiform C. vallate
    D. b and c
    E. a,b, and c
  17. 17. Which contributes to chemical digestion?
    A. teeth
    B. esophagus
    C. salivary glands D. muscularis
  18. 18. The majority of the digestive tract is lined by
    A. simple squamous epithelium.
    B. simple cuboidal epithelium.
    C. pseudostratified columnar epithelium. D. simple columnar epithelium.
  19. 19. The majority of meseteries are
    A. ventral B. dorsal
  20. 20. Digestive organs that do not have mesenteries are
    A. retroperitoneal B. intraperitoneal C. peritoneal
  21. 21. The portion of the tooth that provides sensation and nutrients is the
    A. gingiva B. pulp
    C. enamel D. dentin
  22. 22. The contents of the gollbladder dump into the
    A. duodenum
    B. jejunum
    C. ileum
    D. transverse colon
  23. 23. Which part of the gastrointestinal tract is responsible for absorption of water and electrolytes?
    A. liver
    B. stomach
    C. large intestine D. anal canal
  24. 24. Adults normally have how many teeth?
    A. 20 B. 32 C. 36 D. 40
  25. 25. Which is true regarding bile?
    A. It is synthesized by the gallbladder. B. It is stored in the liver.
    C. It assists in the digestion of proteins. D. It emulsifies fats
  26. 26. Pancreatic islets
    A. make up the exocrine portion of the liver B. secrete insulin and glucagon.
    C. produce enzymes to aid in digestion.
    D. secrete hormones into the small intestine.
  27. 27. What is an accessory organ to the gastrointestinal tract?
    A. pancreas
    B. stomach
    C. esophagus
    D. lesser omentum
  28. 28. A peptic ulcer is
    A. herniations in the colon.
    B. inflammation of the alimentary canal.
    C. erosion of the mucosa in the stomach or duodenum. D. a solid crystal precipitate of cholesterol.
  29. 29. Where does the most absorption occur in digestion?
    A. stomach
    B. colon
    C. esophagus
    D. small intestine
  30. 30. The cilia lining the lower respiratory passageways beat_____________
    A. superiorly B. inferiorly C. anteriorly D. posteriorly
  31. 31. What two ducts come together to form the common bile duct?
    A. gastric and hepatic
    B. common hepatic, gastric C. left hepatic, right hepatic D. common hepatic, cystic
  32. 32. The lining of the mouth is made up of
    A. simple columnar epithelium.
    B. stratified squamous epithelium. C. stratified cuboidal epithelium. D. simple cuboidal epithelium.
  33. 33. The disease is characterized by the permanent expansion of the alveoli and is often associated with smoking.
    A. bronchial asthma B. emphysema
    C. bronchitis
    D. pneumothorax
  34. 34. How many muscular layers occur in the stomach?
    A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
  35. 35. Pneumothorax is a collapsed lung as a result of air entering the pleural cavity.
    A. True B. False
  36. 36. Which of the following digestive organs is directly involved in the chemical breakdown of food?
    A. mouth
    B. esphagus
    C. stomach
    D. small intestine E. a,c, and d
  37. 37. Which of the following organs is intrapertioneal?
    A. stomach
    B. pancreas
    C. ascending colon D. duodenum
  38. 38. The gallbladder makes bile.
    A. True B. False
  39. 39. The protal vein branches to sinusolds to central vein to hepatic vein to inferior vena cava.
    A. True B. False
  40. 40. The main pancreatic duct extends through the length of the pancreas and joins the bile duct to form the hepatopancreatic ampulla that empties into the duodenum.
    A. True B. False
  41. 41. The insuling and glucagon-secreting cells are found in the
    A. pancreatic islets
    B. acinar cells
    C. hepatic lobules
    D. zymogen granules
  42. 42. The large intestine is unique in that it contains
    A. intestinal crypts
    B. teniae coli
    C. haustra
    D. epiplotic appendages E. intestinal villi
    F. b,c and d
  43. 43. What structure originates from the foregut?
    A. stomach
    B. jejunum
    C. transverse colon D. anal canal
  44. 44. Which mesentery attaches the anterior part of the liver to the abdominal wall?
    A. omentum
    B. round ligament
    C. falciform ligament D. mesentery proper
  45. 45. pulmonary ventilation
    A. gas exchange between blood and cells B. gas exchange between blood and lungs C. breathing
  46. 46. external respiration
    A. gas exchange between blood and cells B. gas exchange between blood and lungs C. breathing
  47. 47. internal respiration
    A. gas exchange between blood and cells B. gas exchange between blood and lungs C. breathing
  48. 48. What is the name of the structure that connects the pharynx to the trachea?
    A. oropharynx
    B. nasopharynx
    C. laryngopharynx D. larynx
  49. 49. The cilia of the respiratory tract
    A. increase absorption of nutrients from the air.
    B. move mucous out of the airways into the lungs.
    C. move mucous out of the airways toward to pharyx. D. help move air into and out of the respiratory tract
  50. 50. What condition is characterized by excess chloride in epithelial cells causing the bodies antibiotics to become ineffective?
    A. lung cancer
    B. bronchitis
    C. emphysema D. cystic fibrosis
  51. 51. The vagina is lined with_____________epithelium.
    A. simple squamous
    B. stratified squamous C. pseudostratified
    D. stratified columnar
  52. 52. Mammary glans secrete milk from alveoli through the_______ducts.
    A. areolar
    B. milk line C. alveolar
    D. lactiferous
  53. 53. What male structure is homologous to the clitoris?
    A. glans
    B. penis
    C. bulbourethral gland D. prepuce
  54. 54. What is the mucosal layer of the uterus?
    A. perimetrium B. myometrium C. endometrium
  55. 55. Every mouth, the uterine cycle begins with the ________phase.
    A. menstral
    B. secretory
    C. ovulatory
    D. proliferative
  56. 56. What hormone(s) signal events in the secretory phase?
    A. estrogen
    B. LH
    C. FSH
    D. progesterone
  57. 57. Approxiamtely how many days after ovulation will the blastocyst implant in the uterus?
    A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12
  58. 58. In a female fetus, which structure will deteriorate?
    A. mesonephric duct
    B. Mullerian duct
    C. paramesonephric duct
  59. 59. Which of the following is not a risk factor for breast cancer?
    A. late menopause
    B. early onset of puberty
    C. first live birth before 25
    D. family history of breast cancer
  60. 60. Where does fertilization usually occur?
    A. uterus
    B. infundibulum of oviducts C. isthmus
    D. ampulla of uterine tube
  61. 61. Viability of sperm is dependent on the action of two muscles in the scrotum, the
    A. dartos and cremaster
    B. tunica vaginalis and tuncia albuginea
    C. detrusor muscle and internal urethral sphincter D. detrusor muscle and external urethral sphincter
  62. 62. Cells of the testis that produce testosterone are
    A. sertoli cells
    B. sustentacular cells C. intersitial cells
    D. spermatogenic cells E. spermatogonia
  63. 63. Which of the following is a congenital condition in which the testes remain undescended?
    A. hydrocele
    B. cryptorchidism C. orchitis
    D. varicocele
    E. hypospadias
  64. 64. A newborn infant has a hole on the undersurface of the penis through which urine exits. This is a congential condition called
    A. hypogenital fissure B. urethral groove
    C. labioscrotal opening D. hypospadias
  65. 65. The ductus deferens is derived from
    A. embryonic edoderm
    B. embryonic ectoderm C. mesonephric duct
    D. paramesonephric duct
  66. 66. What gland contributes a neutralizing mucus to semen?
    A. prostate
    B. bulburethral
    C. seminal vesicle D. epididymus
  67. 67. Which is the most mature type of germ cell?
    A. spermatagonia
    B. spermatozoa
    C. permatids
    D. secondary spermatocytes
  68. 68. The semial vesical contributes________________percent of the volume of semen.
    A. 33 B. 60 C. 70 D. 95
  69. 69. The male primary sex organ(s) is(are) the
    A. penis
    B. scrotum C. prostate D. testes
  70. 70. the major calyces dump the urine that they carry into the ________.
    A. ureter
    B. renal medulla C. renal pelvis
    D. renal pyramid
  71. 71. During which of the following processes are most of the nutrients reclaimed from the filrate and returned to the blood of surrounding capillaries?
    A. filration
    B. reabsorption C. reclamation D. secretion
  72. 72. The part(s) of the nephron that is (are) located in the kidney medulla is (are) the
    A. distal and proximal convoluted tubules
    B. ascending and descending limbs of the loop of Henle C. glomerulus
    D. glomerular capsule
  73. 73. Blood flows through the kidney vessels is in the direction of interlobular arteryfrom, efferent arteriole, to glomerular capillaries, to afferent arteriole.
    A. True B. False
  74. 74. The internal urethral sphincter
    A. is involuntary
    B. is voluntary
    C. is a smooth muscle
    D. prevents dribbling of urine between voidings E. All of the above except "b" are correct
  75. 75. The muscle responsible for micturition is the
    A. detrusor
    B. internal urethral sphincter C. external urethra sphincter D. urachus
  76. 76. What region of the nephron is most active is filtration and resorption?
    A. glomerulus
    B. proximal convoluted tubule C. loop of Henle
    D. distal convoluted tubule
  77. 77. An infection of the urethra can spread superiorly to cause a bladder infection called
    A. urethritis
    B. cystitis
    C. incontinence D. micturition
    E. urinitis
  78. 78. The major component of urine is
    A. urea
    B. uric acid C. creatinine D. water
  79. 79. How much of the original filtrate from the glomerulus is reabsorbed back into the blood?
    A. 50 B. 75 C. 95 D. 99
  80. 80. The capillaries in the glomerulus are covered by what type of cells?
    A. podocytes
    B. cuboidal epithelial C. a muscular layer D. fibroblasts
  81. 81. What type of cappilaries is found in the glomerulus?
    A. continuous B. fenestrated C. sinusoidal
  82. 82. Which of the following is permitted to pass through the filtration slits of the glomerulus?
    A. white blood cells B. red blood
    C. large proteins
    D. ions
  83. 83. the urine flows from the _______to the ___________through the ureters.
    A. Baldder, external orifice B. Baldder, prostate
    C. Kidney, Baldder
    D. Kidney, nephron
  84. 84. Which is the correct sequence within a uniferous tubule, starting from the glomerulus?
    A. distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, proximal convoluted tubule, glomerular capsule
    B. glomerular capsule, distal convuluted tubule, loop of Henle, proximal convoluted tubule
    C. glomerular capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule
    D. proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, glomerular capsule
  85. 85. What percentage of urine is composed of ions?
    A. 1% B. 3% C. 5% D. 12%
  86. 86. Which of the following is not a function of the kidney?
    A. regulation of blood volume
    B. dispose of excess waste and ions C. regulate water, salts, and acids D. regulate number of blood cells
  87. 87. The smooth muscle that operates under autonomic nervous control to keep the uretha closed when urine is not being passed is the
    A. detrusor
    B. internal urethral sphincter (smooth) C. external uretha sphincter (skeletal) D. muscularis mucosa
  88. 88. Condition where many urine filled sacs develop and destroy normal kidney tissue is
    A. polycystic kidney B. horseshoe kidney C. pyelitis
    D. Renal calculi
  89. 89. The ureter develops from what embryonic structure?
    A. pronephric duct B. metanephros
    C. urogenital sinus D. uretic bud
  90. 90. The corpus luteum secretes which hormone?
    A. LH
    B. progesterone C. FSH
    D. oxytocin
  91. 91. What vessel allows infusion of blood into the penis to cause an erection?
    A. dorsal artery B. dorsal vein C. deep artery D. deep vein
  92. 92. What structure is responsible for trasporting sperm from the testes internally to the body?
    A. epididymus
    B. urethra
    C. Vas deferens
    D. seminiferous tubule
  93. 93. What is the epithelial lining of the vagina?
    A. simple columnar
    B. stratified cuboidal C. simple squamous D. stratified squamous
  94. 94. At what stage is the follicle prepared to ovulate?
    A. primary follicle
    B. Graafian follicle
    C. secondary follicle D. primordial follicle
  95. 95. An ectopic pregnancy is most common in the
    A. uterine tube B. uterus
    C. pelvis
    D. abdomen
  96. 96. What embryonic structure gives rise to the ductus deferens?
    A. mesonephric duct B. paramesonephric C. mullerian duct
    D. urogenital ridge
  97. 97. At what time do embryos differentiate sexually?
    A. 1 week
    B. 5-6 week
    C. 7-8 weeks
    D. 16-17 weeks
  98. 98. The most common congenital abnormally of the male urethra is
    A. hyppspadias
    B. cryptorchidism C. hydrocele
    D. inguial hernia
  99. 99. What is the correct order of sperm formation?
    A. primary spematocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatids
    B. spermatids, primary spematocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatogonia,
    C. spermatogonia, spermatids, primary spematocyte, secondary spermatocyte
    D. speratogonia, primary spematocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatid
  100. 100.
    What contributes the highest percentage of volume to semen?
    A. seminal vesicle B. prostate
    C. testes
    D. urethra
  101. 101.
    What hormone is responsible for the growth of a follicle?
    A. LH
    B. Progesterone C. estrogen
    D. FSH
  102. 102.
    Normally fertillization occurs
    A. anywhere in the uterine tubes
    B. in the uterus
    C. in the ampulla of the uterine tubes D. on the ovary
  103. 103.
    What condition is characterized by infection of the vagina, uterus, uterine tubes, and ovaries?
    A. pelvicitis
    B. pelvic inflammatory disease C. HPV
    D. yeast infection
  104. 104.
    The pathway that sperm follows is
    A. epididymus, rete teste, seminiferous tubules and permatic card.
    B. seminiferous tubules, efferent ductules, rete testes and epididymus C. seminiferous tubules, epididymus, rete testes, efferent ductules,
    D. testicles, vas deferens, and epididymus
  105. 105.
    What muscle is responsible for elevating the testes to bring them closer to the body under cold conditions?
    A. cremaster
    B. dartos
    C. internal oblique D. internal spermatic
  106. 106.
    What is the glycoprotein coat that surrounds and protects the oocyte and must be penetrated for fertilization to occur?
    A. antrum
    B. corona radiate C. theca folliculi D. zona pellucida
  107. 107.
    What is the final stage of parturition? (Childbirth)
    A. placental (3) B. labor
    C. explusion (2) D. dilation (1)
  108. 108.
    What is the number one reason that a Ceasren section is performed istead of a delivering vaginally?
    A. placenta previa
    B. previous C section
    C. deformed or male like pelvis D. abruption placenta
  109. 109.
    What structure is responsible for carrying milk from the alveoli to the nipple?
    A. lactiferous sinus B. mammary duct C. mammary sinus D. lactiferous duct
  110. 110.
    Which reproductive structure causes the most cases of cancer in men?
    A. testes
    B. penis
    C. prostate
    D. seminal vesicle
  111. 111.
    Mammary glands are present, but not normally active, in males.
    A. true B. false
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Test 3 - Speedback 2 - questions1.txt
2013-08-14 04:32:37
byu anatomy

Test 3 - Speedback 2 questions - set 1
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