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2013-08-27 04:18:37

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  1. This region in the nucleus is the site of ribosome assembly
  2. Which of thr following cellular structures is unique in eukaryotes:
    1. Plasma membrane
    2. Ribosomes
    3. Internal cellular structures
    4. Golgi apparatus
  3. These organelles consist if membranous savs containing powerful oxidase enzymes, and they use molecular oxygen to detoxify harmful substances
  4. The cellular particles are often referred by their sedimentation coefficient value, for example, 70s robosomes is expressed in terms of 10^-13 seconds. The abbreviation 's' stands for
  5. These are organelles that contain the enzymes for pyrivate oxidation, TCA, beta oxidation if fatty acids, oxidative phosphorulatiob, and ETC
  6. Which of the following is/are true?
    1. The endoplasmic reticulum is a system of fluid-filled cisterns
    2. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for protein synthesis
    3. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is the site of lipid synthesis
    4. AOTA
  7. Some organelles are specific to plant or animal cells. Which of the following organelles are present in plant cells only
    1. Vacuole
    2. Nuclear envelope
    3. Cell wall
    4. Lysosomes
    1, 3
  8. Viruses are not cellular but are rather termed as biological entities. The main reason why viruses are considered acellular entities is because
    1. A virus contains only 1 type of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA
    2. A virus is very small compared tl bacteria
    3. A virus is pathogenic
    4. Scientists cannot classify viruses under the 5 kingdoms of Whittaker
  9. ____ are extrachromisomal circular DNA molecules found in prokaryotes
  10. Which of the following is/are correct regarding plasmids?
    1. Plasmids are either DNA or RNA molecules
    2. Plasmids are found in many types of bacteria
    3. Plasmids replicate independently of the main chromosome
    4. Each cell contains only a single copy of plasmid
    2, 3
  11. The diversity of the different cell types among various organisms lies in their chemical nature. Which of the following pairs is/are accurate?
    1. Bacterial CM-peptidoglycan
    2. Plant CW-cellulose
    3. Animal CM-nucleic acid
    4. NOTA
  12. Which of the following statements is/are true about prions?
    1. A prion is an infectious agent that contains both proteins and nucleic acid
    2. The dse bovine spongiform encephalopathy or mad cow dse is one dsd attributed to prions
    3. Both are correct
    4. Both are false
  13. Which of the following structures is/are present in the nucleus?
    1. Nuclear membrane
    2. Nucleoli
    3. Chromatin
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 2
  14. Which of the following is an active process?
    1. Transport if molecules through protein pores
    2. Transmembrane transport through carrier transport
    3. Both
    4. NOTA
  15. Which of the following statements differrentiates simple passive diffusion from facilitated diffusion?
    1. Facilitated diffusion is an active process
    2. Facilitated diffusion is saturable, simple passive diffusion is not
    3. Both are correct
    4. NOTA
  16. What is affected by digitalis glycosides and ouabain?
    Na-K pump
  17. Which of the following ions ia cotransported with glucose in the small intestine?
    1. K
    2. Na
    3. Ca
    4. Mg
  18. The nature of the cell wall of the bacteria is used in their classification. What is the cross-linked, multi-layered polysaccharide-peptide complex used as the basis of Gram staining?
  19. Which of the following is not a biopolymer?
    1. Nucleic acids
    2. Carbohydrates
    3. Amino acids
    4. Lipids
  20. Which of the following is/are found in the cytoplasm?
    1. Cytosol
    2. Inclusions
    3. Mitochondrion
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 2
  21. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. Adenine is a nucleoside
    2. Adenosine is a nucleotide
    3. Nucleotides are also known as nucleoside phosphates
    4. AOTA
  22. Which of the following is a nucleoside?
    1. Guanine
    2. Guanosine
    3. Guanosine monophosphate
    4. Any of the above
  23. Which carbon in the sugars is responsible for the differrence between the 2 nucleic acids?
  24. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding nucleic acid primary structure?
    1. DNA contains thymine while RNA contains uracil
    2. Adenine and guanine are pyrimidines
    3. Uracil is a purine
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 2
  25. The ribose in DNA is converted to deoxyribose in DNA by replacing the ______ in RNA with ______
    Hydroxyl group, hydrogen
  26. What is wobble?
    Ability of anticodons to pair with codons that differ at third base
  27. What type of bond connects successive monomer units through a phosphate reaidue attached to hydroxyl on the 5' carbon of one unit with the 3' hydroxyl of the next?
    Phosphodiester bonds
  28. What is responsible for the acidic character of nucleic acids?
    Phisphate group
  29. What are the purine bases?
    Adenine, guanine
  30. Which nitrogenous base is present only in DNA?
  31. Which base pair is bonded by a double bond?
  32. How many hydrogen bonds are formed between cytosine and guanine?
  33. The DNA structure is a double helix containing chains which are complementary. Which if the following statements best describes complementarity?
    1. In the chains, each end of the helix contains the 5' end of one strand and the 3' end of the other
    2. Adenine binds to thyminr and cytosine binds to guanine
    3. Several codons may code for tge same amini acids
    4. AOTA
  34. Each end of the DNA helix contains tthe 5' end of one strand and the 3' end of the other strand. What characteristicis this?
  35. What do you call the bond between the 1'carbon of the sugar and the base nitrogen?
    Glycosidic bond
  36. Which of the following statements is correct?
    1. Some nucleic acid bases are capable of tautomerization
    2. All enzymes are proteins
    3. 1 and 2
    4. Both are false
  37. Which of the following statements best describes pyrimidine bases?
    1. 5 membered ring structure
    2. 6 membered ring structure
    3. Adenine and guanine are pyrimidine bases
    4. Some examples include theophylline, caffeine, theobromine
  38. The primary difference between nucleosides and nucleotides is the presence of phosphate group in the former.
  39. Which of the following bes describes the degeneracy of the genetic code?
    1. 1 codon=1 amino acid
    2. 1 codon= 6 amino acids
    3. 6 codons=1 amino acd
    4. NOTA
  40. Deoxyribonucleic acid is a double-stranded polynucleotide. The base content of DNA displays three sets of equivalent pairs. Which eqns are true?
    1. A=T
    2. C=G
    3. A+G=T+C
    4. A+G is not always equal to T+C
  41. Most common form of DNA
  42. When two strands of the DNA double helix are separated, each strand can serve as a template for the replication of a new complementary strand. This describes
    Semiconservative replication
  43. Which of the following is correct according to Watson-Crick model for DNA?
    1. DNA consists of a 2-strand double helix
    2. Pairing is A-T, C-G
    3. The primary structure of nucleic acids is composed of a double helix stabilizeed by H-bonds
    4. The chains are complementary and antiparallel
    1, 2, 4
  44. Which base pair forms a minor groove?
  45. A short piece of nucleic acid, base-paired with a DNA template strand and provides a free 3'-OH end from which DNA polymerase can extend a DNA strand.
  46. DNA polymerase type ____ has a 5' to 3' polymerase activity and 3' to 5' proofreading exonuclease activity
  47. This DNA polymerase is primarily involved in repairing DNA
    DNA polymerase I
  48. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the secondary structure of nucleic acids?
    1. Guanine forms base pairs with adenine via 2 H bonds
    2. The B form of DNA is the most common in biological systems
    3. The breaking of H bonds caused by high temp is called melting
    4. 1 and 2
    5. 2 and 3
  49. These are discontinuous stretches in which the lagging strand is initially synthesized during DNA replication
    Okazaki fragments
  50. What is the sequence of the major events of DNA replication?
    1. DNA ligase joins DNA fragments of the lagging strand, creating a single DNA molecule
    2. DNA polymerase at the replication fork synthesize DNA in 5' to 3' direction. There are 2 strands, the leading and lagging.
    3. DNA double helix is opened by helicases
    4. Primase creates a temporary RNA primer for each DNA strand.
    5. DNA polymerase removes RNA primer and fills the gaps between the Okazaki fragments
  51. This is a rare human disorder which progresses to photosensitivity caused by an inherited excinuclease deficiency.
    Xeroderma pigmentosa
  52. Alkylating agents are used in the treatment of Hodgkin's dse and leukemias. Their main mechanism of action is to alkylate this nitrogenous base
  53. This chemotherapeutic agent binds to bacterial RNA polymerase
  54. Which of the following statements is/are true?
    1. RNA polymerase, unlike DNA polymerase, does not require a primer
    2. DNA polymerase is a nuclease
    3. RNA polymerase is a nuclease
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 2
  55. Codon for methionine
  56. This DNA mutation occurs when a puring replaces a pyrimidine or vice-versa
  57. A purine replaces a purine in _____ mutations.
  58. Which of the following is/are point mutations?
    1. Insertion
    2. Deletion
    3. Transition
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 2
  59. This mutagenic substance is obtained from smoking cigarettes. It intercalates DNA and causes frameshifts.
  60. This refers to the noncoding regions that alternate with coding regions in the polypeptide sequence.
  61. This DNA duplex has a special left-handed helical structure
  62. Mechanism of action of Dactinomycin (actinomycin D).
    Intercalates with minor groove of double helix
  63. 2-aminopyrine is no longer used clinically. It has been found to replace adenine (6-aminopurine) or guanine in DNA resulting to bone marrow toxicity. 2-aminopyrine exhibits what type of mutation?
  64. Which of the following is/are true regarding the central dogma of molecular biology?
    1. Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from DNA
    2. The process of replication produces new RNA
    3. Reverse transcription is impossible
    4. AOTA
  65. Actinomycin D, an antineoplastic drug, intercalates between two GC pairs in DNA. Which of the following processes does it inhibit?
    1. Translation
    2. Transcription
    3. DNA repair
    4. Replication
  66. Tumor-producing RNA viruses synthesize DNA from RNA in the process called
    Reverse transcription
  67. This enzyme is responsible for removing the RNA primer on the DNA
    DNA polymerase
  68. Which of the following pairs is an accurate pairing of the organism and its start codon
    1. Eukaryote-formylmethionine
    2. Prokaryote-methionine
    3. Eukaryote-methionine
    4. NOTA
  69. Humans catabolize purines to
    Uric acid
  70. This refers to the set of prokaryotic structural genes which are transcribed as a unit along with regulatory elements controlling their expression
  71. When the serum urate levels exceed the solubility limit the crystals of sodium urate accumulate in soft tissues and causs an inflammatory reaction known as
    Gouty arthritis
  72. Which of the following statements about amino acids is true?
    1. Acidic amino acids bear a positive charge at pH7
    2. All amino acids have a chiral carbon
    3. Lysine and arginine are basic amino acids
    4. AOTA
  73. This type of mutation occurs when the codon containing tbe changed base may become a termination codon.
    Nonsense mutation
  74. The result of a point mutation that occurs when UCA (Serine) is converted to UCU (Serine) is called
    Silent mutation
  75. Glutamine and asparagine amino acids are
    1. Acidic
    2. Basic
    3. Neutral
    4. Nonpolar
  76. Which statement is true?
    1. Cystine is a dimer of cysteine
    2. Cysteine is more stable than cystine
    3. Both are true
    4. Neither are true
  77. Which of the following amkmimo acids contains basic side chains?
    1. Histidine
    2. Arginine
    3. Leucine
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 2
  78. Which of the following contains S in its side chain
    1. Methionine
    2. Cysteine
    3. Both
    4. Neither
  79. Which of the following amino acids is responsible for disrupting the alpha-helix because its imino group is not geometrically compatible with the right-handed spiral of the alpha-helix?
    1. Proline
    2. Valine
    3. Leucine
    4. Glycine
  80. Which of the following amino acids has an imino group?
    1. Phenylalanine
    2. Proline
    3. Tyrosine
    4. Threonine
  81. Which of the following amino acids possesses a hydroxyl group which renders it polar?
    1. Serine
    2. Threonine
    3. Tyrosine
    4. 1 and 2
    5. AOTA
  82. What stabilizes the primary structure of proteins?
    Peptide bonds
  83. Which amino acid possesses aa phenolic group?
  84. What is the equation for isoelectric pH?
  85. Calculate pI of alanine. pK1=2.35; pK2=9.69
  86. Thyroxine (3,3,3',5'-tetraiodothyronine) is the precursor of thyroid hormones. What type of a biopolymer is thyroxine?
  87. Peptide bond, a type of amide bond, binds to the terminal of one amino acid to the carboxyl end of another. What type of process is involved in the formation of peptide bonds?
  88. Which of the following statements is correct?
    1. The C-N bond in the peptide.linakge has a partial double bond property that makes it rigid
    2. Neither the C=O nor the N-H in the peptide bond can dissociate
    3. Each amino acid in a polypepride chain is called a residue
    4. AOTA
  89. This structure of peptides reders to the order of amino acids in tge polypepride chain/s and the location of the disulfide bonds
  90. This refers to the spatial arrangements of the amino acid residues close to one another in the linear sequence of a polypeptide chain
  91. Alpha helix and beta pleated sheets belong to what structure?
  92. The overall arrangement and interrelationship of various regions or domains and individual amino acid residues of a single polypeptide chain is ______
  93. Random coils and triple helices are examples of what protein structure
  94. Fibrous and globular proteins belong to what protein structure?
  95. The arrangement of polypeptide chains in relation to one another in a multi-chained protein refers to what protein structure?
  96. Principal method of determining the primary structures of polypeptides. For its initial step, utilizes phenylisocyanate which combines with the terminal amino acid of the polypeptide
  97. Which of the following bonds are found in the quaternary structure of polypeptides?
    1. H bonds
    2. Electrostatic bonds
    3. Hydrophobic bonds
    4. Covalent bonds
  98. Denaturation is a randomization of the conformation of a polypeptide chain. Chemical agents like strong acids or bases, heat, ionic detergents, etc. are involvef in this process. Which protein structure is unaffectef by denaturation?
  99. Which of the following statements is true?
    1. Fibrous proteins are water-insoluble
    2. Globular proteins are water-soluble
    3. Proteins lose their biologic activity after denaturation
    4. Denaturation of proteins is sometimes reversible
    5. AOTA
  100. Which of the following is/are examples of essential amino acids?
    1. Tyrosine
    2. Threonine
    3. Tryptophan
  101. Dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine are collectively called catecholamines. Which amino acid serves as the precursor in the biosynthesis of these catecholamines?
  102. Serotonin is synthesized from this amino acid.
  103. Histamine, a chemical messenger, mediates allergic and inflammatory reactions, gastric acid secretion, and neurotransmission of the brain. Which amino acid, when decarboxylated, yields histamine?
  104. The nonpolar amino acids-alanine, leucine, and tryptophan- are all expected to be located in the ______ area of a globular protein in aqueous environment.
  105. Polar and ionized side chains in globular proteins tend to move to the _____ surface to form bonds with water.
  106. Fibrous proteins are elongated, water-soluble, generally in either alpha-helical, pleated sheet, or triple helical forms. Which of the follilowing is an example of fibrous protein?
    1. Hemoglobin
    2. Actin
    3. Myosin
    4. Elastin
  107. Among the fibrous proteins listed below, which are the major proteins of skin and hair?
    1. Keratin
    2. Collagen
    3. Elastin
    4. Fibronectin
  108. This fibrous protein is the most abundant single protein in vertebrates.
  109. Which of the following statements below gives an accurate description of collagen.
    1. It is a fibrous protein
    2. The basic unit of collagen is tropocollagen, a triple helix of three polypeptide chain
    3. Vitamin A is important in catalyzing the hydroxylation of proline
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 2
  110. Which fibrous protein is an important structural component of arterial bloid vessels and ligaments?
  111. One way of classifying proteins is through their physical properties. Which of the following is soluble in water and salt solutions, and has no distinctive amino acids?
    1. Prolamine
    2. Globulin
    3. Albumin
    4. Histones
  112. This is a general term for naturally occurring proteins that yield only alpha amino acids or their derivatives on hydrolysis.
    Simple proteins
  113. These are proteins combined in nature with some nonprotein substances and are classified according to the nature of their prosthetic group or nonprotein portion.
    Conjugated proteins
  114. These are proteins that differ only slightly from their source original proteins and are formed by means of the action of heat, acids, water, alkali, and mechanical shock.
    Derived proteins
  115. Keratin in hair and horny tissue, elastin in tendons and arteries, and collagen in skin and tendons belong to what type of simple proteins.
  116. Glutenin in wheat (glutelin) and zein in corn (prolamine) belong to what classification of proteins?
    Simple proteins
  117. Casein in milk and ovovitelin in egg yolk are examples of what type of conjugated proteins?
  118. Nucleoproteins, lipoproteins, and glycoproteins are classified under what type of proteins?
    Conjugated proteins
  119. Fibrin from fibrinogen and myosan from myosin are examples of what type of primary derived proteins?
  120. These are primary derived proteins which are insoluble substances formed during the early stages of the action of water, enzymes, and dilute acids.
  121. These are primary derived proteins formed during the early stages of protein hydrolysis by means of thr action of alkali.
    1. Metaproteins
    2. Acid/alkali albuminates
    3. 1 and 2
    4. Neither
  122. Arrange the secondary derived proteins from highest to the lowest number of molecular weight.
  123. What enzyme is responsible for converting phenylalanine to tyrosine?
    Phenylalanine hydroxylase
  124. The absence of this enzyme results to phenylketonuria.
    Phenylalanine hydroxylase
  125. Which of the following is true regarding phylenylketonuria?
    1. The enzyme homogentisate oxidase resulgs to PKU
    2. There is overproduction of tyrosine
    3. There is always abnormal development of thr child's brain
    4. An artifical protein that lacks phenylalanine is given to children with PKU
  126. What diet would you advice a child's mother with PKU to give her baby?
    High TYR, low PHE
  127. What enzyme is deficient in alkaptonuria?
    Homogentisate oxidase
  128. What essential amino acid is used in the synthesis of niacin?
  129. What important neurotransmitter ues tryptophan as its precursor?
  130. What are the branched-chain amino acids responsible for the characteristic sweet smell of the urine od patients with MSUS?
    Leucine, isoleucine, valine
  131. These results from the oxidation of heme peotein in hemoglobin resulting to increased oxygen affinity and therefore failuret to adequately deliver oxygen to tissues.
  132. The coenzymes FMN and FAD are responsible for the oxidative deamination of amino acids. Which of the vitamins is related to these coenzymes?
    B2 (riboflavin)
  133. Myoglobin and hemoglobin possess a cyclic tetrepyrole, heme, as a prosthetic group. Which of the following is found centrally located in heme?
  134. Some serum enzymes are used in clinical diagnosis. Which enzymes may be used to diagnose MI?
    AST/SGOT, creatine phosphokinase, lactate dehydrogenase
  135. Acute pancreatitis may be diagnosed using which serum enzymes?
    Lipase, amylase
  136. Which enzyme adds an inorganic phosphate to break a bond?
  137. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which can cause acute confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia, can be treated with which of the following?
    1. Riboflavin
    2. Ascorbic acid
    3. Thiamine
    4. Pantothenic acid
  138. What is the deficiency state of folic acid?
    Megaloblastic anemia
  139. Which coenzyme is responsible for carrying 1-carbon groups?
    THFA (tetrahydrofolic acid)
  140. Bone disorders and obstructive liver disease may be diagnosed using which serum enzyme?
    Alkaline phosphatase
  141. Which of the following vitamins is present in coenzymes required the transfer of amino groups and decarboxylation of amino acids? Its deficiency state is manifested by glossitis, peripheral neuropathy, ans niacin deficiency?
    1. Pyridoxine
    2. Niacin
    3. Thiamine
    4. Riboflavin
  142. The signs of pellagra include dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, and loss of tongue papillae. Which amino acida are deficient in pellagra?
    Niacin, tryptophan
  143. Trimethoprim and methotrexate are folate reductase inhibitors. Their use predisposes a person to develop this disease.
    Megaloblastic anemia
  144. Cheilosis, glossitis, seborrhea, and photophobia are manifestations of what deficiency state?
    Riboflavin (B2)
  145. Certain metals and trace elements are important as enzyme cofactors. What element is present in the enzyme glutathione peroxidase that replaces S in one cysteine in active site?
  146. This class of immunoglobulin is produced during the early response to invading organisms. It has a relatively large size that restricts its transport in the bloodstream.
  147. This is the most abundant immumoglobulin in the blood. Together with IgM, it is capable od triggerinf the immune system.
  148. This immunoglobulin is responsible for mediating hypersensitivity by causing the release of mediators from mast celss and basophils upon exposure to antigens or allergens.
  149. This immumoglobulin prevents the attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes. It is found in body secretions such as tears, colostrum, saliva, sweat, and small.intestines.
  150. This immunoglobulin is capable od crossing the placenta.
  151. Which metal acts synergistically with vitamin E.
  152. These are slightly longer, catalytically inactive forms of enzymes.
  153. This term refers to an intact enzyme with a bound cofactor.
  154. Ninhydrin is widely used for detecting amino acids. What is the visible result for ninhydrin test in the presence if proline and hydroxyproline?
  155. Which of the following tests is specific for amino acids and free amino group?
  156. Xanthoproteic test is a test for
  157. What is the positive visible result for xanthoproteic test?
    Yellow color deepening into orange
  158. This test is used to identify the presence of peptide linkages.
  159. Hopkins-Cole is used to identify which amino acid?
  160. Which of the following gives a positive result to basic lead acetate test?
    1. Tryptophan
    2. Cysteine
    3. Cystine
    4. AOTA
    5. 2 and 3
  161. Pauly diazo test indicates the presence of
    1. Histidine
    2. Tyrosine
    3. Tryptophan
    4. 1 and 2
    5. 2 and 3
  162. Specific test for arginine
    Sakaguchi test
  163. This test is used to confirm the presence of the phenolic ring of tyrosine.
  164. This test is also known as glyoxylic acid reaction.
  165. Which of the following statements are correct?
    1. The difference between intake and output of nitrogenous compounds is known as nitrogen balance
    2. In healthy adult, nitrogen balance is in equilibrium when intake equals output
    3. Positive nitrogen balance occurs when dietary intake is less than excretion of nitrogenous compounds
    4. Negative nitrogen balance results when there is too much protein intake
    1 and 2
  166. This is also known as protein-calorie malnutrition. It is a state resulting from the chronic deficiency of calories, which can occur even in the presence of adequate intake of protein.
  167. The digestion of proteins begins in the
  168. Pepsinogen is an example of
    1. Apoenzyme
    2. Holoenzyme
    3. Cofactor
    4. Zymogen
  169. Racemase and mutase are examples of what type of enzymes?
  170. This is caused by the inadequate intake of protein in the presence of adequate intake of calories.
  171. This enzyme adds hydrogen atoms to a molecule.
  172. Which of the following enzymes is an example of hydrolases?
    1. Esterase
    2. Racemase
    3. Aminotransferase
    4. Decarboxylase
  173. This type of enzyme cleaves a carbon to carbon bond to create and aldehyde group.
  174. The enzyme decarboxylase is an example of _____ enzyme.
  175. These are defined as polyhydroxylated compounds with at least 3 carbon atoms that may or may not possess a carbonyl group.
  176. Which of the following statements is correct?
    1. Glyceraldehyde is a ketotriose
    2. Dihydroxyacetone is an aldotriose
    3. Glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone are tautomers
    4. AOTA
  177. This is a sugar alcohol derived from glucose which often accumulates in the lenses of diabetics and produces cataracts.
  178. Gluctose, fructose, and galactose all have the same chemical formula (C6H12O6). Through this information we can conclude that these substances are
  179. These stereoisomers are nonsuperimposable mirror images of each other. They are also called optical isomers because they rotate polarized light in opposite directions.
  180. D-threose and L-threose are examples of
  181. Which of the following has the most number of carbon atoms?
    1. Erythrose
    2. Sedoheptulose
    3. Galactose
    4. Ribose
  182. Which of the following statements is/are true?
    1. The carbonyl atom in aldoses is carbon1
    2. The carbonyl atom in ketoses is carbon2
    3. Both are correct
    4. Both are false
  183. Arrange the following monsaccharides from highest to lowest number of C atoms:
    1. Erythrose
    2. Sedoheptulose
    3. Galactose
    4. Ribose
    2 3 4 1
  184. ________ are stereoisomers of cyclized monsaccharide molecules differing only in the configuration of the substituents on the carbonyl atom.
  185. Maltose is a disaccharide composed of
    Glu + glu
  186. Which of the following carbohydrates contains the most number of carbon atoms?
    1. Sedoheptulose
    2. Sialic acid
    3. Ribose
    4. Glycerose
  187. Which of the following statements are true?
    1. In Fischer projection, when sugar structure is written vertically, the lowest carbon is designated as C1.
    2. If an -OH projects to the right on the Fischer structure, it will project downward in the Haworth projection
    3. The Haworth projection provides a more exact representation of the 3D conformation of sugars in nature than the chair configuration
    4. AOTA
  188. Which projection presents a cyclic sugar structure?
    Haworth projection
  189. Mutarotation is a process of interconversion between alpha and beta forms using the open-chain structure as an intermediate. Which of the following undergoes mutarotation?
    1. Monosaccharides
    2. Disaccharides
    3. Polysaccharides
    4. Amino acids
  190. Glucose and galactose differ only in the configuration of their hydroxyl group at C4, thus they are called
  191. Glycogen is an example of a
    1. Disaccharide
    2. Monosaccharide
    3. Polysaccharidee
    4. NOTA
  192. Which of the following statements is correct about boat and chair conformations?
    1. Axial bonds are parallel to the axis
    2. Equatorial bonds are perpendicular to the axis
    3. For 6 carbon pyranoses, the chair form is more stable than the boat form
    4. AOTA
    5. Only 3
  193. The OH group od the penultimate or second to the last carbon atom determines
    1. D or L, dextro pointing to the right and levo pointing to the left
    2. d or l, regarding optical activity
    3. Both are correct
    4. Both are incorrect
  194. The glycosidic bond formed in glycosides is an example of
    Ether bond
  195. Benedict's test is the traditional test for glucose in the urine. What is the basis for this test?
    1. Oxidation of cuprous ion to cupric oxide
    2. Reduction of cupric ion to cupric oxide
    3. Enzymatic degradation of glucose
    4. Reaction of glucose with complexing agents
  196. Glucose is normally absent in the urine because kidneys normally completely reabsorb all glucose. Which of the following is true?
    1. Glucosuria confirms DM
    2. Glucosuria necessarily means hyperglycemia
    3. Glucosuria is solely attributed to insulin problem
    4. Glucosuria may occur in other dse states
  197. Ascorbic acid, glucoronides, and some drugs act as reducing agents. How would these substances affect Benedict's test result?
    1. They may give false negative results
    2. They may give false positive results
    3. They would not affect the results
    4. They would enhance the sensitivity of the test
  198. Testape, Clinistix, and Multistix are based on what principles?
    1. Oxidation
    2. Reduction
    3. Enzymatic action
    4. 1 and 2
    5. 1 and 3
  199. Insulin promotes the storage of fat and glucose in specialized target cells. Which pancreatic cell type is responsible for secreting this hormone?
    B cell/beta
  200. This hormone may sometimes be useful in the reversal of cardiac effects of beta blocker overdose becayse of its ability to increase cAMP production in the heart.
  201. The deficiency of which of the following enzymes predisposes persons taking some therapeutic agents (ie 4-aminoquinoline, sulfonamides, propantheline) to hemolytic anemia.
  202. The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the
  203. The nonsugar portion of glycosides is known as
    1. Aglycone
    2. Genin
    3. Glycone
    4. 1 and 2
    5. 2 and 3
  204. What type of glycosidic bond joins the dimer of glucose to form maltose?
  205. The cell markers, which serve as basis for the ABO blood types, are classified as what type of biopolymers
  206. Which of the following blood types is considered as the universal donor.
  207. Which of the following is the reason why blood type AB is considered as the universal recipient.
    No anti-A or anti-B antibodies
  208. Which of the following statements is true?
    1. Amylose is a long, unbranched polymer with alpha-1,4 bonds
    2. Amylopectins has both alpha-1,4 and alpha-1,6 bonds
    3. Starch consist of a greater proportion of amylopectin than amylose
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 2
  209. The enzyme alpha-amylase cleaves ______ to maltose and maltotriose.
  210. Which of the following is a homopolymer of N-acetyl-beta-D-glucosamine whose best known function is in invertebrate animals.
  211. Which of the following is/are examples of glycosaminoglycans?
    1. Hyaluronic acids
    2. Mucopolysaccharides
    3. Chondroitin sulfate
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 3
  212. Which of the following is/are of trisaccharides?
    1. Raffinose
    2. Gentianose
    3. Melezitose
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 2
  213. Raffinose, a trisaccharide is also known as
    1. Melitose
    2. Melitriose
    3. Melezitose
    4. 1 and 2
    5. 2 and 3
  214. Alpha-naphthol reaction is also known as
    Molisch test
  215. What is the visible result Molisch test?
    Purple ring at the junction
  216. This is the other name of Tauber's test for ketoses.
    Aminoguanidine reaction
  217. What is the visible result for aminoguanidine reaction?
    Bright reddish purple
  218. Which of the following accurately describes Barfoed's test?
    1. General test for carbohydrates
    2. Test for ketoses
    3. Specific test for galactose
    4. Test to differentiate monosaccharides and disaccharides
  219. The addition of a few drops of iodine to a solution produces blue color. This indicates the presence of
    1. Starch
    2. Dextrin
    3. Glycogen
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 2
  220. A reddish solution results after the addition of iodine TS to an unknown solution. Subsequent addition of ammoniacal basic lead acetate to a portion of the unknown solution results to the formation of a precipitate. The results of the tests confirm the presence of
  221. This gives a negative result to Benedict's test
  222. What test can be used to differentiate galactose from lactose.
    Barfoed's test
  223. What is the positive result for Fehling's test?
    Brick red ppt
  224. This is a general test for carbohydrates
    1. Alpha naphtol reaction
    2. Molisch
    3. Phenylhydrazine reaction
    4. 1 and 2
    5. 2 and 3
  225. Which of the following sugars forms an insoluble white phenylhydrazone readily?
    1. Sucrose
    2. Galactose
    3. Arabinose
    4. Mannose
  226. Which hydrolysis product of starch is responsible for forming a dark blue complex with iodine?
  227. This is a differentiating test for aldose and ketose sugars.
  228. This is also known as the Embden-Meyerhoff pathway.
  229. Which of the following is/are ATP-consuming stage(s) in glycolysis?
    1. Irreversible phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
    2. Irreversible phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-biphosphate
    3. Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
    4. 1 and 2
    5. 2 and 3
  230. Which enzyme is responsible for catalyzing the reaction of glucose to G6P?
  231. The enzymes for glycolysis are found in the
  232. This enzyme catalyzes the conversion of F6P to F1,6P?
  233. This enzyme is the most important in controlling glycolysis.
  234. This enzyme is the key enzyme that links glycolysis, TCA cycle, amino acid metabolism, and fatty acid oxidation.
    Pyruvate kinase
  235. In all phosphorylation reaction, this metal is an essential cofactor.
  236. This is the main pathway for carbohydrate catabolismin all human tissues.
  237. Which of the following enzymes catalyze irreversible steps in glycolysis
    1. PFK
    2. Hexokinase
    3. Pyruvate kinase
    4. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
  238. Which of the following statements regarding shuttles is correct?
    1. Glycerol PO4 shuttle yields 3 ATP
    2. Malate aspartate shuttle yields 2 ATP
    3. Both are correct
    4. Both are false
  239. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding anaerobic glycolysis?
    1. The formation of lactate and 2 ATP is the net yield
    2. There is a net of 2 NADH produced in the process
    3. The anaerobic glycolysis is slower than the aerobic glycolysis
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and2
  240. The net ATP produced in aerobic glycolysis is ____ ATPs per mole of hexose, depending on which shuttle predomnates in the transport NAD/NADH.
  241. The site of citric acid cycle
  242. Among the different cells in the body, only these lack mitochondria, which renders them incapable of TCA
  243. Which of the following is the central hub in the metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and amino acids
    Citric acid cycle
  244. What enzyme catalyzes the conversion of acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate to citrate.
    Citrate synthase
  245. Which of the following is/are the control points in TCA
    1. The citrate reaction which is inhibited by ATP
    2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase reaction which is inhibited by ATP
    3. Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase reaction which is inhibited by the end products succinyl CoA and NADH
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 2
  246. The ETC is the final common pathway by which electrons derived from the different fuels of the body flow to oxygen. Where does ETC occur?
    Inner mitochondrial membrane
  247. This is the product of the complete reduction of oxygen
  248. Which of the following enzymes converts hydrogen peroxide to water?
    1. Superoxide dismutase
    2. Catalase
    3. Cytochrome reductase
    4. Cytochrome oxidase
  249. Tocopherol, carotene, glutathione, and ascorbate are all examples of ____
    1. Reducing agents
    2. Antioxidants
    3. 1 and 2
    4. Neither
  250. Gluconeogenesis, the formation of new glucose, have enzymes that are confined only insome organs, which include
    1. Muscles
    2. Liver
    3. Kidneys
    4. 1 and 2
    5. 2 and 3
  251. What enzyme in gluconeogenesis is employed to bypass the hexokinase reaction which is the conversion of glucose to G6P?
  252. Which of the following enzymes in gluconeogenesisis used to bypass the PFK reaction?
    Fructose biphosphatase
  253. What two enzymes are used to bypass the pyruvate kinase reaction of glycolysis?
    Pyruvate carboxylase, PEP carboxykinase
  254. The pentose phosphate pathway occur in the _______ of liver, muscle, and kidney
  255. Which of the following include/s the main goals of the pentose phosphate pathway?
    1. Produce ribose-5-for nucleotide synthesis
    2. Produce NADPH and NADP for fatty acid and steroid biosynthesis
    3. To interconvert pentoses and hexoses
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 2
  256. Which of the following enzymes is present only in the liver and kidney and not in the muscles.
  257. This is the only reaction coupled with substrate level phosphorylation in the TCA.
    Succinyl CoA to succinate
  258. This is the only reaction in TCA that involves FAD/FADH2?
    Succinate to fumarate
  259. How many ATPs are produced for every acetyl CoA oxidized?
  260. How many ATPs are produced in the reduction of one mole of NAD to NADH?
  261. How many ATPs are produced in the reduction of one mole of FADH2 to FAD?
  262. This refers to aldose-ketose interconversion.
  263. Which of the following occurs in the cytosol?
    1. TCA
    2. Glycolysis
    3. PPP
    4. 1 and 2
    5. 2 and 3
  264. The site of acylglycerol synthesis
    Endoplasmic reticulum
  265. This refers to the totality of the chemical reactions that occur in an organism
  266. The citric acid cycle is an example of a/an _____ metabolism
  267. Which of the following is true regarding anabolism?
    1. It is involved in the breakdown of larger molecules
    2. It consumes energy
    3. It commonly involves oxidative reactions
    4. It is exergonic
  268. Which of the following is/are example/s of catabolism?
    1. Glycogenesis
    2. Glycolysis
    3. Beta oxidation of fatty acids
    4. 1 and 4
    5. 2 and 3
  269. After digestion and absorption, all biopolymers are converted to the common product _____
    Acetyl CoA
  270. This refers to a class of a heterogenous group of compounds which are more related to physical than chemical properties.
  271. These are esters of fatty acids and glycerol.
    Fixed oils and fats
  272. These are esters of high MW, monohydric ROH and high MW fatty acids
  273. These are alcoholscontaining the CPPP nucleus
  274. These are esters of glycerol in combination with fatty acid, phosphoric acid, and certain nitrogenous compounds.
  275. Lard is an example of what chemical class of lipids?
    Fixed oils and fats
  276. Which of the following is a wax?
    1. Cholesterol
    2. Ergosterol
    3. Spermaceti
    4. Lecithin
  277. Lecithin is an example of
  278. Which of the following is/are true regarding fats and fixed oils?
    1. The difference in consistency is caused by the glyceryl esters present
    2. Fixed oils are fats that are solid at room temperature
    3. Fixed oils have a higher proportion of saturated glycerides
    4. Fats have a higher proportion of unsaturated glycerides
    5. AOTA
  279. What phospholipid is associated with the process of blood clotting?
  280. Which of the following statements is/are true?
    1. Unsaturated fatty acids have lower melting points than saturated fatty acids
    2. Vegetable oils are generally liquid
    3. Vegetable oils are generally solid
    4. 1 and 2
    5. 2 and 3
  281. Which of the following statements are correct?
    1. Although cocoa butter is a vegetable oil, it issolid at room temperature
    2. Although cocoa butter is an animal fat, it is liquid at room temperature
    3. Although cod liver is animal fat, it is liquid at room temperature
    4. Although cod liver oil is vegetable oil, it is solid at room temperature
    1, 3
  282. Which of the following statements is true when fats and fixed oils are heated strongly?
    1. Fats liquefy
    2. Oils become less viscous
    3. Decomposition occurs accompanied by the production of acrid flammable odors
    4. Saponification occurs
  283. Which of the following is true when fats and fixed oils are heated moderately?
    1. Fats become less viscous, oils liquefy
    2. Fats liquefy, oils become less viscous
    3. Decomposition occurs with the production of acrid flammable odor
    4. Saponification occurs
  284. Which of the following is the common property of lipids?
    1. Insoluble in water
    2. Soluble in nonpolar solvents
    3. Completely immiscible with hexane
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 2
  285. Which of the following are properties of fats and fixed oils?
    1. Greasy to touch
    2. Leave a permanent oily stain upon the filter paper
    3. A few of them are soluble in alcohol
    4. They undergo saponification
  286. These are lipids that contain carbohydrate (galactose or glucose), one fatty acid, and sphingosine, but no phosphoric acid or glycerol
  287. These are compounds related to cerebrosides that contain sphingosine, long-chain fatty acids, hexanes (usually galactose or glucose), and neuraminic acid.
  288. Gangliosides, cerebrosides, and cytolipins are collectively called
  289. This is the deposition of lipid plaques on the lining of the arteries.
  290. Which of the following is/are true regarding lipolysis?
    1. It is triglyceride hydrolysis
    2. It liberates free fatty acids from their main storage depots in the triglycerides
    3. It begins in the intestinal hydrolysis of dietary triglycerides by pancreatic lipase
    4. AOTA
  291. Beta-oxidation of fatty acids occurs in the
  292. Fatty acid elongation occurs in the
  293. This 3-carbon fatty acid derivative arises from the catabolism of fatty acids containing odd-numbered carbons.
    Propionyl CoA
  294. Which of the following are ketone bodies
    1. Acetone
    2. Acetic acid
    3. Acetoacetic acid
    4. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid
    1, 3, 4
  295. The state of high serumlevels of acetoacetic acid and beta-hydroxybutyric acid is called
  296. The Salkowski test for cholesterol utilizes what strong acid?
    Sulfuric acid
  297. The acetic acid-sulfuric acid test for cholesterol is more commonlyknown as
    Liebermann-Burchard test
  298. What is the positive result for Liebermann-Burchard test?
    Bluish-green color
  299. Which vitamin can be used in the management of hyperlipidemia?
  300. Which of the following drugs is a structural analog of HMG-CoA?
    1. Clofibrate
    2. Colestipol
    3. Cholestyramine
    4. Lovastatin