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2013-08-27 04:19:35

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  1. What two enzymes are used to bypass the pyruvate kinase reaction of glycolysis
    • Pyruvate carboxylase
    • PEP carboxylase
  2. Which of the following includes the main goalsog pentose PO4 pathway?
    1. Produce ribose-5-PO4 for nucleotide synthesis
    2. Produce NADPH and NADP for oxidoreductive biochemical syntheses
    3. To interconvert pentoses and hexoses
  3. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the secondary structure of nucleic acids?
    1. Guanine forms base pairs with cytosine via 2 H bonds
    2. The B form of the DNA is the most common in biological systems
    3. The breaking of H bonds caused by high temp is called melting
    2, 3
  4. The phospholipid, phosphatidylinositol 4,5 biPO4 forms the potent secondary messenger inositol triPO4 anddiacylglycerol via what enzyme?
    Phospholipase C
  5. Which of the following is not true regarding the fourenzyme complexes of the ETC?
    1. Complex I is known as NADH-CoQ oxidoreductases
    2. Complex II is known as succinate-CoQ oxidoreductases
    3. Complex III is known as cytochrome oxidase
    4. Complex IV is known as cytochrome oxidase
  6. Glucose and mannose are epimers at
  7. One important endogenous molecule for synthetic biotransformation of xenobiotics is glucoronic acid. It is actually the most dominant biotransformation pathwaydue to the readily available source of glucose. It is produced from glucose via oxidation at C
  8. Which of the following is not true about protein structure determination?
    1. NMR is the primary means of determining protein structure
    2. Proteins are difficult to crystallize, a disadvantage of xray crystallography
    3. An advantage to the use of NMR is that proteins analyzed are in their natural state
    4. Large and very complex proteins can only be analyzed by xray crystallography
  9. Tertiary structures of proteins are primarily stabilized by
    • Hydrophobic interactions
    • Disulfide bonds
  10. In an uncompetitive inhibition of enzymatic action
    1. Inhibitor binds to either the free enzyme or enzyme-substrate complex
    2. Lineweaver-Burk plots of the enzyme alone (control) and the enzyme + inhibitor are parallel to each other
    3. The apparent Km is raised
    4. Vmax is unaffected
  11. Which biomolecule is not considered a biopolymer?
  12. It is regarded as the universal biological energy currency.
    Adenosine triphosphate
  13. This complex is the final e- receptor of the ETC.
    Complex IV
  14. The most accepted hypothesis regarding oxidative phosphorylation is
    Lock and key theory
  15. This is a quantitative study of energy transformations in the living cell
  16. Which hormone promotes rapid glycogenolysis in both liver and muscle?
  17. Which vitamin can be used in the management of hyperlipidemia?
  18. Bond between 2 amino acids
    Peptide bond
  19. Beta oxidation of fatty acids occurs in the
  20. The pentose phosphate pathway occur in the ______ of liver, muscle, and kidney..
    Endoplasmic reticulum
  21. The isoelectric point is the
    pH wherein the amino acid exists in its zwitterion form
  22. This is the only optically inactive amino acid
  23. This level of protein structure is applicable only to those that have several subunits.
  24. Arginine is the only metabolite of the urea cycle that does not accumulate because
    1. It is readily excreted
    2. It is used up by the body for protein synthesis
    3. There is no known deficiency in the enzyme that catabolizes it
    4. It can be acquired from food
  25. This is the genetic condition characterized by deficiency of the enzyme branched chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase
  26. These are compounds related to cerebrosides that contain spingosine, long-chain fatty acids, hexoses (usually GAL or GLU), and neuramic acid.
  27. This enzyme catalyzes the conversion of F6P to F1,6BP.
  28. What is transamination
    Conversion of amino acids to keto acids
  29. The sugar involved in DNA
  30. This is the reason why blood type AB is considered as the universal recipient.
    It has neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies
  31. Which one is true regarding the structures of lipids?
    1. Eicosapentanoic acid is a saturated fatty acid
    2. They may exist as esters of cholesterol when they are enclosed in very low density lipoprotein
    3. Linoleic acid is an omega-3 fatty acid
    4. Capric acid contains 12C
  32. This is the product of basic hydrolysis of fats and oils
  33. The group of lipids considered amphipathic
  34. Which properly describes a liposome
    1. It is a hollow sphere-like structure composed of a lipid bilayer enclosing an aqueous cavity
    2. It is a lipid structure wherein the hydrophobic chains of fatty acids are sequestered at the core of the sphere with virtuall no water in the hydrophobic interior
    3. It is a lipoprotein integrated in the phospholipid bilayer of cell membranes
    4. It is a hollow sphere-like structure composed of a lipid monolayer enclosing a hydrophobic cavity
  35. It is the building block of essential fatty acids
    Acetyl CoA
  36. The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the
  37. Cellular elements of the blood devoid of a nucleus
  38. Conjugated proteins which are a combination of amino acids and carbohydrates.
  39. Glucose is normally absent in the urine because kidneys normally completely reabsorb all glucose. Which of the following is true?
    1. Glucosuria confirms DM
    2. Glucosuria necessarily means hyperglycemia
    3. Glucosuria is solely attributed to insulin problem
    4. Glucosuria may occur in other disease states
  40. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which can cause acute confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia, can be treated with which vitamin?
  41. This is the major excretory product of purine nucleotides
    Uric acid
  42. It is the phenomena of renaturation of nucleic acid after it has been subjected to high then to room temperature.
  43. This is the base sequence for the start codon
    AUG (methionine)
  44. This feature of bacterial cells confers selectivity of antibacterial agents targeting protein synthesis to the bacteria and not to the host cell.
    30S ribosomal subunit
  45. This is also known as RNA-directed DNA polymerase
    Reverse transcriptase
  46. What essential amino acid is used in the synthesis of niacin?
  47. The cellular particles are often referred by their sedimentation coefficient value. For example, 70s ribosomes that are expressed in terms of 10^-13 seconds. The abbreviation "s" stands for
  48. The best known building blocks of RNA and DNA are
    Purines and pyrimidines
  49. The following are pathological constituents of urine except
    1. Glucose
    2. Albumin
    3. Creatinine
    4. Blood
  50. Glucose and galactose differ only in the configuration of their hydroxyl group at carbon 4. Glucose and galactose are
  51. This chemical representation shows the most stable conformation of hexoaldopyranoses.
    Chair conformation
  52. It is the most abundant hexose inside the body.
  53. Upon hydrolysis sucrose yields
  54. This is the process of biosynthesis of glucose from non-carbohydate precursors
  55. Which is most likely the effect of insulin in glucose metabolism?
    1. It promotes lipolysis in adipose tissue
    2. It promotes exocytosis of glucose transporters in the skeletal muscles
    3. Activates protein kinase A which eventually leads to inactivation of pyruvate kinase
    4. It promotes the hormonal role of glucagon in glucose metabolism
  56. The activation of pepsinogen requires
  57. Glucose, fructose, and galactose all have the same chemical formula, C6H12O6. Through this information, we can conclude that these substances are
  58. The end product of the hydrolysis of glycogen is
  59. Ketoses can be differentiated from aldose by this test
  60. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. The difference between intake and output of nitrogenous compounds is known as nitrogen balance
    2. In a healthy adult, nitrogen balance is in equilibrium when intake equals output
    3. Positive nitrogen balance occurs when dietary intake is less than excretion of nitrogenous compounds
    4. Negative nitrogen balance results when there is too much protein intake
    1, 2
  61. The formation of a purple ring at the junction of the acid and sugar layers in the Molisch test detects the presence of
  62. The observance of a red colored solution in Seliwanoff's test detects the presence of ______
  63. This test distinguishes between reducing sugar monosaccharides and reducing disaccharides based on the difference in the rate of reaction.
    Barfoed's test
  64. In xanthoproteic test, proteins with aromatic amino acids undergo _____ to give an intense yellow colored solution in alkaline media
  65. Biuret test forms _______ colored complex with cupric ion in basic solutions of compounds with 2 or more peptide bonds
  66. When starches are heated, they produce
  67. The principal end product of protein metabolism
  68. Myoglobiin and hemoglobin possess a cyclic tetrapyrole, heme, as a prosthetic group. Which of the following ions is found centrally located in the heme?
  69. The following are components of DNA nucleosides except
    1. Phosphoric acid
    2. Sugar
    3. Adenine
    4. Cytosine
  70. The enzyme decarboxylase is an example of _______ enzyme.
  71. The spontaneous isomerization of two stereoisomers in aqueous solution that causes specific rotation is known as
  72. Which of the following is a polysaccharide
    1. Dextrose
    2. Dextran
    3. Lactose
    4. Sucrose
  73. The substance that is isolated from the brain and produces fatty acid, galactose, and sphingosine upon hydrolysis is known as
  74. Which of the following is not a hydrolyzed product of lecithins?
    1. Fatty acid
    2. Glycerol
    3. Phosphoric acid
    4. Sphingosine
  75. Albumin is an example of a
    1. Simple protein
    2. Conjugated protein
    3. Derived protein
    4. Hydrolyzed protein
  76. This is the product of the complete reduction of oxygen
  77. Which is not a B-complex vitamin?
    1. Folic acid
    2. Nicotinic acid
    3. Riboflavin
    4. Ascorbic acid
  78. Rotation of polarized light is caused by solution of all of the amino acids except
  79. What test can be used to differentiate galactose from lactose?
  80. Alpha-naphthol reaction is also known as
    Molisch test
  81. Which of the following is not about PKU?
    1. It is a dse usually characterized by metal abnormalities
    2. A high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid is found in urine
    3. It occurs due to excessive secretion of phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme
    4. A Guthrie test is normally used to detect it
  82. Sweet taste of a compound is generally attributed to
    1. Presence of H ions
    2. Presence of OH ions
    3. Presence of cations and anions
    4. Presence of alkaloids
  83. The rate of hydrolysis depends on
    1. Pressure
    2. pH of the solution
    3. Temperature
    2 and 3
  84. Which of the following is not recommended to treat hypoglycemia induced by acarbose?
    1. Dextrose
    2. Table sugar
    3. Glucagon
    4. Glucose
  85. Which of the following is normally not found in bacterial but present in human cells?
  86. This term refers to intact enzyme with a bound cofactor
  87. The colorof the skin, hair, eyes is due to a pigment called
  88. Serotonin is synthesized from this amino acid
  89. Keratin in hair and horny tissue, elastin in tendons and arteries, and collagen in skin and tendons belong to what type of simple proteins?
  90. Nucleosides upon hydrolysis will yield
    1. Adenine and PO4
    2. Quinine and PO4
    3. Histones and ribose
    4. Cytosine and ribose
  91. Which of the following is/are true about lysozyme?
    1. It is generally known as the powerhouse of the cell
    2. It helps in the removal of damaged cell
    3. It contains a bactericidal agent such as lysozyme that kills bacteria before it damages the cell
    2 and 3
  92. What is the rate-limiting step in the synthesis of RBC?
    Oxygen transport capacity
  93. What helps in the absorption of vitamin B12?
    Intrinsic factor
  94. Which of the following factors affects the solubility of solutes?
    1. Temperature
    2. pH
    3. Common ion effects
  95. Which of the following factors affect the protein binding drugs?
    1. Pregnancy
    2. Hypoalbuminemia
    3. Uremia
  96. Some serum enzymes are used in clinical diagnosis. Which of the following enzyme/s may be used to diagnose myocardial infarction?
    1. Gamma-glutaryl transpeptidase
    2. AST/SGOT
    3. Creatinine phosphokinase
    4. Lactate dehydrogenase
  97. Which test is specific for amino acids and free amino group?
    Ninhydrin test
  98. The following sugars are aldohexoses except
    1. Fructose
    2. Galactose
    3. Glucose
    4. Mannose
  99. Arrange the secondary derived proteins from highest to lowest MW
  100. Is the sum total of all activities directed towards the maintenance of life.
  101. In protein, amino acids are joined covalently by
    Peptide bonds
  102. The denaturation of protein can occur in the presence of
    1. Heat
    2. Strong acid
    3. Organic solvent
  103. Which of the following about sickle cell anemia is not true?
    1. It is a genetic disorder resulting from the production of variant hemoglobin
    2. It is characterized with pain, life-long hemolytic anemia, and tissue hypoxia
    3. The replacement of leucine at the 6th position of the beta-globulin chain for glutamate is generally responsible for causing it
    4. The form Hbs has an extremely low solubility compared to Hba which results into the aggregation of molecules that form or create sickle shaped RBC
  104. The enzyme with its cofactor is generally known as
  105. The process in which the release of energy from energy-rich molecules such as glucose and fatty acid that occurs in mitochondria is known as
    Oxidative phosphorylation
  106. Hopkins-Cole is used to identify which of the following amino acids?
    1. Threonine
    2. Tryptophan
    3. Lysine
    4. Leucine
  107. ______ are stereoisomers if cyclized monosaccharide molecules differing only in the configuration of the substituents on the carbonyl carbon
  108. Protein digestion starts in the
  109. The sugar that yields only glucose when hydrolyzed is
    1. Galactose
    2. Maltose
    3. Fructose
    4. Sucrose
  110. What is the visible result for Molisch test?
    Purple ring at the junction
  111. The breakdown of complex molecules such as protein, lipid, and polysaccharide into simple molecules such as carbon dioxide, water, and ammmonia is known as
    Catabolic reaction
  112. What would be the end product of glycolysis in the cell with mitochondria
  113. Which of the following substance levels is found to be deficient in a patient with G6PD deficiency?
    1. Alpha-antitrypsin in reduced form
    2. Bradykinin in reduced form
    3. Glutathione in reduced form
    4. Trypsin in elevated form
  114. Which of the following causes hemolytic anemia in patients withe G6PD deficiency?
    1. Oxidant drug
    2. Ingestion of fava beans
    3. Certain types of infections
  115. Which of the following should be classified as a disaccharide?
    1. Ribose
    2. Lactose
    3. Glycoprotein
    4. Glycosaminoglycans
  116. Which of the following accurately describes Barfoed's test?
    1. General test for carbohydrates
    2. Test for ketoses
    3. Specific test for galactose
    4. Test to differentiate mono and disaccharides
  117. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. Although cocoa butter is a vegetable oil, it is solid at room temperature
    2. Although cocoa butter is an animal fat, it is liquid at room temperature
    3. Although cod liver is animal fat, it is liquid at room temperature
    4. Although cod liver is vegetable oil, it is solid at room temperature
    1, 3
  118. This gives a negative result to Benedict's test
  119. The number of chromosomes in the human cells is
  120. A condition known as atherosclerosis results as an accumulation in the blood vessels of
  121. The pairs of structure that are mirrow images of each other are known as
  122. In humans, the principal storage of glycogen is found in the
    1. Skeletal muscle
    2. Liver
    3. Spleen
    1, 2
  123. Which of the following substances should be classified as a polysaccharide?
    1. Glucose
    2. Hyaluronic acid
    3. Sucrose
    4. Glycoprotein
  124. Which of the following agents acts as an emulsifying agent for metabolism of lipid in the duodenum?
    Bile salt
  125. Which is the building block of memebrane of nerve tissue?
  126. The enzyme alpha-amylase cleaves ______ to maltose and maltotriose
  127. Glycogen is an example of a
  128. This is also known as protein-calorie malnutrition. It is a state resulting from the chronic deficiency of calories, which can occur even in the presence of adequate intake of protein.
  129. Rotation of polarized light is caused by solutions of all amino acids except
  130. Butter becomes rancid upon exposure to air due to formation of
    Butyric acid
  131. Which of the following is considered protein deficient malnutrition?
    1. Kwashiorkor
    2. Marasmus
    3. Steatorrhea
    1, 2
  132. Which of the following is a good source of vitamin K?
    1. Cabbage and cauliflower
    2. Fatty fish and liver
    3. Vegetable oils
    4. Yellow and green vegetables and fruits
  133. Which of the following codons is generally known as stop/nonsense codons?
    1. UAG
    2. UGA
    3. UAA
  134. To find out if a substance is carcinogenic, which of the following tests should be performed?
    1. Ames test
    2. Pyrogen test
    3. Biopsy of cells
  135. The synthesis of proteins and lipid in cells is generally carried out by
    Endoplasmic reticulum
  136. Denaturation is a randomization of the conformation of a polypeptde chain. Chemical agents like strong acids/bases, heat, ionic detergents, etc. Are involved in this process. Which of the following structures remain unaffected with denaturation?
    1. Primary
    2. Secondary
    3. Tertiary
    4. Quaternary
  137. Which of the following statements about amino acids is true?
    1. Acidic amino acids bear a positive charge at pH7
    2. All amino acids have chiral carbon
    3. Lysine and arginine are basic amino acids
    4. AOTA
  138. Which is a codon for methionine?
  139. Which of the following amino acids is not essential in mammals?
    1. Phenylalanine
    2. Lysine
    3. Tyrosine
    4. Methionine
  140. The chief end product of purine metabolism
    in man
    Uric acid
  141. The growth of bacteria remains constant in which phase?
    Stationary phase
  142. When the transfer of genetic information from one cell to another cell is carried out by the plasmid, it is known as
  143. Which of the following are essential fatty acids in humans?
    1. Linoleic acid
    2. Linolenic acid
    3. Arachidonic acid
  144. The principal energy-carrying molecule in a cell is
  145. Which of the following enzymes is a rate-limiting step in glycogenolysis?
    1. G6P
    2. CAMP-dependent protein kinase
    3. Glycogen synthase
    4. Glycogen phosphorylase
  146. Whichh of the following nitrogenous bases is only present in DNA?
  147. Which of the following ions is cotransported with glucose in the small intestine?
    1. K
    2. Na
    3. Ca
    4. Mg
  148. Maltose, a disaccharide, is composed of
    Glucose + glucose
  149. Anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the
  150. IUPAC name of acrolein
  151. Which of the major serum proteins is involved in protein binding of drugs?
  152. Which of the following is a good source of vitamin A?
    1. Cod liver oil
    2. Carrots
    3. Citrus fruits
    4. Leafy vegetables
  153. The secondary structure of protein consists of
    1. Alpha helix
    2. Beta sheet
    3. Beta bend
  154. The small and circular extrachromosomal DNA molecules that carry genetic information for future generations in bacteria are known as
  155. Which of the following RNA types comprises 80% of RNA in the cell?
    1. rRNA
    2. tRNA
    3. mRNA
  156. A reddish solution results after the addition of iodine TS to an unknown solution. Subsequent addition of ammoniacal basic lead acetate to a portion of the unknown solution results to the formation of a precipitate. The results of the tests confirm the presence of
  157. D-threose and L-threose are examples of
  158. This test is used to confirmthe presence of the phenolic ring of tyrosine
  159. The energy-producing reaction
  160. Which of the hydrolysis product of starch is responsible for forming a dark blue complex with iodine?
  161. This is the main pathway for carbohydrate catabolism in all human tissues.
  162. These are esters of fatty acids and glycerol
    Fixed oils and fats
  163. The enzymes for glycolysis are found in the
  164. What is the positive result for Fehling's test?
    Brick red precipitate
  165. The cell markers which serve as basis for the ABO blood types are calssified as what type of biopolymers?
  166. Detects the presence of alpha amino acids
  167. None-protein molecules that are often assocaited with proteins are called
    Prosthetic group
  168. These stereoisomers are nonsuperimposable images of each other. They are also called optical isomers because they rotate optical isomers because they rotate polarized light in opposite directions
  169. The absence of this enzymes results to phenylketonuria
    Phenylalanin hydroxylase
  170. Dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine are collectively called catecholamines. Which amino acid serves as a precursor in the synthesis of these catecholamines?
  171. This refers to the spatial arrangements of amino acid residues close to one another in the linear sequence of a polypeptide chain
  172. Which of the following is/are point mutations?
    1. Insertion
    2. Deletion
    3. Transition
  173. Deoxyribonucleic acid is a double stranded polynucleotid. The base content of DNA displays three sets of equivalent pairs. Which of the following are equivalent base pairs?
    1. A=T
    2. C=G
    3. A+G=T+C
    4. A+G is not always equal to T+C
  174. Which acrbon in the sugars is responsible for the difference between the two nucleic acids
    Carbon 2
  175. The normal pH of blood.
  176. Fruity odor of urine is indicative of acetone bodies, a diagnostic value in case of acidosis in
    Diabetes mellitus
  177. These are discontinuous stretches in which the lagging strand is initially synthesized during DNA replication
    Okazaki fragments
  178. This DNA mutation occurs when a purine replaces a pyrimidine or vice versa
  179. A purine replaces another purine in _______ mutations.
  180. This substance accumulates in the muscles as a result of vigorous exercise
    Lactic acid
  181. This test ist also known as a glyoxylic acid reaction
  182. This is caused by the inadequate intake of protein in the presence of adequate intake of calories.
  183. This hormone may sometimes be useful in the reversal of cardiac effects of beta blocker overdose because of its ability to increase cAMP production in the heart
  184. The cholesterol molecule is a
  185. The proteinase that is found mostly in gastric acid juice of young animals
  186. The nonsugar portion of glycosides is known as
    1. Aglycone
    2. Genin
    3. Glycone
    4. 1 and 2
    5. 2 and 3
  187. Humans catabolize purines to _____
    Uric acid
  188. Principal digestive constituent of the gastric juice
  189. This is a rare human disorder, which progresses to photosensitivity, caused by an inherited exinuclease deficiency
    Xeroderma pigmentosa
  190. The reagent in Molisch test which is responsible for hte dehydration reaction
    Sulfuric acid
  191. Genetic information is stored and carried in all cells by
    Double-stranded DNA
  192. This is a general test for carbohydrates
    1. Alpha-naphthol reaction
    2. Molisch test
    3. Phenylhydrazine reaction
    4. 1 and 2
    5. 2 and 3
  193. Lecithin is an example of
  194. These are esters of high MW, monohydric alcohols and high MW fatty acids
  195. Glutamine is a _____ amino acid
  196. In all phosphorylation reactions, this metal is an essential cofactor
  197. The glycosidic bond form in glycosides is an example of
    Ether bond
  198. Actinomycin D, an antineoplastic drug, intercalates between two GC pairs in DNA. Which process does it inhibit.
  199. This is the main pathway for carbohydrate catabolism in all human tissues.
  200. Lard is an example of what chemical class of lipid?
    Fixed oils and fats
  201. These are alcohols containing the CPPP nucleus
  202. What is wobble?
    The ability of certain anticodons to pair with codons that differ at the third base
  203. These are organelles that ocntain the enzymes for pyruvate oxidation, citric acid cycle, beta oxidation of fatty acids, oxidative phosphorylation, and ETC.
  204. Which of the following sugars forms an insoluble white phenylhydrazone readily?
    1. Sucrose
    2. Galactose
    3. Arabinose
    4. Mannose
  205. Which of the following is an example of wax?
    1. Cholesterol
    2. Ergosterol
    3. Spermaceti
    4. Lecithin
  206. Viruses are not cellular, but are rather termed as "biological entities". The main reason why viruses are considered acellular entities is because
    1. A virus contains only one type of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA
    2. A virus is very small compared to bacteria
    3. A virus is pathogenic
    4. Scientists cannot classify viruses under the 5 kingdoms of Whittaker
  207. Which of the following statements is/are true?
    1. Unsaturated fatty acids have lower melting points than saturated fatty acids
    2. Vegetable oils are generally liquid
    3. Vegetable oils are generally soil
    1 and 2
  208. What is the positive visible result for Liebermann-Burchard test?
    Bluish-green color
  209. After digestion and absorption, all biopolymers are converted to the common product _____
    Acetyl CoA
  210. The total net ATP prduced in aerobic glycolysis is _____ ATPs per mole hexose, depending on which shuttle predominates in the transport NAD/NADH
  211. The signs of pellagra include dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, and loss of tongue papillae. Which of the following is/are deficient in pellagra?
    1. Niacin
    2. Tryptophan
    3. 1 and 2
    4. Pellagra is not a deficiency state. It is an autoimmune disorder
  212. Fibrous and globular proteins belong to what protein structure?
  213. The isoelectric pH is the pH midway between pK values on either side of the isoelectric process. What is the equation that gives an accurate estimate of isoelectric pH?
    pI=(pK1 + pK2)/2
  214. Each end of the DNA double helix contains the 5' end of one strand and the 3' end of the other--this statement describes what characteristic of the DNA structure?
  215. The arrangement of polypeptide chains in relation to one another in a multi-chained protein refers to what structure?
  216. Which of the following statements beloe gives an accurate description of collagen?
    1. It is a fibrous protein
    2. The basic unit of collagen is tropocollagen, a triple helix of three polypeptide chain
    3. Vitamin A is important in catalyzing the hydroxylation of proline
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 2
  217. Random coils and triple helices are examples of what protein structure?
  218. How many hydrogen bonds are formed between cytosine and guanine?
  219. The DNA structure is a double helix containing chains which are complementary. Which of the following statements best describes complementarity?
    1. In the chains, each end of the helix contains the 5' end of one strand and the 3' end of the other
    2. Adenine binds to thymine, and cytosine binds to guanine
    3. Several codons may code for the same amino acid
    4. AOTA
  220. Which of hte following amino acids possess a phenolic hydroxyl group?
    1. Serine
    2. Threonine
    3. Tyrosine
    4. 1 and 2
    5. AOTA
  221. Certain metals and trace elements are important as enzyme cofactors. What metal si present in the enzyme glutathion peroxidase that replaces S in one cysteine in active site?
  222. This immunoglobulin is responsible for mediating hypersensitivity by causing hte release of mediators from amst cells and basophils upon exposure to antigens or allergens.
  223. The OH groups on the penultimate or second to the last carbon atom defines
    1. D or L, dextro point to the right and levo pointing to the left
    2. d or l, regarding optical activity
    3. Both statements are correct
    4. Both statements are incorrect
  224. Which of the following is/are examples of catabolism?
    1. Glycogenesis
    2. Glycolysis
    3. Beta oxidation of fatty acids
    4. 1 and 2
    5. 2 and 3
  225. How many ATPs are produced in the conversion of one mole of FADH2 to FAD?
  226. How many ATPs are produced in the reduction of one mole of NAD to NADH?
  227. How many ATPs are produced for every oxidized acteyl CoA?
  228. The site of citric acid cycle
  229. Trimethoprim and methotrexate are folate reductase inhibitors. The use of the aforementioned drugs predisposes a person to develop
    Megaloblastic anemia
  230. One way of classifying proteins is through their physical properties. Which of the following is soluble in water and salt solutions, and has no distinctive amino acids?
    1. Prolamine
    2. Globulin
    3. Albumin
    4. Histones
  231. Using the equation of pI, calculate pI of alanine; pK1=2.35, pK2=9.69
  232. This type ofm utation occurs when the codon containing the changed base may become a termination codon
    Nonsense mutation
  233. The result of a point mutation that occurs when UCA (serine) is converted to UCU (serine) is called
    Silent mutation
  234. Which fibrous protein is an important structural component of arterial blood vessels and ligamins?
  235. Which of the following are purine bases?
    1. A, T
    2. A, G
    3. C, T
    4. C, U
  236. Which of the following amino contain/s basic side chains?
    1. Histidine
    2. Arginine
    3. Leucine
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 2
  237. Which of the following amino acids has an imino group?
    1. Phenylalanine
    2. Proline
    3. Tyrosine
    4. Threonine
  238. The overall arrangement and interrelationships of various regions or domains and individual amino acid residues of a single polypeptide chain is _____
  239. Alpha-helix and beta-pleated sheets belong to what structure?
  240. Which of the following is/are examples of essential amino acids?
    1. Tyrosine
    2. Threonine
    3. Tryptophan
    4. 1 and 2
    5. 2 and 3
  241. Which of the following is the central hub in the metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and amino acids?
  242. Which is the visible result for aminoguanidine reaction?
    Bright reddish purple
  243. Ascorbic acid, glucuronides, and some drugs act as reducing agents. How would these substances affect Benedict's test result?
    May give false positive results
  244. Which of the following statements is/are true?
    1. The carbonyl carbon in aldoses is C1
    2. The carbonyl carbon in aldoses is C2
    3. Both statements are correct
    3. Both statements are false
  245. Histamine, a chemical messenger, mediates alelrgic and infalmamtory reactions, gastric acid secretion, and neurotransmission of hte brain. Which of the amino acids, which when decarboxylated, yields histamine?
  246. Which metal acts synergistically with vitamin E?
  247. Among the fibrous proteins listed below, which are the major proteins of the skin and hair?
    1. Keratin
    2. Collagen
    3. Elastin
    4. Fibronectin
  248. The coenzyme FMN and FAD is responsible for the oxidative deamination of amino acids. Which vitamin is related to these coenzymes?
    B2 (riboflavin)
  249. These are slightly longer, catalytically inactive forms of enzymes.
  250. Ninhydrin is widely used for detecting amino acids. What is the visible result for ninhydrin test in the presence of proline and hydroxyproline?
  251. Xanthoproteic test is for
  252. What is the positive visible result for xanthoproteic test?
    Yellow color deepening into orange
  253. Pauly diazo test indicates the presence of
    1. Histidine
    2. Tyrosine
    3. Tryptophan
    4. 1 and 2
  254. Specific test for arginine
  255. This test is used to identifiy the presence of peptide linkages
  256. Process of converting liver glycogen into blood glucose
  257. The clinical test for the determination of cholesterol
    1. Liebermann-Burchard
    2. Salkowski
    3. 1 and 2
    4. NOTA
  258. What diet would you advice the child's mother with PKU to give her baby?
    Rich in tyrosine, no phenylalanine
  259. What improtant neurotransmitter uses tryptophan as its precursor?
  260. Which branched-chain amino acids are responsible of the characteristic "sweet smell" of urine of patients with maple syrup urine disease?
    Leucine, isoleucine, valine
  261. This results from the oxidation of heme protein in hemoglobin resulting ot icnreased oxygen affinity, and therefore failure to adequately deliver oxygen to tissues.
  262. Which of the following enzymes adds an inorganic phosphate to break a bond?
    1. Kinase
    2. Phosphorylase
    3. Phosphatase
    4. Ligase
  263. What is the deficiency state of folic acid?
    Megaloblastic anemia
  264. Cheilosis, glossitis, seborrhea, and photophobia are manifestation of what deficiency state?
  265. This immunoglobulin prevents the attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes. It is found in body secretions such as tears, colostrum, saliva, sweat, and small intestines.
  266. Pepsinogen is an example of
  267. This enzyme adds hydrogen atoms to a molecule
  268. Which of the following enzymes is an example of a hydrolase?
    1. Esterase
    2. Racemase
    3. Aminotransferase
    4. Decarboxylase
  269. This teype of enzymes cleaves a carbon to carbon bond to create an aldehyde group.
  270. Mutarotation is a process of interconversion between the alpha and beta forms, using the open-chain structure as an intermediate. Which of the following undergoes mutarotation?
    1. Monosaccharides
    2. Disaccharides
    3. Polysaccharides
    4. Amino acids
  271. Which of the following presents a cyclic sugar structure?
    1. Fischer projection
    2. Haworth projection
    3. Chair conformationn
    4. Boat conformation
  272. The deficiency of which of the following enzymes predisposes person taking some therapeutic agents (i.e 4-aminoquinoline, sulfonamides, and propantheline) to hemolytic anemia?
    1. G1P
    2. G6P
    3. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
    4. Thymidylate synthase
  273. What type of glycosidic bond joins the dimer of glucose to form maltose?
  274. Which of the blood types is considered the universal donor?
  275. Which of the following is/are examples of glycosaminoglycans?
    1. Hyaluronic acid
    2. Mucopolysaccharides
    3. Chondroitin sulfate
    4. AOTA
    5. 1 and 3
  276. This is a differentiation test for aldose and ketose sugars.
    Seliwanoff's test
  277. This is known as the Embden-Meyerhoff Pathway
  278. Which of enzyme is responsible for catalyzing hte reaciton of glucose to G6P?
  279. Which enzyme is the most imporant in controlling glycolysis
  280. Among the different cells in the body, only these lack mitochondria which renders them incapable of TCA.
  281. This refers to aldose-ketose interconversion.
  282. The citric acid cycle is an example of a/an ______ metabolism
  283. These are esters of glycerol in combination with fatty acid, phosphoric acid, and certain nitrogenous compounds.
  284. Which of the following statements is true when fats and fixedo ils are heated strongly?
    1. Fats liquefy
    2. Oils become less viscous
    3. Decomposition occurs accompanied by the production of acrid flammable odors
    4. Any of the above
  285. These are lipids that contain carbohydrate (usually galactose or glucose), one fatty acid, and sphingosine, but not phosphoric acid or glycerol.
  286. Gangliosides, cerebrosides, and cytolipins are collectively called _____
  287. This is the deposition of liquid plaques on the lining of the arteries.
  288. The state of high serum levels of acetoacetic acid and beta-hydroxybutyric acid is called
  289. The following are glycolipids except
    1. Globosides
    2. Phosphatides
    3. Gangliosides
    4. Cerebrosides
  290. The parent compound of phospholipids.
    Phosphatidic acid
  291. ID test to detect the presence of glycogens
  292. The only sugar that readily forms insoluble osazone crystals.
  293. Important structural material found in teh exoskeletons of many lower animals.
  294. General term for a group of polysaccharides present on the primary cell wall
  295. Specific test for galactose, due to the formation of highly insoluble crystals.
    Mucic acid
  296. Type of RNA which serves as template for the amino acid sequence being synthesized
  297. The steps of central dogma states
    Replication, transcription, translation
  298. Reverse transcription takes place in
  299. The following are enzymes found in pancreatic juice, except
    1. Papain
    2. Trypsin
    3. Chymotrypsin
    4. Carboxypolypeptidase
  300. All of the following cabrohydrates are ocnsidered to be polysaccharides except
    1. Heparin
    2. Starch
    3. Glycogen
    4. Maltose