MC-12W Master Question File 27 Jul 2012

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cfontillas
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MC-12W Master Question File 27 Jul 2012
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2013-09-06 21:33:26
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Master Question File Pilot MC 12W Stan Eval
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  1. The maximum landing weight of the King Air 350ER (B300/B300C) is________ pounds.

    A. 16,500
    B. 16,100
    C. 15,675
    D. 15,500

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 1-14 & 2-15
    15,675
  2. Weather Radar - Warning: The area within the scan arc and within _____ of an operating TWR-852 system can be a hazardous area. Do no operate the systems in any mode other than ______ or _______ when the antenna might scan over personnel within that range. Turning the transmitter on while inside the hanger is not advisable.

    A. 5 feet, WX, WX+T
    B. 5 feet, STBY, WX
    C. 2 feet, STBY, WX+T
    D. 2 feet, STBY, TEST

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 2-26
    2 feet, STBY, TEST
  3. (T/F): It is not required for all wing inspection lights to be operative prior to flight into known or forecast icing condition at night.

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 2-27
    False
  4. (T/F): Warning - Do not use reverse thrust with one engine inoperative. Care must be exercised when using single-engine ground fine on surfaces with reduced traction.

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 3-4
    True
  5. (T/F):  DOOR UNLOCKED - WARNING: Do not attempt to check the security of the airstair door or cargo door in flight. Remain as far from the door as possible with seatbelts securely fastened.

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 3-9
    True
  6. The MC-12W's Glide ratio is ______ for each 1000 feet of altitude. Decrease by ______ for each 10 knots of headwind

    A. 3.1 NM, 1.1 NM
    B. 1.1 NM, 0.5 NM
    C. 4.2 NM, 0.3 NM
    D. 2.3 NM, 0.2 NM

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 3-11
    2.3 NM, 0.2 NM
  7. ________ annunciators may momentarily illuminate during simultaneous wing boot and brake deice operation at low N1 speeds. If annunciators immediately extinguish, they may be disregarded.

    A. BLEED FAIL
    B. CABIN ALT HI
    C. L&R BL AIR OFF
    D. L&R ENG ANTI-ICE

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 3-18
    Bleed Fail
  8. Dual Generator Failure: The propeller ground idle stop solenoids will be inoperative rendering the effectiveness of the propeller Ground Fine and Reverse power lever settings ineffective or greatly reduced. Plan on _________.

    A. longer landing distances.
    B. shorter landing distances.
    C. increased landing speeds.
    D. decreased landing speeds.

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 3-12
    longer landing distances
  9. UNSCHEDULED ELECTRIC PITCH TRIM ACTIVATION: Pilot action: AP/Trim Disconnect-DEPRESS FULLY & HOLD. NOTE that applies to this step: _______ will disengage and _______ will be interrupted when the disconnect switch is depressed.

    A. Autopilot, flight director
    B. Autopilot, Rudder Boost
    C. Yaw Damper, Rudder Boost
    D. Rudder Boost, Autofeather

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 3-19
    Autopilot, Rudder Boost
  10. (T/F):  Care must be exercised when using single-engine ground fine on surfaces with reduced traction. Do not use reverse thrust with one engine inoperative.

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 3A-7
    True
  11. CROSSFEED (ONE-ENGINE-INOPERATIVE OPERATION): XFR OVERRIDE switch must be in AUTO position on side being crossfed. If the ________ is closed, the supplemental fuel supply will not be available (usable), and the fuel pressure annunciator will remain illuminated on the side supplying fuel.

    A. Standby Pump
    B. Fuel Crossfeed
    C. Firewall Valve
    D. Fuel System test

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 3A-8
    Firewall Valve
  12. (T/F):  Do not lift power levers in flight. Lifting the power levers in flight, or moving the power levers in flight below the flight idle position, could result in a nose-down pitch and a descent rate leading to aircraft damage and injury to personnel.

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 2-7
    True
  13. CIRCUIT BREAKER TRIPPED: Essential Circuit (necessary for continued safe flight). Allow CB to cool for a minimum of _____ sec. If CB trips again __________.

    A. 5, do not reset
    B. 10, do not reset
    C. 15, reset on more time is allowed
    D. 10, reset one more time is allowed

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 3A-11
    10, do not reset
  14. (T/F):  Turning on the Avionics Master Pwr Switch removes power that holds the avionics relay open. If the switch fails to the OFF position, pulling the Avionics Master circuit breaker will remove power to the relay and should restore power to the avionics busses.

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 3A-17
    True
  15. (T/F):  To minimize ingestion of ground debris, the engine anti-ice system should be ON for all ground operations.

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 4-11
    True
  16. If no ITT rise is observed within ____ seconds after moving the Condition Lever to LOW IDLE, move the Condition Lever to CUTOFF and release the Ignition and Engine Start Switch to OFF. Allow ____ minutes for fuel to drain and starter to cool, then follow Engine Clearing procedures.

    A. 5, 10
    B. 3, 10
    C. 3, 5
    D. 10, 5

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 4-14
    10, 5
  17. NEVER CONNECT AN EXTERNAL POWER SOURCE TO THE AIRPLANE UNLESS A BATTERY INDICATING A CHARGE OF AT LEAST ____ VOLTS IS IN THE AIRPLANE. If the Battery voltage is less than ____ volts, the battery must be recharged, or replaced with a battery indicating at least _____ volts, before connecting external power.

    A. 28
    B. 23
    C. 20
    D. 18

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 4-15
    20
  18. Operation of the electric pitch trim system should occur only when both elements of the dual-element switch are activated. Any movement of the elevator trim wheel while activating only one element denotes __________.

    A. normal operation
    B. a system malfunction
    C. reduced electric pitch trim operation
    D. limited use of the electric pitch trim

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 4-24
    a system malfunction
  19. (T/F):  ENGINE ANTI-ICE: Either the MAIN or STANDBY actuator must be operational on each engine anti-ice before takeoff.

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 4-26
    True
  20. (T/F):  Operating propeller deice when the propellers are static is authorized.

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 4-27
    False
  21. In order to minimize ice accumulation of unprotected surfaces of the wing, maintain a minimum of ____knots during operations in sustained icing condition. In the event of windshield icing, reduce airspeed to ____ knots or below.

    A. 125, 184
    B. 140, 226
    C. 140, 184
    D. 94, 170

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 4-31
    140, 226
  22. Engine Auto-Ignition must be ARMED for icing flight, precipitation, and operation during turbulence. To prevent prolonged operation of the igniters with system ARMED, do not reduce power levers below ____ % torque.

    A. 10
    B. 12
    C. 17
    D. 21

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 4-32
    17
  23. High ITT at ground idle may be corrected by ________and/or ___________.

    A. Taxiing, shutting down engine
    B. increasing accessory load, reducing N1 rpm
    C. feathering engine, turn aircraft into the wind
    D. reducing accessory load, increasing N1 rpm

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 2-8
    reducing accessory load, increasing N1 rpm
  24. If residual ice remains on the airplane, increase VREF speeds by ____ knots.

    A. 5
    B. 10
    C. 15
    D. 20

    Ref: Pilot Operating Handbook-ISR Supplement Para: Pg: 4-35
    15
  25. If possible, propellers should be moved out of reverse at approximately _______ to minimize_________. Care must be exercised when reversing on runways with loose sand, dust or snow on the surface. Flying gravel will damage propeller blades, and dust or snow may impair the pilot's visibility.

    A. 40 knots; blade erosion
    B. 40 knots; brake wear
    C. 50 knots; blade erosion
    D. 50 knots; brake wear

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 4-37
    40 knots; blade erosion
  26. (T/F):  To minimize ingestion of ground debris, the engine anti-ice system should be ON for all ground operations.

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 4-37
    True
  27. ENGINE SHUTDOWN CHECK - CAUTION: Monitor ITT during shutdown. If sustained combustion is observed, proceed immediately to the _________ procedure. During shutdown, ensure that the compressors decelerate freely. Do not close the firewall fuel valves for normal engine shutdown.

    A. ENGINE SHUTDOWN CHECK
    B. HOT/HUNG START
    C. NO LIGHT START
    D. ENGINE CLEARING

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 4-38
    Engine Clearing
  28. If the OAT is ____ degrees C or below and visible moisture will be encountered during the takeoff, engine anti-ice must be turned on.

    A. 0
    B. +5
    C. +8
    D. +10

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 4-43
    +5
  29. SIMULATING ONE-ENGINE-INOPERATIVE(ZERO THRUST) - WARNING: Intentional in-flight engine cuts should be simulated by retarding the power lever to zero thrust (5% Torque) at or above the VSSE speed of _____ knots.

    A. 140
    B. 125
    C. 135
    D. 94

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 4-44
    135
  30. VMCA demonstration (stall series) may be required for multi-engine pilot certification. The following procedure shall be used at a safe altitude of at least _____ feet above the ground in clear air only.

    A. 10,000
    B. 7,000
    C. 5,000
    D. 3,000

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 4-45
    5,000
  31. (T/F) Ensure the ground communications power switch is off before leaving the airplane so a drain on the battery will not occur.

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 4-47
    True
  32. Compliance with a TCAS II ______ is necessary unless the pilot considers it unsafe to do so, or unless the pilot has better information about the cause of the ____ and can maintain a safe separation (e.g. observing a fault in the TCAS, or obtaining a visual contact with the intruder in order to maintain a safe separation.)

    A. Traffic Advisory (TA)
    B. Resolution Advisory (RA)
    C. ATC Advisory
    D. Oral Advisory

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 4-49
    Resolution Advisory (RA)
  33. (T/F):  (With ISR Mod) Do not Taxi, Takeoff or Land over any ground obstruction (arresting cable, tiedown cable, etc.). Damage may result due to low clearance of L-3 Fairing

    Ref: Pilot Operating Handbook-ISR Supp Para: Pg: 5
    True
  34. Total usable fuel is_________. Main tank is _______, each Auxiliary tank is ________, each extended range tank is ______(Using 6.7 lbs/gal conversion)

    A. 5192 lbs. 1273 lbs, 533 lbs, 790 lbs
    B. 539 lbs. 190 lbs, 79.5 lbs, 25.4 lbs
    C. 4000 lbs. 200 lbs, 100 lbs, 60 lbs
    D. None of the above.

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 2-11
    • 5,192 lbs
    • 1,273 lbs
    • 533 lbs
    • 790 lbs
  35. (With ISR Mod) The Left Escape Hatch is blocked by the OP1 rack and is not accessible as an emergency exit. The ________ and the _______are the only two (2) exits that can be accessed from both inside and outside the aircraft.

    A. Pilot Windows; Aft Exit
    B. Left Escape Hatch; Right Escape Hatch
    C. Right Escape Hatch; Airstair/Cargo Door
    D. Pilot Windows; Airstair/Cargo Door

    Ref: Pilot Operating Handbook-ISR Supp Para: Pg: 11
    • Right Escape Hatch
    • Airstair/Cargo Door
  36. (T/F):  (With ISR Mod) Danger Zone. The turret is remotely controlled and capable of continuous movement from drive motors that are capable of forces that can injure personnel.Ref: Pilot Operating Handbook-ISR Supp Para: Pg: 13
    True
  37. (With ISR Mod) For a static takeoff, set static takeoff power while holding the brakes then release the brakes. For a rolling takeoff, set static takeoff power within ____ seconds of brake release. Observe ITT limits for all takeoffs. After the Power Levers are set, ensure [L AFX] & [R AFX] or [L AUTOFEATHER] & [R AUTOFEATHER] are illuminated. Upon reaching VR, rotate to ____ degrees maximum pitch attitude. When a positive climb is established, raise the landing gear, maintain airspeed of V35 until clear of obstacles, then set flaps up (as required).

    A. 5; 3 to 5
    B. 8; 3 to 5
    C. 3; 10
    D. 10; 10

    Ref: Pilot Operating Handbook-ISR Supplement Para: Pg: 18
    10; 10
  38. (T/F):  (With ISR Mod) Cycle boots as required to remove icing during takeoff roll.

    Ref: Pilot Operating Handbook-ISR Supp Para: Pg: 17
    False
  39. (With ISR Mod) Increasing airspeed will cause torque and ITT to increase. Due to the increased takeoff speeds at weights above _______ pounds, the plane may exhibit a galloping tendency during the takeoff roll. The airplane feels ready to lift off prior to Vr.

    A. 14,500
    B. 15,000
    C. 15,500
    D. 16,000

    Ref: Pilot Operating Handbook-ISR Supp Para: Pg: 17
    15,000
  40. (With ISR Mod) For a Balked landing (or Go Around), set the power to maximum allowable. Maintain _____ until clear of obstacles then establish a normal climb. Raise the flaps to approach at ______, raise the landing gear when a positive climb is established, and set the flaps to UP at _____ knots minimum.

    A. VREF + 15; VREF + 10;
    B. VAPP; VAPP; 125
    C. VREF + 20; VREF + 20; 140
    D. VREF; VREF + 10; 135

    Ref: Pilot Operating Handbook-ISR Supplement Para: Pg: 20
    • VREF
    • VREF + 10
    • 135
  41. (T/F):  (With ISR Mod) The Left Escape hatch is blocked by OP1 rack and is not accessible as an emergency exit.Ref: Pilot Operating Handbook-ISR Supplement Para: Pg: 31
    True
  42. Turret Limitations: For ground operations where the temperature is above 35°C (95°F), restrict operations to a duty cycle of _____ on, _____ off. If ground operations are approaching maximum limit time, verify Turret Power Switch (on Left Side SO avionics rack) is off. [Note: This is a situation where there is no airflow over the turret. The system does not have a self contained cooling system and is dependent on slipstream for cooling.]

    A. 1 hour; 4 hours
    B. 30 minutes; 45 minutes
    C. 2 hours; 2 hours
    D. 45 minutes; 30 minutes

    Ref: MX-15Di Designator System Para: Pg: 9
    1 hour, 4 hours
  43. (T/F):  (With ISR Mod) The laser illuminator is non-eye safe and may result in serious eye damage (including blindness) and/or skin damage to any ground personnel, flight crew or any other observers (including other aircraft).

    Ref: Pilot Operating Handbook-ISR Supplement Para: Pg: N-6
    True
  44. (T/F):  Keep turret powered. There are no mechanical locks to keep the turret in the stowed position while powered down.

    Ref: Pilot Operating Handbook-ISR Supplement Para: Pg: N-2
    True
  45. (T/F):  Do not take off if fuel quantity gages indicate in yellow arc or indicate less than 265 pounds of fuel in each wing system

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 2-11
    True
  46. (T/F):  Fuel Reserve: For turbine-powered aircraft use fuel consumption rates that provide maximum endurance at 10,000 ft. Mean Sea Level (MSL).

    Ref: AFI 11-202V3 ACCSUP Para: 2.4.4.2
    True
  47. In order to increase awareness on potential conflicts with other aircraft, aircrews will brief the following special subject on every sortie:

    A. Radar/visual search responsibilities for departure, en route, recovery and high density traffic areas
    B. mid-air collision avoidance (from other military aircraft and/or civilian aircraft)
    C. Both A and B
    D. None of the above

    Ref: AFI 11-202V3 ACCSUP Para: 2.7.3.1
    • [both A and B]
    • Radar/visual search responsibilities for departure, en route, recovery and high density traffic areas
    • Mid-air Collision avoidance (from other military aircraft and/or civilian aircraft)
  48. In the absence of other MAJCOM guidance, USAF aircrews shall consider as mountainous: those areas defined in 14 CFR 95.11 for CONUS, Alaska, Hawaii, and Puerto Rico. For all other areas of operation, use ______________ to define the location of mountainous terrain.

    A. 100 ft surface elevation change over a ½ NM distance
    B. 200 ft surface elevation change over a 1 NM distance
    C. 300 ft surface elevation change over a ½ NM distance
    D. 500 ft surface elevation change over a ½ NM distance

    Ref: AFI 11-202V3 ACCSUP Pg: 20 Chap: 2 Para: 2.11.
    500 ft surface elevation change over a 1/2 NM distance
  49. Pilots shall always ensure ________________ prior to commencing an RNAV procedure (departure, arrival, or approach) using any MAJCOM-approved RNAV equipment.

    A. Ceiling and visibility are 1500/3 and clear of clouds
    B. Landing checklist is completed
    C. RAIM availability
    D. clearance to land

    Ref: AFI 11-202V3 ACCSUP Para: 2.16.4.3.1
    RAIM availability
  50. The ________ is responsible for ensuring that the aircraft is not operated in a careless, reckless, or irresponsible manner that could endanger life or property.

    A. Pilot
    B. Senior ranking officer
    C. Operations Group Commander (OG/CC)
    D. PIC

    Ref: AFI 11-202V3 ACCSUP Para: 5.1.1
    PIC
  51. A person shall not act as a crewmember of an aircraft:

    A. While under the influence of alcohol or its after-effects
    B. While using, or while under the influence of, any substance that affects the crewmembers ability to safely perform assigned duties
    C. While self-medicating (unless approval granted IAW AFI 48-123)
    D. All of the above

    Ref: AFI 11-202V3 ACCSUP Para: 5.1.4
    • [All of the above]: 
    • While under the influence of alcohol or its after-effects
    • While using, or while under the influence of, any substance that affects the crewmembers ability to safely perform assigned duties
    • While self-medicating (unless approval granted IAW AFI 48-123)
  52. (T/F):  Pilots operating in VMC, under IFR or VFR, and operating under radar control are not required to see and avoid other traffic, terrain, and obstacles.

    Ref: AFI 11-202V3 ACCSUP Para: 5.4
    False
  53. Use of tobacco products aboard any ACC aircraft, aircraft under ACC oversight, or within RPA ground control stations including the control element __________.

    A. is prohibited
    B. must be authorized by the PIC
    C. Is only authorized with WG/CC approval
    D. Is prohibited below 10,000 ft MSL

    Ref: AFI 11-202V3 ACCSUP Para: 5.23
    is prohibited
  54. Avoid thunderstorm activity by any means available by at least:

    A. 20 NM laterally at or above FL 230
    B. 10 NM laterally below FL 230
    C. Both A and B
    D. Neither A or B

    Ref: AFI 11-202V3 ACCSUP Para: 5.26.3
    • [Both A & B]:  
    • 20 NM laterally at or above FL 230
    • 10 NM laterally below FL 230
  55. (T/F):  Pilots shall not deviate from an ATC clearance in response to a Resolution Advisory (RA).

    Ref: AFI 11-202V3 ACCSUP Para: 5.27.1.3
    False
  56. The supplemental electric heater must be off for at least _____ minutes prior to and during engine start.

    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 2-18
    2
  57. During day/VMC flight, terrain warnings _____________.

    A. Must be followed
    B. Need not be followed if the TAWS/EGPWS has previously given erroneous indications
    C. Need not be followed if the pilot can verify the warning is false by visual contact with the terrain/obstacle
    D. Caused by an error in the TAWS/EGPWS system can be corrected by pulling the TAWS/EGPWS circuit breaker

    Ref: AFI 11-202V3 ACCSUP Para: 5.28
    Need not be followed if the pilot can verify the warning is false by visual contact with the terrain/obstacle
  58. Weather for the ETA (+/- 1 hour) at destination or recovery base must be __________ for the aircraft concerned.

    A. At or below the lowest compatible published landing minimums
    B. At or above the lowest compatible published landing minimums
    C. above the lowest compatible published landing minimums
    D. below the lowest compatible published landing minimums

    Ref: AFI 11-202V3 ACCSUP Para: 8.6.3
    At or above the lowest compatible published landing minimums
  59. An alternate is required when the worst weather (TEMPO or prevailing) at the ETA (+/- 1 hour) for the point of intended landing (or each point of intended landing on a stopover flight plan) does not permit a VFR descent from the MIA and is less than:

    A. A ceiling of 2,000 ft and a visibility of 3 SMs
    B. A ceiling of 2,000 ft and a visibility of 2 SMs
    C. A ceiling of 3,000 ft and a visibility of 2 SMs
    D. A ceiling of 3,000 ft and a visibility of 3 SMs

    Ref: AFI 11-202V3 ACCSUP Para: 8.7.1.1
    A ceiling of 2,000 ft and a visibility of 3 SMs
  60. Compute fuel requirements using a fuel reserve as prescribed in AFI 11-202v3, paragraph 2.4.4, from __________________. Include fuel for 30 minutes holding at the destination fix, plus fuel for the penetration and landing.

    A. Takeoff to over the destination fix
    B. Departure to the first point of intended landing
    C. Takeoff to the first point of intended landing
    D. Departure to over the destination fix.

    Ref: AFI 11-202V3 ACCSUP Para: 8.7.3.3
    Departure to over the destination fix
  61. (T/F):  Pilots shall not begin an en route descent, arrival, or published approach if the destination's weather is below the required approach minimums.

    Ref: AFI 11-202V3 ACCSUP Para: 8.17.1
    True
  62. The maximum Flight Duty Period (FDP) for training flights is ____ hours.

    A. 10
    B. 12
    C. 14
    D. 16

    Ref: AFI 11-2-MC-12 Vol 3 Pg: 13 Chap: 3 Para: 3.6.2.
    14
  63. The minimum crew required to fly the MC-12W is _______________.

    A. One AC and one copilot (CP)
    B. One MC, one copilot (CP), one Sensor Operator (SO), and one CO
    C. One AC
    D. None of the above

    Ref: AFI 11-2-MC-12 Vol 3 Para: 3.2
    One AC and one copilot (CP)
  64. (T/F):  During training missions, pilot in-flight seat swaps may be accomplished only with a qualified pilot at the flight controls and above 1,000 feet Above Ground Level (AGL).

    Ref: AFI 11-2-MC-12 Vol 3 Para: 5.2.1
    True
  65. Minimum runway width is ___ feet.

    A. 50
    B. 60
    C. 65
    D. 75

    Ref: AFI 11-2-MC-12 Vol 3 Pg: 21 Chap: 5 Para: 5.9.1.
    60
  66. Minimum runway length for touch and go landings is ______ or TOFL, whichever is greater.

    A. 4,000 feet
    B. 5,000 feet
    C. 6,000 feet
    D. 8,000 feet

    Ref: AFI 11-2-MC-12 Vol 3 Para: 5.9.4
    6,000 feet
  67. The autopilot minimum engage height after takeoff is ________.

    A. 79 feet AGL
    B. 79 feet MSL
    C. 400 feet AGL
    D. 400 feet MSL

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 2-20
    400 feet AGL
  68. With an RCR of 10, the maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing is _____ knots.

    A. 10
    B. 15
    C. 20
    D. 25

    Ref: AFI 11-2-MC-12 Vol 3 Para: Table 5.5
    20
  69. Before departure, the _____________ will be set for emergency return.

    A. Primary ATC radio
    B. Squawk
    C. Radar Altimeter
    D. Primary navigation source

    Ref: AFI 11-2-MC-12 Vol 3 Para: 5.13
    Radar Altimeter
  70. Crewmembers will accomplish FENCE checks on all operational missions. FENCE stands for:

    A. Frequency, Emissions, NORDO, Communications, Electronics
    B. Fire Control, Emissions, Navigation, Communication, Emergency
    C. Fuel, Electronics, Navigation, Coordinates, Emergency
    D. Frequency, Electronics, Navigation, Communication, Emergency

    Ref: AFI 11-2-MC-12 Vol 3 Para: 5.15
    [B.] Fire Control, Emissions, Navigation, Communication, Emergency
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Maintain at least ____ NM separation from heavy rain showers

    A. 3
    B. 4
    C. 5
    D. 6

    Ref: AFI 11-2-MC-12 Vol 3 Para: 6.19.4.3.2
    5
  72. (T/F):  The MC-12W is a Category "C" aircraft. If approach speeds exceed 120 KIAS, use Category "D" approach minimums. If approach speeds exceed 140 KIAS, use Category "E" approach minimums.

    Ref: AFI 11-2-MC-12 Vol 3 Para: 6.34.1
    False
  73. (T/F):  Only a crew member or properly trained ground personnel should close and lock the Airstair Door and Cargo Door (if installed).

    Ref: Pilot Operating Handbook-Liberty 9+ POH Supp Para: Pg: 15
    True
  74. The autopilot minimum use height during approach is ________.

    A. 160 feet AGL
    B. 160 feet MSL
    C. 79 feet MSL
    D. 79 feet AGL

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 2-20
    79 feet AGL
  75. (T/F):  VNAV altitudes must be displayed on the MFD map page or CDU (center console display) LEGS page when utilizing VNAV for flight guidance.

    Ref: Pilot's Operating Handbook Para: Pg: 2-25
    True

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