Canine Feline

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Marytaylor
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231716
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Canine Feline
Updated:
2013-10-04 11:49:29
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Vet Tech
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Canine Feline
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  1. Dog
    Pulse                                                           
    Respiration                                                   
    Temperature
    • Pulse: 60 - 120 bpm
    • Respiration: 10 - 30 rpm
    • Temperature: 100 – 102o F
  2. Cat
    Pulse
    Respiration
    Temperature
    • Pulse: 110 - 130 bpm
    • Respiration: 20 - 30rpm
    • Temperature: 100 – 102o F
  3. Dog
    Leukocytes:
    Packed Cell Volume:
    Hemoglobin:
    • Leukocytes: 11,000
    • Packed Cell Volume: 45
    • Hemoglobin: 14.5 mg p/100 mL
  4. Cat
    Leukocytes:                                                   
    Packed Cell Volume:
    Hemoglobin:
    • Leukocytes: 13,000
    • Packed Cell Volume: 37
    • Hemoglobin: 12 mg p/100 mL
  5. Dog
    Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN):
    Glucose:
    Coagulation time:
    • Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN): 15
    • Glucose: 85
    • Coagulation time: 1-5 mins
  6. Cat
    Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
    Glucose
    Coagulation time
    • Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN): 17
    • Glucose: 75
    • Coagulation time: 1-5 mins
  7. Dog & cat
    Gestation:                                                     
    Estrus:
    • Both 60 days gestation
    • Estrus: Dog 6 months 
    • Estrus: Cat 15-21 inducted ovulator
  8. Of any infectious disease is the natural habitat of its causative agent
    Reservoir
  9. Reservoir can be clinically infected and can shed microorganisms that cause disease
    Carriers
  10. Reservoir and carrier are distinguished from the _________ of the infection which can be any vertebrae or inanimate object (also referred to as a fomite)
    Source
  11. Implies spread of a disease following intimate contact with a carrier or reservoir.
    Contagious Infection
  12. Refers to the ability to spread from infected to susceptible host
    Transmissibility or Communicability
  13. Transmission between members of the same population
    Horizontal
  14. Transmission of succeeding generations through genetic material i.e. bitch passes to the pups in utero
    Vertical
  15. Most frequent and important means of spread. This involves direct physical contact or close proximity between host and susceptible individual
    Direct Contact Transmission
  16. Transmission involving transfer of infected organisms from the carrier to a susceptible host by animate or inanimate intermediaries (known as vehicles or fomites)
    Indirect Transmission (Vehicle or Fomites)
  17. Spread of the infection is dependent upon the ability of resistant microorganism to travel for relatively long distances or to survive in the environment for extended periods until they encounter susceptible host.
    Airborne
  18. Disease spread by antropods – Most commonly that transmits an infection from an infected host through its excrete/blood to a susceptible individual
    Vector Borne
  19. Vector that transmits an infected agent without change in the agent (no molts)
    Mechanical Vector
  20. Results when the vector transfers the organism to its progeny (offspring) in the ovary or the placenta
    Transovarial (in-utero/transplacental)
  21. Transfer of etiological agent in the milk 
    Transmammary (Galactogenic)
  22. Transmission of infectious etiology from molting stages such as nymph form to the second host i.e. cow – Lone star tick – Amblyomma americana
    Transstadial Transmission (Interstadial)
  23. A disease that is present at birth or develops due to the effects of some etiological factor on the developing embryo or fetus, on the mother before or during pregnancy, or on the uterus or placenta.
    Congenital
  24. A disease or disorder that can be passed on from either or both parents to their offspring. More than one offspring can be affected, and successive offspring may also have the disease since it is an abnormal arrangement of the genes for one parent or both. (blue eyes)
    hereditary
  25. Process by which microorganisms are completely destroyed by chemical or physical means. All life form including heal – resistant spores are killed.
    Sterilization
  26. Practice of immersing items in a disinfectant solution to reduce the level of contamination and kills all spores. The true sterilization is obtained with _________ (pn) ____________ (np name). Must be submerged for hours – apx 18 hrs
    • Cold Sterilization
    • Cidex
    • Gluturaldehyde
  27. Any cleaning measure intended to prevent disease and promote health – i.e. routine cleaning of cages, floors buckets
    Sanitation
  28. Destruction of most pathogenic microorganisms, especially active vegetative forms, but not spores. These chemicals are used on inanimate objects like tables. I.e. Roccal-D
    Disinfection
  29. EG are disinfectants by definition and have the same properties as the disinfectant but it is used strictly for the skin of animals. It is treated with additives so as not to damage the skin. Give an example
    • Antiseptics
    • Providone iodine (stains) Zefrin for white animals
  30. Until the 19th century 2 factors that prevented the development of surgery were:
    • 1. Lack of Painkillers – analgesics (IV and gas)
    • 2. Post Surgical Infection - antiseptics
  31. In what year and who suggested disease result of microorganisms not “Act of God”
    1546 – Fracastoro
  32. In what year and who provide means (microscope) for direct observation of bacteria. actually devised the first microscope in the second half of the 1600's, allowing scientist a closer study of tissues and even description of bacteria, though the role of bacteria in disease was not recognized for another 200 years or so
    1676 – Leeuwenhoek
  33. In what year and who suggested specific
    disease is caused by specific organisms
    1762 – Von Plenciz
  34. In what year and who discovered viruses
    1892 – Iwanowski
  35. Name 8 Etiologies
    • viral
    • bacterial
    • fungus
    • metazoan (worms)
    • rickettsiae (Rocky Mountain Fever),
    • protozoan
    • chlamydiae (yeast)
    • mycoplasmas (PPLO)
  36. Most animal like of the protist, range in size from those just visible to the naked eye to those that are almost as small as bacteria EG: toxoplasmosis, piroplasmosis, coccidiosis
    Protozoa
  37. Non chlorophyll bearing plants and are commonly divided into categories of molds and yeasts. Because they do not produce chlorophyll and cannot synthesize their own food, they must exist as parasites
    Fungus
  38. Generally unicellular with rigid cell wall that defines one of three basic shapes: coccus, bacillus and spirillum. The composition of the cell wall is the basis for the reason of the bacterium to gram stain and bacteria are often referred to as gram positive and gram negative - gram positive = red
    Bacteria
  39. Small group of microbes that are obligate intracellular parasites being totally dependent on the cells of host tissue. At some point in the life cycle, all must utilize arthropods either as a vector or host
    Rickettsiae
  40. Microorganism belonging to this group resembles rickettsiae in several ways
    Chlamydiae (Yeast)
  41. Living cells characterized as possessing either DNA or RNA since they have no enzyme system, they do not conform to the commonly accepted definition of life forms
    Viruses
  42. DNA stands for
    RNA stands for 
    • DeoxyriboNucleic Acid
    • Ribonucleic Acid
  43. Who discovered DNA & RNA?
    James Watson and Francis Crick
  44. Classification of Etiological Agents
    Name 3 Internal factors:
    • Genetic – defect or mutation of the genome
    • Immune system – defect of response
    • Aging – natural process of aging
  45. Classification of Etiological Agents
    Name 4 External factors (general headings):
    • Physical – trauma, pressure, etc.
    • Chemical – toxins, poisons, heavy metals
    • Infections – parasites, bacteria, viruses, fungi, etc.
    • Environmental – nutrition, temperature, radiation, hygiene
  46. List 6 Causes/Types of Diseases
    • A. Hereditary – gene carriers – these are transmitted genetically from parent to offspring. For animals it’s important to identify genetic carrier, discourage breeding.
    • B. Congenital Diseases – pregnancy – disease state that is inflicted during pregnancy on the embryo or fetus. 
    • C. Deficiency Diseases – inability digest – disease due to lack of dietary substances or inability to digest i.e. rickets
    • D. Physical Trauma – includes injuries i.e. lacerations, fractures, blows, burns
    • E. Poison Diseases – toxins interfering – substances that are toxic to living tissues, ingestion absorption or inhalation of a toxic substance.
    • F. Metazoan Diseases – simply disease involving multiple cellular organisms. (metazoan like nematodes) and unicellular organisms (microbes like protozoan) Can be Zoonotic – they are referred to as contagious or infectious.
  47. Factors Influencing Dogs and Cats To Contact Infectious Diseases
    List 5 Host Factors
    • a. Developmental anomalies of the immune system
    • b. Age at the time of exposure
    • c. Maternal immunity
    • d. Nutrition
    • e. Concurrent illness
  48. What has significantly decreased the number of sick animals presented for veterinary care
    widespread vaccination of dogs and cats for viral and bacterial diseases
  49. Factors Influencing Dogs and Cats To Contact Infectious Diseases
    List 5 Environmental Factors
    • a. Population density
    • b. Accumulation of excretion
    • c. Ventilation
    • d. Animal movement from population
    • e. Sanitation
  50. What causes build-up of pathogens?
    Increase in population density
  51. List 3 Primary Agent Factors To Contract Diseases
    • a. Virulence – Southern parasites are viscous
    • b. Dosage – There is always a minimal number
    • c. Route of inoculation – IV “speed kills”
  52. Are the smallest of free living organisms discovered to date. They have no cell wall and they are very resistant to antibiotics
    Mycoplasmas
  53. What are the three basic shapes of bacteria?
    coccus, bacillus and spirillum
  54. What is another word for Emaciation?
    cachexia
  55. What is drug is contraindicated for systemic fungal infections?
    Steroids because it suppresses the immune system.
  56. Name 2 kidney function tests.
    BUN & creatinine
  57. What does MCHC mean
    Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentrations which means you capacity to carry blood is increased or decreased
  58. Point where the parasite originated. I.e. under the magnolia tree
    Source Point
  59. List the 5 Principals of Control
    • A. Vaccination Programs must be tailored to the needs of the specific litter or herd. Primary means
    • B. Clinical Signs – Remove Animals (as well as symptoms) – dogs and cats manifesting clinical signs of infectious disease, however mild, should be removed from the litter.
    • C. Identify Asymptomatic Carriers – using available test (Enzyme Linked ImmunoSorbant Assay ELISA) will help differentiate the asymptomatic carriers. 
    • D. Isolate Young Animals – until disease is identified and remainder of litter has been vaccinated and time for antibody production has passed
    • E. Prioritize Cleanliness
    • 1. Sanitation (sterilization if possible)
    • 2. Ventilation – 12 air exchanges per hour
  60. How do you Identify Asymptomatic Carriers?
    Using available test (Enzyme Linked ImmunoSorbant Assay ELISA) will help differentiate the asymptomatic carriers.
  61. Control Factors For Shelters, Kennels and Catteries
    Temperature: 
    Humidity: 
    Air Exchanges: 
    Light Cycle: 
    Cleaning solution:
    • Temperature: 72 degrees
    • Humidity: 40 – 60 per cent
    • Air Exchanges: 17/hour is optimal but is rare except in NIH (National Institute of Health) facilities. We have 12/hour which is higher than most.
    • Light Cycle: 14/10 (14 light – 10 dark)
    • Cleaning solution: Sodium Hypochlorite
  62. Fleas love around _________ and ___ humidity. 
    • 65 – 80o F
    • 70%
  63. 2 types of vaccinations:
    • 1) A toxoid vaccine
    • 2) Antitoxin
  64. A _____ vaccine is actually given the animal the etiology and allowing them to develop the antibodies – i.e. flu vaccine you are given the flu virus or rabies vaccine;2)
    Toxoid
  65. ______ is a vaccine that is prepared antibodies that go into the body and immediately start killing the antigens in the body. i.e. tetanus vaccine for horses.
    Antitoxin
  66. The purpose of vaccination is two fold:
    • 1. To Protect the individual from disease
    • 2. To maintain a large enough number of immune individuals in the population so that the disease is not readily transmitted (litter immunity) & often treat the individual
  67. What is the difference between veterinary hospitals and clinics?
    hospitals provide overnight extensive care, clinics are basically outpatient
  68. List 3 Types of Vaccine Administration:
    • a. Parenteral (killed, modified live, recombinant) Requires needle
    • b. Intranasal (not all vaccines) i.e. Bordetella bronchiseptica
    • c. oral – i.e. rabies chewable cubes
  69. 2 ways to Protect the Litter
    • a. Vaccine 1 month prior to breeding
    • b. Isolate the new born after vaccination (2 weeks)
  70. Louis Pasteur developed the ________ and Sir Alfred Jenner developed vaccine for ________________.
    • rabies vaccine
    • anthrax and fowl cholera
  71. JAVMA stands for
    Journal of American Veterinary Medical Association
  72. Vaccination of animals has also contributed to improved human health by improving the ____________ and by preventing the __________________.
    • efficiency of food animal production
    • spread of zoonotic diseases (including rabies)
  73. _______ is an etiology that is controlled and is given to the individual and allows the individual to build up immunity against that antigen. 
    Vaccine
  74. After the vaccine (modified live=attenuated, non attenuated=killed or recombinant) is administered to the animal, the animal’s immune system responds in a complex fashion by producing _________ specific for the __________ in the vaccine and stimulating cell mediated immunity in most cases
    • antibodies (IgA, IgE, IgM or IgG)
    • antigen (parvo, paramyxovirus etc)
  75. _____ is an antibody that basically fights viruses and bacteria and it is found around the mucosa or the mucosal linings
    IgA
  76. Vaccines can be made from _____________. Vaccines made from killed bacteria are called _______. Why is it easier to induce protection with a virus vaccine than a bacterin?
    • viruses, bacteria, rickettsiae, protozoans, or fungi
    • Bacterins
    • due to toxins in the bacterial cell wall.
  77. The specific parts of the infective agent, like rickettsia, that are recognized by the immune system are called ______. The portion of the antigen that actually binds with the antibody is called the _____.
    • antigens
    • epitope
  78. List the Three Types of Vaccine  Exist
    • 1. Killed – safe and produce antibodies. Used long ago for exotics. The safest method
    • 2. Modified Live – not as safe since this is the actual “bug” that is injected in the animal, but it is superior in protection since it not only stimulates the production of antibodies against the antigen but it stimulates immunity (humoral immunity) in general to other causes of disease.  Modified etiology (rickettsia, virus etc) that is still alive but it can’t reproduce.
    • 3. Recombinant – superior in that its antibody production is the gp70 type (better) of antibody (type of IgG) and it also stimulates a cell mediated immunity (T-cells) as well as humoral immunity (B-cells).
  79. Type of vaccine that is safe and produces antibodies. Used long ago for exotics. The safest method
    Killed
  80. Type of vaccine that is not as safe since this is the actual “bug” that is injected in the animal, but it is superior in protection since it not only stimulates the production of antibodies against the antigen but it stimulates immunity (humoral immunity) in general to other causes of disease.  Etiology (rickettsia, virus etc) that is still alive but it can’t reproduce.
    Modified Live
  81. Type of vaccine that is superior in that its antibody production is the gp70 type (better) of antibody (type of IgG) and it also stimulates a cell mediated immunity (T-cells) as well as humoral immunity (B-cells).
    Recombinant 
  82. Although the terms modified-live and killed are appropriate for discussing bacteria, some people prefer to use the terms _______and _______, respectively, when discussing viruses because 
    • attenuated
    • inactivated
    • viruses do not completely fulfill the definition of living organisms
  83. The term inactivated does not mean that the vaccine is ineffective; it only means that the infective agent can ____________.
    no longer reproduce
  84. Inactivated (killed) products are safe and stable and are often used for _________. ____ products are the only type of vaccine that should be given to pregnant animals, although the vaccination of pregnant animals is never recommended.
    • routine prophylaxis
    • Killed
  85. 2 Reasons for using Modified live vaccine - because it is
    • 1) more rapid complete production of antibodies, and
    • 2) ability to produce a rapid immune response even if it receives maternal immunity
  86. Recombinant vaccines have what 3 properties that enhance their use
    • 1. Complete immunity – humoral plus a cell mediated response.
    • 2. No virulence since the particle of virus used in controlled so as not to cause the disease it is designed to prevent.
    • 3. No adjuvants are needed.
  87. ______ is a chemical added to vaccine to promote inflammation to stimulate antibody production. __________ gave largest inflammatory response but was also responsible for development of feline sarcoma. 
    • Adjuvant
    • Aluminum 
  88. What 2 aluminum based vaccines gave the most problems for development of felines sarcoma. 
    Rabies and Feline Leukemia
  89. What Is In The Vaccine?
    • Remnants of the cells in which the infective agent was cultured. These culture cells are usually derived from the species that is being vaccinated.
    • Buffers keeps acidity of vaccine from causing problems at the location of the injection
    • pH indicators
    • Preservatives
    • Adjuvants (enhance immune response)
  90. Murine:
    Caprine:
    Ovine:
    • rats, mice
    • goats
    • sheep
  91. Most common form of tissue culture is _________ tissue culture
    chick embryo
  92. Adjuvants were originally added to vaccines years ago to enhance the ________ in Modified Live Vaccines by causing an ___________. 
    • immune response
    • inflammatory reaction
  93. List the 2 Kinds or Types of Immunity include what cell type and if it has a memory.
    • 1. Humoral immunity – B Cell Immunity. Virtually no memory. Must vaccinate often. This is what we induce with our annual and biennial vaccinations.
    • 2.  Cell Mediated Immunity – T cell immunity. Memory immunity. Lasts the entire life of the animal.
  94. The humoral immune system consists of ___________ and the four ____________
    Humoral immunity helps prevent serious systemic _____________.
    • B lymphocytes
    • immunoglobulin classes (IgG, IgM, IgA, and IgE)
    • clinical signs
  95. The Humoral response involves ______ and ___________. They are both from the ______ (very little) but mainly and from the ________________________________.
    • Lymphocytes
    • Plasma cells
    • bone marrow
    • spleen, liver, thymus and lymph nodes of the intestines (Peyer’s Patches).
  96. ___________ produce inflammatory mediators which regulate chronic inflammation
    Lymphocytes 
  97. ____________ are modified lymphocytes that produce antibodies of IgA, IgM, etc
    Plasma cells
  98. When a B cell comes into contact with an antigen which ‘fits’ its _____________, it is prompted to start proliferating and its offspring are stimulated to produce more antibodies with the same antigen specificity. The B cells that develop into Plasma cells must travel through the ______ which is large and functioning well in the young animal and regresses in the aging animal
    • surface receptors
    • Thymus
  99. List 4 reasons why some vaccines fail?
    • 1. handling and administration of vaccine i.e. warm vaccines
    • 2. animal’s response – due to genetics, disease, drugs in vaccine, etc.
    • 3. maternal antibody interference
    • 4. strain in vaccine is too different from the strain needed for protection
  100. List 2 things that destroy any kind of medication and cause it to deteriorate
    light exposure and heat
  101. For most diseases, maternal immunity falls to a level where immunization can occur in some animals by ______ of age. Almost all animals can be immunized by _____ of age. The exception is canine parvo virus. Because maternal antibodies against canine parvovirus last longer, it is necessary to vaccinate puppies against this disease when they are _________________old in areas where parvoviral disease is enzootic.
    • 8 weeks
    • 12 weeks
    • 8, 12, 16, and 20 or even 22 weeks
  102. What previous vaccine resulted in puppies developed eye infection from mucosal reactions and causing blindness in 10% of the puppies.
    Previous DM (Distemper/Measles) vaccine. Human measle virus is almost identical to the paramyxovirus that causes canine distemper. The measle portion of the vaccine lowered the maternal immunity level so that distemper portion of the vaccine would stimulate a response in the antibody production.
  103. List 4 things that cause Failure of Immune Response
    • 1. Maternal Antibodies – are protective for neonates until levels fall below a critical point. Unfortunately these antibodies also react with vaccines, rendering them useless for inducing protective levels of antibody
    • 2. Human Error – vaccines must be given by the recommended routes.
    • 3. Preexisting Infection - animals that are in the incubation phase of infection will usually not be protected by vaccination, nor will animals that are exposed to high levels of virus for prolonged periods after vaccination.
    • 4. Time – inactivated (killed) products usually require two doses before protection is achieved, whereas attenuated (modified live) products usually require only one dose, this assuming the maternal immunity has waned.
  104. Inactivated (killed) products usually require ___ doses before protection is achieved, whereas attenuated (modified live) products usually require ______ dose, this assuming the maternal immunity has waned. 
    • two
    • only one 
  105. It is also important that clients to understand that it takes up to _____ after the last puppy or kitten vaccination before the animal has mounted a strong immune response
    2 weeks
  106. What do we vaccinate cows for?
    Brucellosis, Clostridium (Black leg, Black’s disease, Malignant edema, Red Water), Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR) and Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD), Vibriosis (Campylobacter) and Leptospirosis, Trichomoniasis, Parainfluenza 3 (PI3) and pinkeye
  107. List 3 Complications of Vaccination
    • 1. Pain and Lethargy
    • 2. Anaphylaxis this is a rare immediate hypersensitivity reaction (within an hour). It usually happens in young animals but can occur in animals of any age
    • 3. Injection-Site Reaction: Granulomas, Sacromas, Vasculitis, Uveitis
  108. Adjuvant and attenuated viruses probably induce a _____ response, as a natural infection would. Thus the animal might be experiencing ________. No specific therapy is required, and the animal should be back to normal in a day or two
    • cytokine
    • flulike symptoms
  109. Signs of Anaphylaxis
    hives, facial swellings (angio-neurotic edema), respiratory distress, severe diarrhea, and shock.
  110. Should animals be pretreated with steroids or antihistamines immediately prior to vaccination?
    Steroids are contraindicated because they suppress the antibody reaction. Animals with previous anaphylaxis should have vaccination preceded with an antihistamine
  111. List 4 Injection-Site Reactions:
    Granulomas, Sacromas, Vasculitis, Uveitis
  112. Sarcoma (means cancer) – in cats, vaccine-induced granuloma must be differentiated from vaccination-site sarcoma, which has a grave long-term prognosis. Vaccines with ______-based adjuvants may carry greater risk for inducing vaccination site sarcoma
    aluminum
  113. _____ and ____________ vaccines carry a higher risk of inducing sarcoma than do other vaccines. Sarcomas take about ______ to develop
    • Rabies
    • feline leukemia virus (FeLV)
    • 3 months
  114. When vaccine antigen and the corresponding antibody are deposited in the walls of small blood vessels, ________ may result. The signs depend on the organ that the affected vessels perfuse. Cutaneous type has been reported after accidental subcutaneous administration of ____ vaccines that are designed for intramuscular admin. Vaccinations in the _________ decrease this possibility.
    • Vasculitis 
    • rabies
    • lumbar area
  115. Uveitis has been reported with what vaccine?
    CAV (Canine Adenovirus Type 1– Herpes Virus)
  116. ________ is the inflammation of the sclera, cornea and iris
    Uveitis 
  117. 1st non-adjuvant Feline Rabies Vaccine - name, company and type of vaccine
    • Purevax – from Merial Corp
    • A recombinant canarypox vectored vaccine
  118. ACT
    American College of Theriogenology
  119. The American College of Theriogenology Benefits and Disadvantages of spaying or neutering
    • Benefits: population control, decrease aggression, decrease Hit By Cars, decrease mammary tumor 
    • Disadvantage: obesity, Diabetes Mellitus, osteosarcoma, prostatic tumors, auto immune thyroiditis, hypothyroidism, hip dysplasia
  120. List the Vaccination Schedule for K-9 -
    • 6 Weeks – 1st Parvo (CPV-2) Canine parvovirus – type 2
    • 8-10 Weeks – DHLPCP & Bordetella 
    • 10-12 Weeks – DHLPCP & Bordetella booster
    • 14-16 Weeks – DHLPCP & Rabies
    • 20 Weeks – Parvo
    • 6 Months – Parvo 
    • 1 Year – DHLPCP & Bordetella & Rabies
  121. What does DHLPCP stand for
    Distemper, hepatitis, lepo, parainfluenza, corona virus, parvovirus
  122. What is the State rabies law?
    dog must be given the vaccine by a licensed veterinarian and vaccine bet 3-4 months (12-16 weeks)
  123. List the Vaccination Schedule for Felines
    • •8-10 Weeks – FHV-1 (Feline Herpes Virus), FCV (Feline Calicivirus), FPV (Feline Panleukopenia Virus), FeLV (Feline Leukemia) – 1st 3 in one shot, FeLV is a separate shot
    • •12 Weeks – FHV, FCV, FPV, FeLV, Rabies
    • •6 Months – FeLV
    • •12 Months – FHV-1, FCV, FPV, FeLV, Rab
  124. What vaccine can be administered at the time of each FeLV.
    FIPeritonitis
  125. North American Zoonoses plus Etiologies that can be transmitted to Man from Dogs and Cats (bacteria, virus, metazoan, etc.)
    Brucellosis – 
    Cat-scratch disease – 
    Chagas disease – 
    Conjunctivitis – 
    Diarrhea – 
    Echinococcosis –
    • Brucellosis – Brucella canis
    • Cat-scratch disease – Bartonella henselae/Bartonella vinsonii
    • Chagas disease – Trypanosoma cruzi extracellular blood parasite
    • Conjunctivitis – Chlamydia psittaci Yeast
    • Diarrhea – Salmonella, Campylobacter, Yersinia, Giardia 
    • Echinococcosis – granulosus (here), multiocularis (Northern state)
  126. Continue Transmission and Zoonosis of Dogs and Cats
    Visceral (Ocular) Larval migrans – 
    Cutaneous Laval Migrans – 
    Leishmaniasis – 
    Leptospirosis – 
    Plague – 
    Rabies – 
    Ringworm –
    • Visceral (Ocular) Larval migrans – Toxocara canis, T. cati
    • Cutaneous Laval Migrans – Ancylostoma braziliensis but can be Ancylostoma caninum or A. tubaeforme
    • Leishmaniasis – Leishmania donovani/canis - sandfly is intermediate host
    • Leptospirosis – Leptospira interrogans, canicola, Pomona, harjo, icterohemorrhagica
    • Plague – Yersinia pestis uses man(?) as reservoir and flea is intermediate host
    • Rabies – Lyssia virus or Rhabdovirus group
    • Ringworm – Microsporum canis
  127. Vector that transmits an infected agent with change in the agent (molts) while inside the vector. i.e. Dirofilaria immitis
    Biological Vector
  128. Zoonosis of Dogs and Cats
    Scabies – 
    Sporotrichosis –
    Toxoplasmosis – 
    Tularemia – 
    Wound Infections –
    • Scabies – Sarcoptes scabiei, Notoedres cati. 
    • Sporotrichosis – Sporothrix schenckii Diagnosed through skin scrapings
    • Toxoplasmosis – Toxoplasma gondii causes abortions in humans definitive host=cat. All others are nondefinitive hosts – It is a protozoan Symptom is elevated temperature. Penicillin has no effect
    • Tularemia – Francisella tularensis used by terrorists
    • Wound Infections – Pasteurella multocida & P. haemolytica (other gram negative bacteria)
  129. What is the humans definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii
    It causes _____ in ____________
    It is a _______
    Symptom is ___________. Penicillin has no effect
    • cat
    • abortions; humans
    • protozoan
    • elevated temperature
  130. What zoological agent is used by terrorist?
    Tularemia 
  131. Name 3 gram negative bacteria
    Pasteurella, Pseudomonas, and Proteus
  132. Group Zoonosisis by Etiology
    Viral – 
    Bacterial – 
    Fungal – Topical =
    Systemic fungal infection = 
    Protozoan – 
    Metazoan –
    • Viral – Encephalitis, Infectious hepatitis, Rabies
    • Bacterial – Anthrax, Brucellosis, Chlamydial, Bartonelloses, Leptospirosis, Rickettsial, Salmonellosis, Tuberculosis and Tularemia. Chlamydial and Rickettsial can be listed separately. 
    • Fungal – Topical = Ringworm (Dermatophytes) 
    • Systemic fungal infection = Blastomycosis, Coccidiomycosis, Cryptococcus neoformans. These systemic fungal infections are not considered zoonotic.
    • Protozoan – Amebiasis, Babesiosis, Toxoplasmosis
    • Metazoan – Scabies, Cestodes, Nematodes
  133. Sarcoptes scabiei
  134. Specifics of Zoonotic Importance
    Bites and Scratches = 
    Most common etiological agent of all animal bite wounds = 
    • minimum 30 sec. Scrub
    • Pasteurella multocida, P. hemolitica has been isolated, but multocida is your most common.
  135. Terrorist Agents most commonly used:
    Zoonotic = 
    Anthrax = 
    Human to Human =
    • Zoonotic = P. multocida & Francisella tularensis
    • Anthrax = Bacillus anthracis
    • Human to Human = small pox
  136. Bubonic Plague Etiology =
    (most commonly encountered in _________)
    Intermediate Host =
    • Yersinia pestis
    • New Mexico
    • Intermediate Host = Tropic Rat Flea and Ctenocephalides felis
  137. List the Top 10 Dog Breeds Associated with Human Bite Cases in Harris County & give %
    Note: ______bite cases investigated 05-2010
    • 7,008 bite cases investigated 05-2010
    • 1.  Pit Bull Terrier – 21.99% 
    • 2.  Labrador Retriever – 13.87%
    • 3.  German Shepherd – 8.5%
    • 4.  Chihuahua – 5.3%
    • 5.  Chow Chow – 4.01%
    • 6.  Rottweiler – 3.41% 
    • 7.  Boxer – 3.28%
    • 8.  Dachshund – 2.93%
    • 9.  Belgian Malinois – 2.33%
    • 10. Australian Cattle Dog – 2.23%.
  138. Bubonic Plague gained notoriety in __________ during the _______ as ships navigated from Italy to the British Isles.
    Flea eats _________, causes constipation in the flea. So the flea eats the bacteria and vomits on the rat/human and thus host gets etiology with flea and host dying.
    • London, England
    • 19th century
    • Yersinia pestis (bacteria)
  139. _________ means “enlarged submandibular lymph nodes”.
    Bubonic 
  140. Enteric Zoonosis
    _________ people die in US/year due to food borne infections. ________ morbidity (get sick).
    • 6 - 7,000
    • 1.3 million
  141. Bacteria Causes: _______ and _______. Both are common inhabitance of the cat _______. 
    • Campylobacter
    • Salmonella 
    • intestines
  142. ___________ – causes an ascending paralysis. Only other thing that causes ascending paralysis is _________. 
    • Campylobacter
    • tick paralysis
  143. _________ – produces a projectile diarrhea plus a poly-arthritis (many joints infected) especially seen in the equine.
    Salmonella 
  144. Protozoa
    Causes: In human form is 
    Symptoms:
    Common source is 
    Cause in dog and cat form –
    • Giardia lamblia (human form)
    • projectile vomiting
    • water
    • Giardia intestinalis formerly Giardia canis
    • Neither of these are genus specific so they can be passed back and forth.
  145. Life Span of a Bassett Hound
    10 – 13 years 
  146. Organism causing the disease 
    Etiology (antigen)
  147. _______ - relationship the antibody has to the antigen in ratio terms
    Titer
  148. _____ – the patient that is parasitized by the etiological agent. 
    Host 
  149. __________ – the relationship of various factors which determine the frequency and distribution of infectious diseases.
    Epizootiology 
  150. TVMDL stands for
    Texas Veterinary Medical Diagnostic Lab 
  151. ________ - the natural host for a disease
    Definitive 
  152. ___________ - the development of morbid conditions of a disease in question 
    Pathogenesis 
  153. _____________ is the study of the disease beginning to end.
    Pathology 
  154. CDC stands for ___________.
    List the locations for the Human and Vets
    • Center for Disease Control
    • Human Medicine – Atlanta, Georgia
    • Vet Medicine – Ames, Iowa
  155. _________ – a living organism that lives at the expense of another organism called the host. Generally smaller than the host
    Parasite 
  156. _________ – signs of disease that can be visualized with the naked eye. E.g. vomiting
    Symptom
  157. __________ - signs of disease that can be deduced through the application of lab techniques E.g. hematocrit
    Clinical Signs
  158. _______ - an inanimate object that can maintain the presence of an etiology so as to be passed along to another animal or person E.g. dog blanket moved from one parvo run to another
    Fomite 
  159. List 3 Types of Diagnosis
    • Differential – all of the diseases that it could be based on the symptoms. 
    • Tentative - the most likely disease based on current history of seen recently
    • Definitive – the absolute identification of the etiology based on clinical signs
  160. _________ – all of the diseases that it could be based on the symptoms. 
    Differential Diagnosis
  161. __________ - the most likely disease based on current history of seen recently
    Tentative Diagnosis
  162. _________ – the absolute identification of the etiology based on clinical signs
    Definitive diagnosis
  163. ________ the prevention of disease
    Prophylaxis (Prevention)
  164. __________ - acquisition of etiology and death within 24 hours
    Peracute disease
  165. ________ – a disease that can be severe and possibly deadly but within a longer time Such as 48-72 hours
    _________ – a disease with mild clinical sings like pyrexia and anorexia that does not defer the patient from a relatively normal behavior.
    • Acute disease
    • Subacute 
  166. _________ – no noted clinical signs but may show the occasional symptom of nausea or diarrhea. Animal harbors the etiology but acts otherwise perfectly normal.
    _____ - harbors the etiology like the above infection but never show symptoms or clinical signs.
    • Subclinical
    • Chronic
  167. __________ – a disease of animals that may be transmitted to man under natural conditions E.g. brucellosis. Can also be transmitted from animal to man
    Zoonosis
  168. __________ – attacking many animals in any region at the same time. Ex: rabies in Harris County, Brazoria, Waller county, Montgomery county and San Jacinto – certain areas of the state
    Epizootic 
  169. __________ – present in an animal community at all times, but occurring in only small numbers of cases. Example parvo – seeing a number of cases in the Woodlands.
    Enzootic 
  170. ________ – is the general term for the activities of the Immune System
    Immunity 
  171. List 3 Non-specific Immunities
    • 1. Species Resistance – this refers to the genetic ability of a species to provide defense against certain pathogens. Example: canines do not get feline leukemia. Cats doesn’t get canine adenovirus hepatitis, so it is species resistant.
    • 2. Mechanical and Chemical Barriers – these barriers prevent entry of microorganisms. Example: skin and mucous membranes 
    • 3. Inflammatory Response – when a tissue is invaded by microorganisms, the cells release enzymes called cell-mediators. The mediator enzymes attract wbc (basophils) which dilate the blood vessels and increase the permeability to the vessels in the area. Neutrophils then move through the cellular clefts (out of the vessels) into the tissues to phagocytize the microorganisms thus controlling the infection.
  172. Basophils have _______ which decreases the ability of blood to clot and _______ dilate the blood vessels so the simple squamous epithelial cells pull apart and everything can go into the tissues.
    • heparin
    • histamines
  173. Cells that are invaded by viruses will produce a chemical called _______ which interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease by preventing their _________ within the host cell
    • interferon
    • replication 
  174. _________, another group of enzymes, is activated during infections. It is produced by the cells and binds to the invading cell wall, producing _____________.
    • Complement
    • small holes in the membranes 
  175. ____________ – is carried out by two types of white blood cells called lymphocytes. (B-lymphocytes & T-lymphocytes)
    Specific Immunity
  176. _________ produce antibodies in response to specific antigen stimulation. This is known as __________. Originate in the _______, some of these B lymphocytes will become _________ (or remain as memory cells) and produce antibodies (IgA, IgG, etc). After passing through the _____, the antibodies will bind with the antigens, resulting in agglutination and removal
    from the body.
    • B-lymphocytes
    • humoral immunity
    • bone marrow, spleen, liver
    • plasma cells
    • thymus
  177. T-lymphocytes – also originate in the bone marrow and the reticular endoplasmic system or the lymphoid organs, this is known as ______________. After leaving the bone marrow, they go to the _____ (college) where they are programmed to recognize ______ on cells. After they leave the thymus, they go to the spleen, the lymph nodes, and circulate in the body looking for the invading cells.
    • cell mediated immunity
    • Thymus
    • unique markers
  178. Test used to determine what kind of antibodies the animals has and how much they have. Can determine the titers. Ex demodectic mange caused by the mite and a suppressed immune system - do this test and see what production of that particular antibody is and determine if that animal is susceptible to demodectic mange.
    serum electrophoresis.

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