E190 100 Questions 2013-2014

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  1. (True or False) A flight may be dispatched without the MEL book onboard provided there are no MELs on the aircraft. However, if there are open MELs, maintenance must brief the crew on what has been accomplished. PH 2a.3.4
    False. If there are open MEL items, a printed copy of applicable MEL(s) / supporting documentation is obtained.
  2. (Yes or No) At the gate, a system reset is successful using the procedure found in chapter 4a of the PH. An "info only" write-up is entered in the FDML. Is maintenance required to sign off the log book prior to pushback? FOM 8.3.5
  3. (Yes or No) If the entire crew repositions an aircraft with no passengers aboard, must the evacuation slides be armed? PH 1.15.2
    YES. 1.15.2 Evacuation Slides. Whenever occupants are in the cabin, the escape slides must be armed during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
  4. Who would apply a white non-maintenance aircraft MEL placard? MEL Introduction - 3
    Flight Crew, or by a contract mechanic at a station without US Airways mechanics on duty
  5. If de/anti-icing is required and the de-ice worksheets are missing, where are additional worksheets located?  PH 2a.3.4; FOM 7.7.8
    Pilot Supplemental Binder
  6. (True or False) When a QRH “Confirm” action requires a thrust lever to be moved to the idle position, the following sequence is correct:
    (1). The PM will read the QRH command “#__ Thrust Lever…Confirm…Idle”
    (2). The PM will select the affected thrust lever, and the PF guards the good thrust lever and states “Confirmed”
    (3). The PM will retard the affected thrust lever to idle and announce “Idle”
    PH 9.1.3
    (2). The PM will select the affected thrust lever, and the PF guards the good thrust lever and states “Confirmed”
  7. Your flight will be in RVSM airspace which starts at FL290. When cross checking both PFD altimeters while at the gate, what is the maximum altitude differential? PH 1.16.1
    On the ground, primary altimeter readings must be within 75 feet of each other and within 75 feet of field elevation.
  8. (True or False) If the FOB is outside the fueling variance tolerances and FOB is greater than the gate release, contact the dispatcher to obtain an amended release. PH 2b.1.8

    If FOB is Outside the fueling variance tolerances and the fuel on board is Greater than the Gate Release fuel plus the fuel variance, then notify the dispatcher to correct the W&B or defuel.
  9. (True or False) Whenever the TPS indicates a “Weight Restricted Flight” or “CG Critical Flight,” a “W&B Gate Hold” is in effect. PH 5.5.3
  10. The TPS indicates an altimeter of 29.87. In order to use the data contained in the TPS, the actual altimeter must be either____ or _____. PH 5.5.4
    29.77    Greater

    The actual altimeter setting must be from minus 0.10inch to any greater setting
  11. Actual OAT must be _______ or ______ the temperature listed in the TPS Header section if Thrust/V-Speed data is used with MAX in the AT column.  PH 5.5.4
    Less than, Equal to Actual OAT must be < this number if Thrust/V-Speed data is used with MAX in the AT column.
  12. An ATC clearance has not been received prior to the Before Start Flow. The crew elects to enter the route into the FMS using the flight plan release. The clearance is subsequently received and matches the route entered into the FMS. What, if anything, must be done?
    a. Nothing. Verifying the route against the flight release meets the requirement.
    b. The First Officer will confirm the route entered in the FMS matches the ATC clearance.
    c. The First Officer will advise the Captain the FMS routing is verified.
    d. Both B and C above.
    Reference: PH 2b.1.6
    d. Both B and C above.
  13. What is the maximum allowable fuel variance at the gate?
    Reference: PH 2b.1.8
    A variance of 500 pounds or 1% of the “Gate Release” fuel load (whichever is greater) is allowed
  14. The flight can be dispatched with the First Officer's MFD inoperative. How can the First Officer still have a map display?
    Reference: TM 10.2.13
    Press the HSI button on the Display Controller Panel to get the Map Mode on the PFD
  15. Flightdeck jumpseat occupant's carry-on baggage must be secured using restraining straps. If bags cannot be secured using restraining straps:
    a. Gate agents will gate valet check the bags for US Airways mainline pilots and US Airways Express pilots
    b. Non mainline jumpseat occupants will have their bags checked at the gate for pickup in baggage claim
    c. All jumpseat occupants will have their bags checked at the gate for pickup in baggage claim
    d. a and b
    Reference: FOM 9.2.1
    • No Correct Answer.
    • Gate Valet Check Bags. If bags cannot be secured on the flightdeck using restraining straps, gate agents will gate valet check the bags for the following jumpseat occupants on mainline flights:— US Airways mainline and US Airways Express pilots— FAA, NTSB, or DOD inspectors— Secret Service Agents  All other jumpseat occupants will have their bags checked at the gate for pickup in baggage claim if bags cannot be secured using restraining straps or cabin overhead storage is unavailable.
  16. A Weight Restricted Flight warning is issued on the TPS Departure Plan when the flight is planned within 500 pounds of the restricted takeoff weight (e.g., runway limited, climb, certificated, etc.). The captain: __________________.
    a. will not depart the gate until receiving the final W&B data
    b. may depart the gate without receiving the final W&B data
    c. must contact the controlling dispatcher immediately
    d. b and c
    Reference: FOM 6.1.6
    a. will not depart the gate until receiving the final W&B data
  17. (Yes or No) Is it required to discuss any open items in the Cabin Book Deferred Items List during the captain's crew briefing at trip origination?
    Reference: FOM 8.5.3
  18. A pilot must present any FAA-issued certificate, authorization, or license upon request to the FAA or any of the following:
    a. authorized representative of the NTSB
    b. federal, state, or local law enforcement officer
    c. authorized representative of the TSA
    d. a and b
    e. all of the above
    Reference: FOM 13.3.5
    e. all of the above
  19. (True or False) For flights beyond 50 NM from the nearest shoreline, the flightdeck crew must notify the flight attendants during the Cabin Crew Leg Brief that the flight will require a life vest demonstration.
    Reference: FOM 1.4.4
  20. During an engine start on the ground, when is ignition provided?
    Reference: PH 2b.11.2; TM 17.1.4
    at 7% N2
  21. (Yes or No) The headset for the pushback crew is inoperative. The required “face to face” meeting takes place prior to the push. During this “face to face,” is the crew authorized to establish procedures to start the engine(s) during the push?
    Reference: PH 2b.10.2
  22. What are the memory items if you observed a high EGT while starting an engine?
    Reference: QRH iv
    • Associated Thrust Lever ...... IDLE
    • Associated START/STOP........STOP
  23. Prior to pushback, the first officer turns on the hydraulic system 3A pump. What does this pump power?
    Reference: TM 12.1.17
    • • elevator (right outboard)
    • • rudder (lower actuator)
    • • ailerons (left and right outboard)
  24. What triggers should be met prior to accomplishing the After Start Flow?
    Reference: PH 2b.12.1; PH SOPs.4
    After ground equipment is clear, first officer verbally acknowledges the captain’s wands up signal statement, and engine(s) are stabilized.
  25. (True or False) After departing the gate, a cell phone may be used, for operations only, on the ground if the aircraft is stopped and the parking brake set.
    Reference: FOM 2.2.12
  26. What are the speed limits for straight ahead taxi and a 90° turn?
    Reference: PH 2c.3.3
    The normal straight ahead taxi speed must not exceed thirty (30) knots. When approaching a turn, adjust speed for the surface conditions. Taxi speed must not exceed ten(10) knots in a turn of 90° or greater.
  27. If you had runaway steering, what would you do?
    Reference: QRH iv
    STEER DISC...............Press

    Steer the airplane using differential braking and rudder.
  28. When moderate to severe icing conditions are present during prolonged ground operation, perform static engine run-ups by setting 54% N1 for ____seconds at ____ minute intervals to shed fan blade ice.
    Reference: PH 3.6.6; PH Bulletin 22-11
    30, 30
  29. (Yes or No) Can a crossbleed start be accomplished while the aircraft is taxing?
    Reference: PH 4.8.3

    Parking Brake must be ON
  30. What is the minimum engine warm up time prior to takeoff if the engine has been shut down for less than 1 ½ hour?
    Reference: PH 2b.11.5
    3 Minutes
  31. Once the aircraft departs the gate, a pilot will report via ACARS any changes in flight status to the controlling dispatcher.Because the projected OFF time is communicated to the FAA's ATC-sequencing system, inputting a departure delay greater than ___ minutes can have a negative effect on the aircraft's ATC slot sequencing. For a departure delay, the crew will input remaining time to OFF value into ACARS up to, but not exceeding an entry of ___ minutes. ACARS will prompt for an update every 15 to 20 minutes.
    a. 10; 10
    b. 15; 15
    c. 30; 30
    d. 40; 40
    Reference: FOM 1.7.4
    c. 30; 30
  32. An extended onboard delay is any delay of ___ minutes or more. For any on-aircraft delay, flight attendants and passengers should be kept informed of status approximately every ___ minutes.
    a. 20; 20
    b. 30; 15
    c. 40; 45
    d. 60; 30
    Reference: FOM 2.2.16
    b. 30; 15
  33. What is the minimum RVR for a first officer takeoff?
    Reference: PH 2d.2.1; QRH OD-1
    • — 1600 ft. RVR for any RVR on that runway, or
    • — 1/4 statute mile (if no RVR is reported for that runway).
  34. After a rejected takeoff, where could you find the brake temperatures?
    Reference: TM 14.2.2
    MFD Status Page
  35. (True or False) A takeoff alternate is not required if you are able to return to land at the departure airport using an available approach on the runway in use while complying with any weight limitation or MEL restriction.
    Reference: QRH OD-1
  36. If you were performing a close-in takeoff, when would you start the flap retraction?
    Reference: PH 2d.5
    Reaching 3000' AFE
  37. What is the After Takeoff Flow?Reference: PH SOPs.7; PH 2e.1.2
    • • SLAT/FLAP Lever - UP, 0 detent
    • • Landing Gear Lever - UP
    • • APU - OFF, unless operationally required
  38. During the windshear recovery procedure, what is the initial pitch target?
    Reference: PH 2i.3.4
    When VR is reached, rotate at normal rate toward 15°
  39. An engine malfunction occurs during takeoff, but the engine is still producing thrust (e.g., engine fire or compressor/engine stall). Clean up using the normal takeoff profile except:
    Reference: PH 2d.8.1
    comply with runway specific “Engine Failure - Takeoff” procedure (if published); otherwise, fly runway heading.
  40. Under compelling circumstances such as severe vibration or adverse flight characteristics, the immediate action items maybe accomplished as early as _______ feet AGL?
    Reference: PH 2d.8.1
    400 ft. AFE
  41. During manual flight with the autopilot off (automation level 2), the PM typically makes inputs to the guidance panel. When would the PF make the inputs?
    Reference: PH 2.9.3
    PM or PF when PM is task-loaded/saturated
  42. (True or False) On an RNAV departure, you are authorized to hand-fly the departure only if the autopilot is inoperative and on an MEL.
    Reference: PH 2d.10.1
    FALSE A flight director and autopilot in NAV mode must be used for flight guidance while operating on a RNAV path.
  43. When can CLB 1 be selected?
    Reference: PH 2e.3.3
    CLB 1 may be selected after SLAT/FLAP retraction
  44. With an inoperative ACARS, when should the crew call operations with the OUT and OFF times?
    Reference: FOM 1.8.6
    During a NON-CRITICAL phase of flight.
  45. There is a possibility of a fuel leak through the fuel vents if you exceed 290 KIAS when either fuel tank quantity is greater than ______________ pounds.
    Reference: PH 2e.3.2
  46. (True or False) When passing through 10,000 ft., pilots may go off their headsets and use the cockpit speakers.
    Reference: PH 2.6.1
    FALSE  Above 18,000' it is permitted
  47. On climb out, ATC issues a clearance to “cross GVE at or below FL 250, climb and maintain FL 280.” How would you setup for a VNAV climb?
    reference: PH 8.3.8
    • Set 280 in Altitude Window.
    • Set GVE///FL250B in FMS
    • Select VNAV, FLCH
  48. You have a fuel imbalance with tank 1 being 400 pounds less than tank 2. Describe the valve and pump conditions when LOW 1 is selected.
    Reference: TM 11.2.1
    LOW 1: opens the crossfeed valve and automatically activates AC PUMP 2, supplying fuel to both engines from the right wing tank.
  49. What is the maximum altitude for APU operations to assist and engine start?
    Reference: PH 1.13.2; QRH 48
    21,000 feet
  50. ATC issues you a clearance to “Hold Present Position.” To initiate a PPOS HOLD you must:
    a. The E190 cannot do a PPOS hold.
    b. Type PPOSS in the scratchpad and select it to 1L. Then initiate the HOLD function putting HOLD over 1L.
    c. Find the lat/long of your current position and select it to 1L then HOLD over 1L.
    d. Ensure LNAV is engaged and select the HOLD function over 1L.
    Reference: PH 8.3.8
    d. Ensure LNAV is engaged and select the HOLD function over 1L.
  51. (True or False) When using a non-directional beacon (NDB) for navigation, such as DIX when flying to one of our Caribbean destinations, the proper entry into the FMS would be the identifier, followed by the letters NB (DIXNB).
    Reference: PH 8.1.2
  52. (True or False) Declare an emergency when the remaining fuel quantity presents a need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing.
    Reference: FOM 4.2.2
  53. During the last 1,000 feet of altitude change, who will focus on instrument scanning and include visual monitoring for outside traffic when in VMC?
    Reference: PH 2.8.3
    Both Pilots
  54. When preparing to conduct an RNAV approach, verify there are no RAIM or GPS outage messages affecting the approach. Where would these outage messages be found?
    Reference: QRH OD-9; PH 2f.9.8
    remarks section of the flight release
  55. You experience an engine failure enroute, which you attempt to relight. The QRH directs the ignition switch to be placed in OVRD. What is the function of the OVRD position?
    Reference: TM 17.1.4.
    Setting the ignition selector knob to the OVRD position will energized both igniters. In case of an SPDA 2 failure, setting the selector knob to OVRD will energize igniter A.
  56. (True or False) There are two cargo fire bottles installed. The high rate fire-extinguishing bottle will discharge immediately into the selected cargo compartment. The second fire-extinguishing bottle discharges at a reduced flow rate, and the agent remains in the cargo compartment for 60 minutes.
    Reference: TM 8.1.4
  57. The fasten seatbelt sign shall be on during pushback, taxi, takeoff/landing operations, and when ___ or greater turbulence is anticipated. For passenger comfort and safety, the seatbelt sign shall be extinguished in flight when not required.
    a. light
    b. moderate
    c. occasional moderate
    d. severe
    Reference: FOM 1.7.10
    b. moderate
  58. When the fasten seatbelt sign is illuminated in flight, a _______ crewmember will make an announcement instructing passengers to return to their seats and remain seated with their seat belts fastened.
    a. flightdeck
    b. cabin
    c. a or b
    Reference: FOM 1.7.10
    a. flightdeck
  59. While in cruise flight, one crewmember requests to exit the flightdeck with three (3) or more persons in the flightdeck(e.g., jumpseat occupant, IRO, FAA, etc.). Does the flight attendant need to be notified prior to opening the door?
    a. No, with three or more crewmembers in the flightdeck, there is no requirement to notify the flight attendant.
    b. Yes, if time permits, notify the flight attendant via the interphone.
    c. Yes, the flight attendant must be notified via the interphone.
    d. No, there is no requirement to notify the flight attendant as long as the proximity of the flightdeck door is clear and nopassengers are present.
    Reference: FOM 5.4.2
    c. Yes, the flight attendant must be notified via the interphone.
  60. If BATT 1 and BATT 2 DISCHARGING EICAS messages are present, how long can you expect to have electrical power?
    Reference: TM 7.1.6
    In an ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY, the batteries supply essential loads for approximately 10 minutes
  61. The DES NOW prompt is displayed when the aircraft is within 50 NM of the TOD. If the DES NOW prompt is selected, the flight director will command a descent rate of _____ ft./min until intercepting the planned descent path or the next altitude constraint is reached.
    Reference: PH 8.3.3
  62. If green dot is being referenced for the targeted speed while in a holding pattern, how would green dot be affected with STALL PROT ICE SPEED annunciated?
    Reference: PH 2i.1.4; QRH 105
    You have to add 10kts.
  63. What conditions require the use of the emergency call bell?
    Reference: FOM 4.3.5
    Use six bells to notify the flight attendants when an emergency could require an evacuation (e.g., smoke, fire, landing gear malfunction, ditching, etc.)
  64. What is the maximum gear extension airspeed?
    Reference: PH 1.4.1
    265 kias
  65. (Yes or No) When flying an RNAV arrival, pilots may enter waypoints manually.
    Reference: PH 2e.10.7
    No. Manual entry of any procedural waypoint is not authorized.
  66. When flying an optimum profile descent (OPD) or RNAV STAR, the crew must perform an Arrival Verification. During this verification, normally, the PM will read aloud the route fixes from TOD to the arrival airport along with any ______and _____________ from the MCDU.
    Reference: PH Bulletin 09-12
    altitude, speed constraints
  67. When ATC issues a “descend via” clearance and subsequently vectors the flight off of the arrival, the crew must also receive a new ________ clearance.
    Reference: PH Bulletin 14-11
  68. The allowable speed variance when flying an OPD STAR is +/- ______ knots?
    Reference: PH Bulletin 14-11
    10. Each airspeed constraint on the chart should be considered as assigned. Therefore, maintain that airspeed within +/- 10 knots.
  69. (True or False) An adequate airport is not required to have airport rescue and firefighting (ARFF) capability. However, it must have services and facilities capable of handling the aircraft with at least one runway of sufficient length for the landing aircraft.
    Reference: FOM 1.5.2
  70. (True or False) During a CAT II/III approach, the autoland pitch trim initiates a nose up trim command at 800 ft. RA to prevent a nose down pitch in the event the autopilot should disconnect.
    Reference: TM 5.1.38
  71. (Yes or No) When AUTOLAND 1 is engaged during a CAT II/III approach, the TCS button is inhibited, except when required to comply with a TCAS RA.
    Reference: TM 5.1.42
  72. What is the minimum aircraft weight for a CAT II/III Approach?
    Reference: PH 1.10.2
    69,500 lbs.
  73. What is the total VREF adjustment to all CAT II/III approaches if STALL PROT ICE SPEED is annunciated? Reference: QRH OD-5
  74. (True or False) Perform an Overweight landing when conditions dictate it to be safer to land overweight than to continue flight.
    Reference: QRH 96
  75. On a visual approach, if the flight director is turned off on the SRC side, what mode will the autothrottles default to?
    Reference: PH 2f.2.8
    Speed on Thrust
  76. When conducting an RNAV approach, or an approach to an international destination, altimeters and altitude must be crosschecked and validated. What is the maximum allowable difference between altimeters?
    Reference: PH 2f.18.1
  77. When is the missed approach altitude set on an RNAV approach?
    Reference: QRH OD-10; PH 2f.10
    After “GP” annunciates magenta on FMA
  78. Braking is reported as fair. What resource would you use to determine landing distance requirement?
    Reference: QRH OD-20
    QRH NP-1
  79. When conducting an autoland (either in VMC or IMC conditions) what is the maximum allowable crosswind?
    Reference: PH 1.3.1
  80. On an ILS PRM approach, when may you begin to “clean up” the aircraft for a climbing breakout and for a descending breakout?
    Reference: PH 2g.7
    Established on heading
  81. On an RNAV approach, TERM changes to APPR when the aircraft is within 2 miles of the FAF. If the TOGA button is push prior to the FMS switching to "APPR" mode, the missed approach procedure will not automatically become part of the active flight plan. What must be done to make the missed approach procedure an active part of the flight plan?
    Reference: PH 2g.2.7
    Push TOGA button again
  82. When recovering from a high on approach situation, what is the maximum allowable descent between 2500 ft. and 1000 ft. RA?
    Reference: PH 2f.1.1
    2000 ft./min.
  83. (True or False) In VMC below 1000 RA, a go around is mandatory with a descent rate greater than 1000 fpm and not transitioning to less than 1000 fpm.
    Reference: PH 2f.1.2
  84. It is not uncommon to intercept the localizer and glideslope and be cleared for the ILS approach while still a considerable distance from the runway. When it is prudent to delay configuring the aircraft for landing, describe the alternate ILS configuration technique.
    Reference: PH 2f.4.2
    • From FAF
    • 3nm - Gear Down
    • 2nm - Flaps 5
    • 1nm - Flaps Full
  85. What is the minimum runway length to accept a land and hold short operation (LASHO)?
    Reference: PH 1.3.1
  86. On a missed approach, any appropriate vertical mode is authorized unless the maneuver is initiated below ____ feet AFE, in which case, TOGA is required.
    Reference: PH 2g.2.3
  87. On a VOR approach the PM would be in green needles and use raw data to back up the approach. After tuning the VOR frequency and entering the inbound course, the maximum allowable variation is 5°. This equates to _______________ on the CDI.
    Reference: QRH OD-13
    1 Dot
  88. (True or False) If a go around is executed above 1000 ft. AFE, any vertical mode may be used.
    Reference: PH 2g.2.3
  89. If the missed approach NAV route is shown in blue on the pilot's MFD, will the aircraft fly that route?
    Reference: PH 2g.2.7
    No Need to press the TOGA button again to have it armed and annunciate white.
  90. With ALT displayed in the VERT mode of the FMA, and the AP ON, will pressing the TOGA button result in the aircraft initiating a climb?
    Reference: PH 2g.2.7
  91. The missed approach NAV route is shown in blue on the pilot's MFD until the missed approach is activated (white). To activate the route the pilot must _____________ in order to make it active and to fly the route using LNAV. This must occur less than _______ from the FAF.
    Reference: PH 2g.2.7
    • press the TOGA button a second time,  
    • 2nm
  92. Crews will not transfer control of the aircraft below ____ feet AFE unless required to prevent an unsafe condition. If the PM is required to take control of the aircraft below _____ feet, a go around should be executed to avoid an unstable landing.
    a. 1000; 500
    b. 500; 500
    c. 2500; 1000
    d. 2500; 500
    Reference: FOM 2.6.9
    b. 500; 500
  93. (True or False) A precautionary landing is defined as a situation when a routine landing is anticipated; however, as a precaution, emergency equipment will be standing by on the tarmac. The “TEST” briefing is not used.
    Reference: FOM 4.3.5
  94. When crossing any runway, what is a required call out by both pilots?
    Reference: PH 2c.2.3
    “clear left, clear right”
  95. After landing, run the engines at IDLE for approximately ________ minute(s), to allow for engine thermal stabilization before shutting down the engine. This time may be reduced to a minimum of __________ minute(s) for operational consideration.
    Reference: PH 2h.4.3
    3,   1
  96. (True or False) Temporary loss of brakes and/or steering can occur from a power interruption resulting from the #2 engine being shut down while the APU is being started. To prevent this, shut down the #2 engine prior to starting the APU or wait until the APU is stable at 100% for 10 seconds prior to shutting down the #2 engine.
    Reference: PH 2h.4.3
  97. List the source priority order for powering the AC main buses.
    Reference: TM 7.1.13
    • • respective IDG
    • • APU generator
    • • GPU (if no APU power)
    • • opposite IDG
  98. (True or False) If the ground crew indicates the chocks are in place and deplaning passengers are using the aft door, the parking brake may be released.
    Reference: PH 2h.8.1
  99. After stopping the aircraft at the gate, you determine there will be an extended delay before the jetway operator will arrive. You start the APU and shut down both engines. Eventually external power is connected. Does the Shutdown Checklist direct you to shut down the APU after external power is connected?
    Reference: PH 2h.8.1 Checklist
  100. The parking brakes should remain on when: chocks are not in place, parked on a slope, not assured chocks are installed, required by airport advisory pages, and
    a. parked on an icy or snow-covered ramp
    b. high or gusty winds are expected
    c. requested by ramp personnel
    d. all of the above
    Reference: PH 2h.8.1
    d. all of the above
Card Set:
E190 100 Questions 2013-2014
2013-08-31 19:13:07
E190 US Airways

Correct when compiled in Sep 2013. Not continuously checked for accuracy
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