2013 AQP

Card Set Information

2013 AQP
2013-09-04 20:11:41

2013 AQP
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  1. Arrive at aircraft at least ________ min prior to departure to accomplish crew duties, domestic. How much time for international.________
    • 40 min
    • 50 min
  2. if a flow or checklist has a diamond symbol that item is accomplished only on the first flight of the day (i.e., the first flight entered into the FDML under the current day using______  _____
    Local time.
  3. Additional MEL's required when?
    A reverse header alert on the top of the MEL page.
  4. The aircraft is certified for an engine-out CAT IIIA Single approach (fail passive) and autoland provided engine out procedures accomplished prior to _______ AFE
  5. What are the mandatory Captain crew briefing items?
    • 1.) Focus on SAFETY
    • 3.)Flight Operations update
    • 4.) Open items on the Cabin Book Deferred Items list.
    • Optional:
    • Cabin to Flight deck communications
    • Flight deck entry/exit procedures
    • Pilot announcement issues
    • Request prompt notifications of inop items to be entered into the FDML
    • Captain deems necessary
  6. The CDL allows for the dispatch of an aircraft with certain parts missing provided__________ are followed.
    performance limitations
  7. During the SAFETY and Power on Checklist, before starting APU ensure_________is accomplished.
    APU Fire Test
  8. MEL/CDL changes made to the electronic version that have not been made to the paper aircraft version are identified as temporary MEL/CDL until the manual is republished;  they are identified on _______________
    • Identified on flight release by a "T" following the MEL item number.
    • Procedure: Contact the controlling dispatcher for a verbal description, hard copy, or ACARS of the MEL/CDL changes.
  9. The flight deck preparation flow should be accomplished on the first flight of the day, after a crew change or prior to an oceanic flight. This flow should also be accomplished ____________________or _______________
    after MX has been accomplished or when the flight deck has been left unattended and not in view of a pilot cxrewmember.
  10. FA are responsible for reporting all cabin discrepancies not previously recorded to the flight deck. The FA will complete a Cabin Discrepancy Worksheet located in the _______
    FWD cabin galley or closet
  11. An Extended Onboard Delay is any delay of 30 minutes or more. At the 30 minute mark, DOT passenger protection regulations are enforced. The DOT clock starts at the time when---------
    passengers no longer have the ability to deplane. Clock starts at door closure until TO or the passengers have the ability to deplane. Arrival delays the DOT clock starts at touchdown and continues to run until  passengers are notified they have the ability to deplane. (gate or remote parking area)
  12. When a request is made to reopen a cabin door prior to departure, all doors will be disarmed.
  13. Referring to the SPARS matrix, the crews are allowed to use Standard Thrust (Flex) on a contaminated runway?
    No, a contaminated runway is more than 1/8 of an inch of standing water, snow, or slush is present, or when ice is covered more than 25% of the runway within the width being used.
  14. The crew will receive a weight restriction warning on the TPS departure plan when the flight is planned within 500 lbs of the restricted TO weight. The Captain must notify the controlling dispatcher if actual FOB exceeds gate release fuel by any amount and will not depart the gate until_________________
    • receiving the final weight and balance data.
    • Upon receipt of final W&B data the Captain informs gate agent and requests jetway be removed.  
    • All TPS Departure Plan Warnings:
    • 500 lbs of the most restrictive TO weight. (runway, climb, certificated, )
    • Weight Capped Flight is issued when the flight is planned within 2000 LBS to 500 LBS of the aircraft max TO weight.
    • C.G. Critical flight when near CG limit. Notification is also to gate agent indicating row blocking and/or passenger relocations within the cabin are required.
  15. Flight Deck JS baggage must be secured using restraining straps. If they cannot be secured by straps. Then:
    Gate agent will gat check for valet pickup for US Airways mainline and US Airways express pilots.
  16. A weight restriction warning is issued on the TPS departure plan when the flight is planned within 500 LBS of of the restricted TO weight. (e.g., runway limit, climb, certificated, etc.) The Captain will:
    NOT depart the gate until recieving the final W&B data.
  17. During the Captains crew briefing is it required to to discuss any open items in the cabin book deferred item list?
    • Yes, the Captain will discuss any open items on the deferred items list during the crew briefing. Preflight the Cabin Book and the FDML as per the PH (first flight of the day, crew change, oceanic)
    • Identify completed worksheets not turned in from previous flight and entering into FDML.
    • Note missing items from Cabin Book by entering  an INFO-ONLY write up in the FDML (e.g. No Cabin discrepancy worksheet pad on aircraft) The Cabin Book and contents are no go items.
    • Missing noise information and/or Mexican insurance documents that can be printed on Wings (station can print or dispatcher can fax)
  18. A pilot must present any FAA-issued certificate, authorization, or license upon request to the FAA or any of the following:
    • a.) NTSB
    • b.) Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer
  19. For flights beyond 50 NM from the nearest shoreline, the flight deck crew must notify the FA during the Cabin crew leg briefing that the flight will require a life vest demonstration.
  20. The actual altimeter setting must be > 29.77  for TPS to be valid
    Actual altimeter setting must be > to this number minus .1
  21. Actual OAT must be _____, 29F/-2C if thrust/V-speed data is used with MAX in the AT column
  22. The MTOW for TO rwy 15R is based on ______
    Max Landing wt plus fuel burn
  23. The runway/flap specific engine out min level off altitude displayed as MSL for rwy 15R is____
  24. The fuel suffix "A" is the weight and balance data section indicates the source of data for the fuel is__________
    actual fuel onboard reported by flight crew.
  25. Approximately 15 minutes prior to departure and after route verification is completed,_______________before accomplishing the before start flow.
    start the APU (if not already running)
  26. The before pushback flow is used to prepare for pushback and starting the engines. The triggers for pushback flow are ______________and__________________
    receiving the cabin ready notification and all doors are closed and armed.
  27. The before start checklist states "Park Brake.....On, Checked". The PH requires the Captain to reference the __________  whenever the park brake is set on or off.
    • brake triple indicator
    • check the brake triple indicator to confirm that all indications are normal for brakes ON (i.e., pressure indicated on both the brakes and accumulator.)
  28. Operating engines for at least ____ minutes prior to applying TO thrust to allow engine temperature to stabilize. The warm up can be reduced to a minimum of ___minutes (workload permitting) if an engine has been shut down for ____hours or less.
    5, 3, 1+30
  29. If an amber FAULT light appears in the ENG 1 (2) ANTI ICE pb, this would be an indication the position of the anti ice valve_______________
    • disagrees with ENG 1 (2) pb selection.
    • Note; amber fault light illuminates briefly as valve transits.
  30. Do not attempt 180 degree turn on a surface less than ____ ft wide(A319/320) or _____ ft turn for a A-321
    100, 105
  31. On the ground after departing the gate, a cell phone maybe used for operations only if the aircraft is stopped and the parking brake set.
  32. A supplemental procedure used in lieu of a normal procedure in certain circumstances. Pilots may accomplish the supplemental procedure from memory, by reviewing the procedure prior to its accomplishment, or_______________
    reading the procedure during it's accomplishment.
  33. Routine ECAM messages may occur as a result of normal procedures or operations and are not considered non normal by the MFR. Two routine ECAMS listed in PH are_____ and ______
    ELEC GEN 2 OFF (during single eng taxi) and DOORS CABIN/CARGO (upon gate arrival)
  34. Before crossing an intersecting RWY, scan the full length of the RWY for potential conflicts and verbalize ______________
    • Clear left clear right
    • before crossing an intersecting RWY
    • 1. Scan full length
    • 2. No RELs (RWY Entrance Lights) illuminated if installed.
    • 3Turn on taxi and TO lights during low visibility and night operations
    • prior to crossing hold short
    • 1. verify assigned RWY
    • 2. Monitor TCAS
    • 3. Scan short and final area
    • 4. RELs NOT illuminated if installed
    • Cleared on to the RWY
    • 1. At night turn on lights (except landing lights)
    • 2.) Low visibility follow green lead on lights if SMGCS and low vis markings
    • When on RWY
    • 1. Low vis of night operations align aircraft slightly offset form RWY centerline to avoid blending in with RWY lights.
    • 2. If holding for more than 90 seconds or upon seeing a potential conflict contact ATC.
    • When cleared for TO
    • 1. Illuminate landing lights
    • 2. Ensure THL are not illuminated. if they are do not TO. (Takeoff Hold Lights)
  35. Single ENG taxi is the standard mode of taxi. To configure for single ENG taxi, the ENG MODE is ______ and the Y electric pump is _____ and GEN 2 is selected ______
    • Y electric HYD pump is selected on for SE operation to limit PTU operation. The PTU cycle under high hydraulic loads. GEN 2 off isto prevent   unanticipated electrical transfer.
    • Caution;
    •  Prior to GEN 2 on verbalize with Captain to ensure no brake or steering inputs are being made.
    • No braking or steering inputs when slecting GEN 2 on unless stopped and parking brake on.
  36. For a mechanical discrepancy after dispatch but before TO, if discrepency is associated with ECAM message, the crew must refer to to the ECAM/MEL _____________ to determine if NO DISPATCH or No TO appears in dispatch condition column.
    • Cross Reference Appendix 
    • 1. If discrepancy associated with ECAM message refer to CRA;
    • Does NO TO appear?
    • if no refer to MEL go to 2. 
    • If yes go to 3.
    • 2. Can MEL be placarded by crew?
    • if no step 3
    • if yes step 4
    • 3. Return for MX action 
    • Notify dispatcher
    • Enter in FDML
    • obtain new/amended release
    • 4. Contact dispatcher via voice communications( direct dial, phone patch) to establish conference.
    • conmply with MEL prior to TO and enter in FDML. Placard the aircraft per MEL in accordance to crew placarding procedure.
    • Obtain amended release
    • Obtain new W&B if MEL affects TO or Landing performance.
    • If not possible go to step 3
    • .
  37. Crews should not TO with brake temperatures exceeding ____ with brake fans on (or shortly after brake fans are used) or _____ with brake fans off. If fans are not used for taxi, crews may depart with indicated brake temp less than ____as the reading will represent actual temperature.
    • 150C, 300 C, 300C
    • actual and indicated can very as much as 50 to 150 degree C. This is due to temp sensor location, and the result of direct fan air on sensors. Therefore if used on taxi out theactual temperature maybe higher then indicated resulting in a possible BRAKE HOT advisory.
  38. For an acceptable RSVM altimeter tolerance ground check  PFD 1 and PFD 2 within a known airport altitude within +/- ____ ft and altitude tolerance between PFD 1 and PFD 2 within ____ft
    • 75, 20
    • If not within 75 ft check at a known airport elevation point (end of a RWY) if still not within 75 MX action required. The max inflightdiscrepancy  between Capt and FO PFD altitude for RSVM is 200ft.
  39. Once the aircraft departs the gate, a pilot will report via ACARS any changes to the flight status to the controlling dispatcher. because of the projected OFF time is communicated to the FAA ATC sequencin system, inputting a departure delay greater than ____ minutes can have a negative effect on the aircraft ATC slot sequencing. For a departure delay, the crew will input remaining time to OFF value into ACARS up to but not exceeding ______minutes. ACARS will prompt for an update every 15 to 20 minutes.
    30, 30
  40. An extended onboard delay is any delay of ____minutes or more. In addition, for any on-aircraft delay, FA and passengers should be kept informed of status every ______
    30, 15
  41. All TO performed by US Airways crews meet noise abatement criteria. These TO are distant or close in. For distant climb thrust is selected and acceleration is initiated at ______ft AFE. For close in climb thrust is selected at _____ft AFE and acceleration is initiated at _____ft AFE
    • 1000. 1500, 3000
    • distant is used for domestic and/or airport advisory states distant procedure is to be used.
    • close in when international airport and/or when airport advisory page states close in procedure is to be used.
  42. Due ti N1 fan flutter, IAE engines should not maintain prolonged thrust settings between ______N1 while on the ground. Asymetrical thrust can occur if the pilot incorrectly stabilizes thrust settings above 1.05 EPR.
  43. Maximum 90 degree crosswind component for TO and Landing is _______
    29/G35 Knots
  44. The ailerons are normally controlled by ______. If it fails control is automatically transferred to _____
    • ECAC1, ELAC 2
    • Each aileron is powered by GRN andBlue hydraulic systems thru two actuators (one active and the other in damping mode). If the operating actuator fails the inactive takes over aileron control. The ailerons droop 5 degrees when flaps are extended.
    • The ailerons are normally controlled by ELAC 1. If it fails control is automatically transferred to ELAC 2. If both ELACS or their associatedHydraulic  systems fail, aileron droop is deactivated and roll control is provided by spoilers only.
    • Five hydrualically activated spoilers are controlled by three SECs. Each spoiler is powered by either the green, blue or yellow hydrualicsystem. The three middle spoilers are used for speed brakes. If hydrualic pressure is lost the spoiler either remain at the existing deflection or at a lessor deflection depending on aerodynamic forces. If a spoiler fails on one wing the symetrical panel on the other wing is deactivated.
  45. The main factors resulting tail strikes during TO are _______,_________,_________or some combination of the three.
    • early rotation, over rotation, excessive pitch
    • Early rotation can occur:
    • Using flap setting inconsistent with computed VR
    • Avoiding birds or obstacles
    • When applying recommended wind shear techniques with less than 2000 ft remaining.
  46. During initial climb , with all engines operating , adjust the pitch attitude to follow the F/D commands. Engage the Autopilot by ____ ft AGL for all RNAV departures.
  47. The last waypoint is common to both the SID and the associated EOSID is known as the _____________. After this point, the courses for the SID and the EOSID begin to diverge.
    diversion waypoint
  48. Engine anti ice must be on during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when temperature is below __________
    -40 C SAT
  49. During RSVM flight  altimeter check , when initially established in cruise flight at or above _________, crosscheck each PFD altimeter and the standby altimeter. Record the results for use in contingency situations. the two PFD altimeters must agree within ____ ft at all times with RSVM airspace.
    FL290, 200
  50. When above FL 250, the pilot at the controls shall don a O2 mask when the other pilot at the controls leaves his ______. All pilots shall don O2 when cabin altitude is above _______ft.
    seat, 10000
  51. Pressing the emergency pressure selector on the crew O2 mask creates an over pressure which eliminates condensation and prevents smoke, smell or ashes from entering the mask. Overpressure supply is started automatically when cabin altitude excedes_______
  52. When making auto flight systems inputs (FMS or FCU) crews should _______,_______,______and _________ if necessary.
    Confirm, Activate, Monitor, Intervene CAMI
  53. Periodic systems checks are required throughout the flight. One recommended method is to perform a HEFOE (Hyd, Electric, Fuel, O2, Engine) check every _________at abeam the closest flight plan waypoint.
    • Hour
    • Fuel temp is ECAM monitored
  54. The cargo smoke DISCH pb is listed as a "Confirm" item under the Non-Normal methodology. _______extingisher bottle supplies _______nozzle in the forward compartment and _____noxxles in the aft compartment.
    • One, One, Two
    • Fwd cargo has 2 smoke detectors on A319, 320 and four on A-321. The 319/320 has two loops each with two smoke detectors. The A321 the aft compartment has three loops each with two smoke detectors each.
  55. Make an INFO ONLY discrepancy entry in the FDML for temp/intermitt malfunctions that have been corrected. If the Malfunction has been previously written up in the FDML__________(excluding this occurrence) in the past _______days, do not add "INFO ONLY"  to the discrepancy. Contact MOC
    two or more, 10 days
  56. There is no requirement to correct a fuel imbalance inflight unless an ______is displayed
    ECAM advisory
  57. When accomplishing non normal procedures, the PF calls for the ______ in case of an ECAM Exception or Non Normal procedure that is not indicated by ECAM. The PF calls______ in case of ECAM procedures that are not ECAM Exceptions.
    QRH Procedures, ECAM Action
  58. Depressurization routes are designed to givepilots  lateral and vertical guidance in the event of a rapid decent is required over areas of high/critical terrain.  These routes are published  on _________charts located in the route manual for preflight planning as well as loaded into the FMS.
    • Critical Terrain orientation
    • Red tab Decompression
    • critical terrain is greater than 10K
  59. Do not pull circuit breakers to deactivate the item unless directed by _____or MX CTL.
    • MEL
    • On GRD: CB trip unknown cause maybe reset as part of an approved MX trouble shooting process. A logbook entry required.
    • Cycle a CB when part of a written flight crew procedure. Or Captain deems necessary for SAFETY.
    • Deactivate only when MOC or MEL directed.
    • In FLIGHT: MX trouble shooting process, written procedure, or Captain deems necessary for SAFETY to complete the flight. Logbook entry required..
  60. The fasten seat belt sign shall be on during pushback, taxi,TO, LNDing, operations, and when _______or greater turbulence is anticipated. For passenger comfort and safety, the seat sign shall be extinguished  in FLLT when not required.
  61. When the fasten seatbelt sign is illuminated in flight, a __________ crew member will make an announcement instructing passengers to return to their seats and remain seated with seat belts fastened.
  62. While in cruise flight one crew member requests to exit flight deck with three or more persons onflight deck  (JS, IRO, FAA, etc.). Does the FA need to be notified before opening the door?
    Yes, the FA MUST be notified via interphone.
  63. All turbojet operators must assess landing performance based on actual conditions existing at the time of arrival. The performance assessment is separate from the dispatcher's landing performance calculations at the time of dispatch.
  64. When a flight reports leaving an altitude, the PF maintains a decent rate consistent with ATC requirements and fuel conservation procedures. Below 2500 ft on the radio altimeter, do not descend at a rate greater that __________
    2000 ft/min
  65. When selecting an altitude in the FCU that is below 10K ft, the ALT increment should be set to _________
  66. The PM's descending thru 18K ft  Flow is _______,________,and_______
    Seat belt sign on, ECAM checked, MCDU set
  67. The Captain will direct all aspects of a diversion, including passenger handling responcibilities, once on the ground. notify the _________prior to diverting.
    Controlling dispatcher
  68. An adequate airport is not required to have airport rescue and firefighting (ARFF) capability. However, it must have the services and facilities capable of handling the aircraft with at least one runway of sufficient legth for landing aircraft.
  69. The Predictive Wind-shear System (PWS) will generate and advisory, Caution, or Warning alert depending on the _______ and not the relative strength of the wind shear event.
    • Location
    • Warning predicts the event that is closer to aircraft than Caution alert.
  70. The PWS advisory, Caution and Warning alerts are inhibited during TO from ______ until ______ ft AGL
    100 KTS, 50ft AGL
  71. The standard Flap setting for LND  is______
  72. On CAT III approaches, the ______annunciation  indicates the auto land system is operating in a "Fail Passive" mode. Fail Passive will allow successful completion of a auto land, but visual verification of the RWY environment at or prior to DH is required.
  73. The auto land light flash when excessive deviation occurs in LOC or Glide, both autopilots disengage, both LOCalizer transmitters or receivers fail, both G/S transmitters or receivers fail or difference between RA indication is greater tha 15 ft. The warning flashes in LAND mode below________
    200 ft RA
  74. The minimum height for autopilot  during a nonprecision  approach is ____,_____,_____
    DA, DDA, MDA
  75. Maximum gear extension (VLO) is ______Maximum gear extension (VLE) is _______and Maximum gear retraction (VLO) is __________.
    250 KTS, 280 KTS .67M, 220 KTS
  76. In low visibility conditions, _________provides the best flight deck angle to obtain visual cues during landing.
  77. A go around is mandatory during a CAT II/III approach if the FMA does not display a _____below 350 FT RA, the AUTOLAND warning light illuminates during the approach, or the FMA does not display _____ at approximately 40 ft.
    Land Green, FLARE
  78. In flight, the PM will normally move the landing gear and flap controls upon command of the PF . Prior to moving the landing gear or flap handle, the PM will check the  _____ to ensure that it is in the normal operating range for the aircraft configuration.

    • 1. repeat the command
    • 2. select the landing gear or flap to the commanded position.
    • 3. ensure the landing gear or flap is moved to the commanded position.
  79. When flying a VOR/NDB approach, the underlying raw data must be monitored during the approach. Once establishe dinbound on the approach , a missed approach must be executed  if the raw data on the ND differs by more than _____from the charted inbound approach course. (except for station passage)
    5 degrees
  80. The "Stable, Target, Sink__700____    " callout at 500 ft is not required on a non precision approach unless _________callout  has been made above 500 ft .
  81. Either pilot may make a go around callout. If the Go around callout is made, the PF must ______
    execute a go around
  82. During a Go around with a final approach runway occupancy signal, whenever observing a
    pulsating PAPI prior to 500 ft AGL look for and visually acquire the traffic on the runway. If the PAPI is still pulsating by _____ ft AGL, contact ATC to confirm landing clearance.
    • 300
    • go around if before crossing threshold
    • 1, the traffic will not clear the runway
    • 2. the PAPI continues to pulse.
  83. Normally, during a go around above 1000 ft AFE, the best course of action is to initially move the thrust levers to TOGA detent and then return it to the CL detent when TOGA thrust is not required. This would be accomplished only after verifying that ________ was annunciated on the FMA.
  84. During a go around NAV should be promptly engaged. Then, if the desired missed approach path cannot be flown in NAV or ATC assigns a heading, utilize heading. Maintain current heading until reaching _________
    400 ft AGL
  85. Sufficient clues must exist to continue the approach below DH or MDA/DDA. If visual clues are lost after DH or MDA/DDA due to shallow fog, snow flurries or heavy precip, the pilot shall immediately initiate a _________and fly the _______
    go-around, published missed approach procedure
  86. On slippery runways, the predetermined deceleration may not be reached due to antiskid operation. I this case, the GRN decel light will not illuminate. This does not indicate the autobrake is not working
  87. After landing, maintain up to maximum reverse until the airspeed approaches _______KTS.
    Then start reducing the reverse thrust so the reverse levers are moving down at a rate commensurate with the deceleration rate of arcraft. Reverse idle should be reached by _______KTS
    80, 60
  88. Acceptable auto land performance can not be assured at weights above the certified ________
    Max Landing Weight.
  89. During automatic Roll Out with one engine inoperative , the use of the remaining thrust lever is permitted provided__________and crosswind  component is not more than _______
    not more than idle reverse is used, 15 KTS
  90. The PM will monitor the pitch attitude on the PFD and call PITCH if pitch attitude reaches _____degrees for the A-319/320 or _____ degrees for the A-321.
    • 10, 7.5
    • BANK if 7 degrees is reached
  91. Crews will not transfer control of the aircraft below_____ft AFE unless required to prevent an unsafe condition. If the pilot monitoring is required to take control of the aircraft below _____ft a go around should be executed to avoid an unstable landing.
    500, 500
  92. A precautionary landing is defined as situation when a routine landing is anticipated; however, as a precaution, emergency equipment will be standing by on the tarmac. The TEST briefing is not used.
  93. What is the trigger for the Captains after landing flow?
    • Trigger: after the aircraft has cleared the active runway.
    • Ext: lights as req.
    • Flaps up
  94. Single engine taxi is the standard mode of taxi. Run engines at idle for approximately ____minutes to allow for engine thermalstabilization before  shutting down engine #2.
  95. As part of the FO after landing flow, if the OAT is greater than ____, place the Flaps lever in the 1 detent during taxi and at gate to avoid "AIR L (R) WING LEAK caution.
  96. The Captain will reference the triple indicator whenever the Park Brake is set ON or OFF.
  97. At the gate the APU should be _______
  98. Do not turn off the batteries until the _______is fully closed (about two minutes after after APU avail light extinguishes.
    APU Flap
  99. The _____________is a confirm item on the ground.
    passenger door disarming lever

    • confirm items in flight
    • 1. Thrust levers
    • 2. Engine masters
    • 3. Engine fire PBS
    • 4. Cargo smoke DISCH PBS
    • 5. IR PBS/selectors
    • 6. IDG's
  100. The parking brake should remain on when: chocks are not in place, parked on a slope, not assured chocks are in place, required by Airport Advisory page and_____
    • parked on a icy or snow covered ramp
    • high or gusty winds are expected
    • requested by ramp personael