MD11 Question bank 2013 12 SVT

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jrossemail
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233712
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MD11 Question bank 2013 12 SVT
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2013-09-10 00:51:35
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  1. 1.What power source is required to start the APU? 04.01.02.1
    b.Aircraft battery
  2. 2.What fuel source(s) are available for APU start and operation? 04.01.03.01
    c.Battery powered DC fuel pump prior to AC power being available then Left #2 aft tank AC main fuel pump
  3. What system controller is responsible for APU start/stop operation? 04.01.03.01
    a.Miscellaneous System Controller (MSC)
  4. When the APU is started from the APU panel when does it provide electrical power? 04.01.05.01
    a.Automatically after the APU is started
  5. When the APU is started from the Electrical panel when does it provide electrical power? 04.01.05.01
    b.When the APU Power switch on the electrical panel is selected ON
  6. Where can the pre-flight oxygen quantity requirements be found?
    b.AOM Chapter 5
  7. How many high pressure oxygen cylinders are carried onboard UPS MD-11 aircraft to provide oxygen to the crew, observers and supernumerary stations and positions? 07.01.01.01
    4
  8. Over pressurization (thermal discharge) of the high pressure oxygen cylinders is indicated by? 07.01.01.01
    b.Green thermal discharge disc located in two places on the aircraft exterior
  9. A red illuminated NO MASKS switch accompanied by a Level 3 Red Boxed Alert indicates? 07.01.01.02
    Masks in the crew rest facility have not deployed automatically as required
  10. After the oxygen mask is restowed into the box and doors are shut, what must you do to stop the flow of oxygen to the mask, reset the microphone from mask to boom and retract the OXY ON flag? 07.02.01.03
    b.Push the PRESS TO TEST AND REST lever.
  11. With the ENG FIRE handle pulled and the ENG FUEL switch on or off: 08.01.02.01.04
    b.The ENG FUEL switch remains illuminated if the fire warning still exists
  12. How many Fire Detection Control Units (FDCU) are installed on the MD-11? 08.01.02.01.03
    One for each main engine and one for the APU
  13. What happens to the APU when an APU fire is detected? 08.01.02.02
    The APU will automatically shut down when a fire is detected
  14. What is the electrical power source for engine and APU fire extinguishing? 08.01.02.02
    Direct battery Bus
  15. The lower cargo compartment is a Class C compartment meaning: 08.01.03.01
    a.Detection and extinguishing are provided
  16. 16.When heat or smoke is detected in a lower cargo compartment: 08.01.03.01
    c.Heating and ventilation are automatically shut off
  17. The main deck cargo compartment is a Class E compartment meaning? 08.01.04.01
    Detection is available, protection is not required
  18. The crew will be notified of smoke detected on the main cargo deck by. 08.01.04.01
    Master warning lights, aural tone, and a CABIN AIR SMOKE light on the air control panel illuminated red
  19. How is the cargo fire detection and extinguishing system tested? 08.01.04.01 & 08.01.03.01
    System is automatically tested when the first IRU is turned on.
  20. Why does the Level 3 CGR FIRE LWR ____ checklist direct you to turn the associated cargo flow switch to OFF? 08.01.03.01
    To prevent restoration of ventilation to the compartment when the smoke or overheat condition is no longer detected
  21. What does the flow DISAG light on the Cargo Fire panel indicate? 08.01.03.01 & 08.02.02.02
    Ventilation has been automatically shut off, but the flow switch has not been selected to the “off” position
  22. With the Air system in AUTO and smoke detected on the main cargo deck, pushing the Cabin Air Switch to OFF does what?
    Closes the main cargo deck conditioned air shutoff valve and reduces to single pack operation
  23. If the Engine 1 Fire Detection Control Unit simultaneously receives a Fire signal from Loop A and a Fault signal from Loop B, what alert will be displayed? 08.01.02.01.03
    ENGINE 1 FIRE
  24. If the Engine 1 Fire Detection Control Unit Receives a Fault signal from Loop A and a Fault signal from Loop B outside of 5 seconds from each other, what alert will be displayed? 08.01.02.01.03
    FIRE 1 DET FAIL
  25. If the Engine 1 Fire Detection Control Unit Receives a Fire signal from Loop A and a Normal signal from Loop B what alert will be displayed? 08.01.02.01.03
    FIRE DET 1 FAULT
  26. A list of Level 1 alerts and the required pilot action can only be found where?
    Aircraft Operating Manual (AOM) Chapter 2.3
  27. During takeoff, when are Level 3 alerts and associated Master Warning lights normally inhibited? 18.01.03.01
    From V1 to 400’ RA, but no longer than 25 seconds in the air
  28. During landing, when are Level 3 alerts and associated Master Warning lights normally inhibited? 18.01.03.02
    Level 3 alerts are not inhibited during landing.
  29. During takeoff, level 2 or level 1 alerts are inhibited, depending on alert significance at? 18.01.03.01
    At throttle advance, 80 knots, or V1-20 knots
  30. During landing, when are level 2 or level 1 alerts and associated Master Caution light inhibited? 18.01.03.02
    1000’ AGL to 80 knots ground speed not to exceed 120 seconds
  31. Which item on the Takeoff Essential Items checklist does not produce an aural warning if it is NOT in the proper configuration? 18.01.04.01
    Spoilers
  32. The CAWS provides an aural warning, tone and voice, if any gear is not down and locked with the flaps in the landing configuration. To silence the warning: 18.01.05.02
    Push the Gear Horn Off button
  33. The Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (EGPWS) combines basic GPWS with? 18.01.07.01
    Terrain clearance floor, terrain awareness, optional peaks and obstacles
  34. How do the enhanced features of the EGPWS affect the other modes of the GPWS? 18.01.07.01
    Enhanced features are independent and have no affect upon the other modes of the GPWS
  35. When is the Terrain Clearance Floor feature of the EGPWS active? 18.01.07.01
    Takeoff, cruise, and final approach
  36. If the Terrain Clearance Floor feature of the EGPWS is penetrated: 18.01.07.01
    A TOO LOW TERRAIN voice warning is generated twice and an amber GROUND PROX message is displayed on the PFD
  37. When will selecting the ND switch on the System Display Control Panel cause the existing system display to become a Nav display? 18.02.02.01
    When 1 or more DUs are inoperative
  38. In order to eliminate false terrain alarms, the TERRAIN OVRD switch on the overhead panel should be selected: AOM 01.03.07.01
    b.When landing at an airport not contained in the GPWS airport terrain data base
  39. When is the FLAP OVRD position of the GPWS switch on the overhead panel used? 18.02.03.01
    a.To prevent the GPWS from actuating during a landing with flaps not in the landing configuration
  40. Which slats have anti-ice protection? 13.01.02.02
    Outboard
  41. Which pneumatic system provides air for the tail anti-ice system? 13.01.02.02
    2
  42. Which of the following air data systems are heated? 13.01.04.01
    All Pitot tubes, AOA sensors, TAT probe, static ports
  43. Which of the cockpit windows have anti-ice systems? 13.01.04.02
    Windshield
  44. Where are the ice detector(s) located? 13.01.06.01
    One in each wing engine cowl
  45. What is the function of the Fuel System Controller (FSC) during fuel dumping? 11.01.08.01
    The FSC monitors the state of the fuel dump valves
  46. Pushing the fuel DUMP switch to ON one time commands the system to dump to what value/quantity? 11.01.08.01
    Pilot entered FMS DUMP to GW
  47. Pushing the fuel DUMP switch to ON then OFF then ON again will result in the system dumping to what value/quantity? 11.01.08.01
    Approximately 11,500 lbs per tank
  48. What is the function of the wing fuel vent system? 11.01.10.01
    Prevents tank pressure from exceeding structural limits
  49. Which fuel pumps are turned ON from engine start until engine shutdown? 11.01.11.01
    Tanks 1.2 and 3 aft pumps
  50. What is the purpose of Tail Fuel Management? 11.01.11.03
    Improves cruise performance by maintaining an aft CG
  51. What fuel quantity is required for tail fuel management to take place? 11.01.11.03
    60,000 lbs at the termination of refueling
  52. When does tail fuel management begin? 11.01.11.03
    When the climb phase begins
  53. Descending through what altitude will cause remaining tail fuel to be transferred forward? 11.01.11.03
    26,750’
  54. Transfer of tail fuel forward will terminate when below 17,750’ under what conditions? 11.01.11.03
    Slats or gear are extended
  55. What is the minimum main tank fuel quantity for cold fuel recirculation to operate? 11.01.11.04
    13,500 lbs
  56. What happen when the fuel temperature in the tail tank drops to within 5º of the fuel freeze point? 11.01.11.04
    About one third of the tail fuel is transferred forward and replaced with warmer fuel
  57. What happens when the fuel temperature in the tail tank drops to within 3º of the fuel freeze point? 11.01.11.04
    Tail fuel management is terminated and all remaining fuel is transferred forward
  58. What happens when the Fuel System Controller detects an overfill condition in the tail tank? 11.01.11.11
    Fuel is transferred out of the tail and the tail quantity is limited to below 12000lbs
  59. What happens to the main tank, aux tank transfer and tail tank transfer pumps when fuel system is selected to manual? 11.01.12.01
    The pumps are commanded on
  60. What happens to the Tank 2 transfer pump when the fuel system is selected to manual? 11.01.12.01
    The pump remains in its previous condition
  61. What is the approximate maximum fuel quantity in the tail tank? AOM 01.03.05.03 & SYS 11.01.03.01
    13,400lbs
  62. What is the approximate maximum fuel quantity in Tank 1 or Tank 3?
    40,700lbs
  63. What is the approximate maximum fuel quantity in Tank 2?
    64,300lbs
  64. The level 1 FMS DUMP DISABLED alert indicates what? 11.02.02.01
    The fuel dump was not stopped at the FMS dump-to-gross weight entry
  65. What happens if one channel of the FADEC controller fails? 17.01.02.01
    Normal engine control and operation is maintained
  66. What happens if both channels of the FADEC controller fails? 17.01.02.01
    The engine will revert to an automatically controlled shutdown
  67. Where does the FADEC system get it power? 17.01.02.01
    Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA
  68. What pilot action will automatically engage the ALTN mode of the FADEC on both engine types. 17.01.02.02
    Pushing the throttles through the overboost bar
  69. Are autothrottles available with the FADEC system in ALTN? 17.01.02.02
    GE engines yes, PW engines no
  70. With the ignition system armed. when is ignition automatically provided? 17.01.04.01
    During takeoff and landing and for 60 seconds after engine anti-ice is commanded on
  71. During takeoff when are the igniters automatically shut off? 17.01.04.01
    When the flaps/slats are retracted
  72. What is the result of an auto-ignition failure?
    The MANUAL light will illuminate, ignition will be on
  73. What is the function of the IGN TRANSFER switches? 17.01.04.01
    Allows ignition B to be powered by the LEAC bus
  74. What is the normal power source for A ignition? 17.01.04.01
    LEAC bus
  75. What is the consequence of a clogged fuel filter? 17.01.06.01
    Fuel will bypass the filter to maintain flow to the engine.
  76. When will an ENGINE FAIL light be displayed to the flight crew? 17.01.11.01
    During takeoff between 80 knots and V1 when an engine N1 rpm differs by 11% or more with any other engine N1
  77. What conditions are required by the FCC to arm the thrust reversers for operation? 17.01.12.01
    Either radio altitude seven feet or wheel spin up greater than 80 knots
  78. What condition must be met before the reverser interlock will release for the wing engines? 17.01.12.01
    The reverser must be safely deployed
  79. What condition must be met before the reverser interlock will release for the #2 engine? 17.01.12.01
    There is no interlock for the #2 engine
  80. What is the maximum taxi weight?
    639,500#
  81. What is the maximum takeoff weight?
    630,500#
  82. What is the maximum landing weight with the center gear extended?
    491,500#
  83. What is the maximum zero fuel weight with the center gear extended?
    461,300#
  84. What is the maximum runway slope allowed?
    +/- 2%
  85. What is the maximum lateral fuel imbalance between tanks 1 and 3?
    2500#
  86. What is the maximum start EGT limits for a GE engine?
    750 - No time limit/750-870 - 40 seconds
  87. What is the maximum ground start EGT limit for a PW engine?
    535
  88. What is the maximum in-flight start EGT limit for a PW engine?
    650
  89. What is the maximum autoland weight?
    491,500#
  90. When must the autopilot be off during a non-precision approach?
    No lower than 50 feet below MDA

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