Med Surg Ch 14 Genetics, Altered Immune Responses, and Transplantation

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FeverRN
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Med Surg Ch 14 Genetics, Altered Immune Responses, and Transplantation
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2010-06-15 12:05:57
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med surg genetics altered immune responses transplantation chapter nclex nursing
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Genetics, Altered Immune Responses, and Transplantation
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  1. If a person is heterozygous for a given gene, it means that the person

    A. is a carrier for a genetic disorder
    B. has two identical alleles for the gene
    C. has two different alleles for the gene
    D. is affected by the genetic disorder
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. A father who has a sex-linked recessive disorder and a wife with a normal genotype will

    A. pass the carrier state to his male children
    B. pass the carrier state to all of his children
    C. pass the carrier state to his female children
    D. not pass on the genetic mutation to any of his children
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. The function of monocytes in immunity is related to their ability to

    A. capture antigens by phagocytosis and present them to lymphocytes
    B. bind antigens and stimulate natural killer cell activation
    C. stimulate the production of T and B lymphocytes
    D. produce antibodies on exposure to foreign substance
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. One function of cell-mediated immunity is

    A. foramtion of antibodies
    B. activation of the complement system
    C. surveillance for malignant cell changes
    D. opsonization of antigens to allow phagocytosis by neutrophils
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. The reason newborns are protected for the first 6 months of life from bacterial infections is because of the maternal transmission of

    A. IgM
    B. IgG
    C. IgA
    D. IgE
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. In a type I hypersensitivity reaction, the primary immunologic disorder appears to be

    A. deposit of antigen-antibody complexes in small vessels
    B. release of chemical mediators from IgE-bound mast cells and basophils
    C. binding of IgG to an antigen on a cell surface
    D. release of cytokines to interact with specific antigens
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. The nurse is alerted to possible anaphylactic shock immediately after a patient has received intramuscular penicillin by the development of

    A. a wheal-and-flare reaction at the injection site
    B. edema and itching at the injection site
    C. sneezing and itching of the nose and eyes
    D. chest tightness and production of thick sputum
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. The nurse advises a friend who asks him to administer his allergy shots that

    A. immunotherapy should only be administered in a setting where emergency equipment and drugs are available
    B. avoiding the allergens is a more effective way of controlling allergies, and allergy shots are not usually effective
    C. it is illegal for nurses to administer injections outside of a medical setting
    D. he is qualified to do it if the friend has epinephrine in an injectible syringe provided with his extract
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Association between HLA antigens and diseases is most commonly found in what disease conditions?

    A. Infectious diseases
    B. Malignancies
    C. Autoimmune disorders
    D. Neurologic diseases
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. A patient is undergoing plasmapheresis for treatment of systemic lupus erythematosus. The nurse explains that plasmapheresis is used in her treatment to

    A. remove T lymphocytes in her blood that are producing antinuclear antibodies
    B. exchange her plasma that contains antinuclear antibodies with a substitute fluid
    C. remove normal particles in her blood that are being damaged by autoantibodies
    D. replace viral-damaged cellular componenets of her blood with replacement whole blood
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. The most common cause of secondary immunodeficiencies is

    A. human immunodeficiency virus
    B. stress
    C. drugs
    D. malnutrition
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Which of the following accurately describes rejection following transplantation?

    A. Acute rejection can be treated with sirolimus or tacrolimus
    B. Hyperacute rejection can be treated with OKT3
    C. Chronic rejection can be treated with tacrolimus or cyclosporine
    D. Hyperacute reaction can usually be avoided if crossmatching is done prior to the transplantation
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. If a person is having an acute rejection of a transplanted organ, which of the following drugs would most likely be used?

    A. Tacrolimus
    B. Cyclosporine
    C. Daclizumab
    D. Mycophenolate mofetil
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. The 22 homologous pairs of chromosomes
    autosomes
  15. Double-stranded molecule-forming gene; stores genetic information
    DNA
  16. Position of a gene on a chromosome
    allele
  17. Gene that has no noticeable effect on the phenotype in a heterozygous individual
    recessive allele
  18. Structure in cell nucleus that carries genes
    chromosome
  19. Basic unit of heredity; arranged on chromosome
    gene
  20. One of two or more alternative forms of a gene on a particular locus
    allele
  21. Gene that expressed in the phenotype of a heterozygous individual
    dominant allele
  22. Genetic physical traits expressed by an individual
    phenotype
  23. Actual genetic make-up of an individual
    genotype
  24. Single-stranded nucleic acid that transfers genetic information for protein synthesis
    RNA
  25. To stimulate an immune response, an antigen must be

    A. combine with larger molecules that are capable of stimulating production of antibodies
    B. circulated in the blood, where it comes in contact with circulating lymphocytes
    C. captured, processed, and presented to a lymphocyte by a macrophage
    D. a foreign protein that has antigenic determinants different from those of the body
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. T lymphocytes that are involved in direct attack and destruction of foreign pathogens are

    A. T cytotoxic (CD8) cells
    B. natural killer cells
    C. T-helper (CD4) cells
    D. dendritic cells
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Interferon is a cytokine that

    A. is produced by viral infected cells and prevents the transmission of the virus to adjacent cells
    B. augments the immune response by activating phagocytes
    C. induces production of antiviral proteins in cells that prevent viral replication
    D. directly attacks and destroys virus-infected cells
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. The humoral immune response involves

    A. direct attack of antigens by activated B lymphocytes
    B. releasing cytokines responsible for destruction of antigens
    C. surveillance for malignant cell changes
    D. production of antigen-specific immunoglobulins
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Activated B lymphocytes differentiate primarily into

    A. memory B cells that retain a memory of the antigen
    B. helper cells that in turn activate addictional B lymphocytes
    C. natural killer cells that destroy infected cells
    D. plasma cells that secrete antibodies
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Protects body surfaces and mucous membranes. Passed to neonate in colostrum.

    A. IgD
    B. IgG
    C. IgM
    D. IgE
    E. IgA
    E.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Assists in B lymphocyte differentiation

    A. IgE
    B. IgM
    C. IgG
    D. IgD
    E. IgA
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Responsible for allergic reactions. Assists in parasitic infections.

    A. IgD
    B. IgE
    C. IgG
    D. IgM
    E. IgA
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Crosses placenta for fetal protection. Predominant in secondary immune response

    A. IgG
    B. IgM
    C. IgA
    D. IgD
    E. IgE
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Predominant in primary immune response. Antibodies against ABO blood antigens.

    A. IgD
    B. IgG
    C. IgM
    D. IgE
    E. IgA
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. The central organs of the lymphoid system are the ________ and the ________.
    bone marrow and thymus gland
  36. The primary cells involved in the immune response are _______, ________, and __________.
    T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, and macrophages
  37. The lymphoid organ primarily responsible for filtering foreign substances from the blood is the _________.
    spleen
  38. Lymphocytes that differentiate into B lymphocytes are processed in the _________; T lymphocytes are differentiated in the _________.
    bone marrow, thymus gland
  39. The use of a vector to carry genetic material into cells of the body is performed with

    A. ex vivo methods of gene therapy
    B. physical transfection of the genetic material
    C. in vivo methods of gene therapy
    D. both in vivo and ex vivo gene therapy
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. When administering immunotherapy to a patient, the nurse must

    A. give the injection in the upper arm near the shoulder
    B. have emergency equipment and drugs available for immediate use
    C. give the injections at the same site each time
    D. observe the patient for 1 hour following the injection
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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