canine and feline week 3

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rpanek
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235528
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canine and feline week 3
Updated:
2013-10-04 19:33:52
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vet tech
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canine and feline management
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  1. what does FHV-1 stand for
    feline viral rhinotracheitis type 1
  2. what does FCV stand for
    feline calicivirus
  3. what does FPV stand for
    feline panleukopenia virus (aka feline distemper)
  4. what does FeLV stand for
    feline leukemia virus
  5. what does FIP stand for
    feline infectious peritonitis
  6. what is the vaccination schedule for a kitten from 8 weeks to 12 months
    • 8-10 weeks - FHV-1, FCV, FPV, FeLV, FIP
    • 12 weeks - FHV-1, FCV, FPV, FeLV, FIP, and Rabies
    • 12 months - FHV-1, FCV, FPV, FeLV, FIP, and rabies
  7. what is the etiology for brucellosis
    Brucella canis
  8. what is the 2 etiologies for cat-scratch disease
    • Bartonella henselae
    • Bartonella vinsonii (most common)
  9. what is the etiology for chagas disease
    Trypanosoma cruzi
  10. what is the etiology for conjunctivitis
    Chlamydia psittaci
  11. what are 4 etiologies for diarrhea
    • Salmonella
    • Camylobacter
    • Yersinia
    • Giardia
  12. what are 2 the etiologies for Echinococcosis
    • granulosus
    • multiocularis
  13. what are 4 etiologies for larval migrans
    • Toxocara canis
    • Toxocara cati
    • Ancylostoma braziliense
    • Ancylostoma caninum
  14. what is the etiology for leishmaniasis
    • Leshmania donovani
    • Leshmania canis
  15. what is the etiology for leptospirosis
    Leptospira interrogans
  16. what is the etiology for the black plague
    Yersinia pestis
  17. what is the etiology for rabies
    Lyssia virus or Rhabdovirus group
  18. what is the etiology for ringworm
    Microsporum canis (most common)
  19. what is the etiology for scabies
    Sarcopties scabiei
  20. what is the etiology for sporotrichosis
    Sporothrix schenckii
  21. what is the etiology for toxoplasmosis
    Toxoplasma gondii
  22. what is the etiology for tularemia
    Francisella tularensis
  23. what are the usual etiologies for wound infections
    • Pasturella multocida
    • haemolytica (other gram negative bacteria)
  24. what is the most common etiological agent for animal bite wounds
    Pasteurella multocida (gram -)
  25. what is the cycle for the bubonic plague
    • flea eats the bacteria Yersinia pestis causing obtipation
    • the flea then vomits on the rat/human
    • host contracts Y. pestis
    • flea and host die
  26. enteric zoonotic bacteria that inhabit the dog and cat intestines
    Campylobacter and Salmonella
  27. enteric zoonotic bacteria that inhabits dog and cat intestines that causes ascending paralysis by releasing a toxin
    Campylobacteria
  28. enteric zoonotic bacteria that inhabits dog and cat intestines that causes diarrhea and arthritis
    Salmonella
  29. this enteric zoonotic protozoa causes projectile diarrhea and is commonly contracted through water
    Giardia
  30. what is Giardia in humans called
    Giardia lamblia
  31. what is Giardia in dogs and cats called
    Giardia intestinalis (formerly called G. canis)
  32. term for an organism that is causing the disease
    etiology
  33. term for the relationship between antibodies to an antigen in ratio terms
    titer
  34. term for the patient that is parasitized by an etiological agent
    host
  35. term for the relationship of various factors that determine frequency and distribution of a disease
    epizootiology
  36. what does TVMDL stand for
    Texas Veterinary Medical Diagnostic Laboratory
  37. term for the natural host for a disease
    definitive host
  38. term for the development of a disease form beginning to end
    pathogenesis
  39. what does CDC stand for
    Center for Disease Control
  40. term for an organism that lives at the expense of another organism
    parasite
  41. term for an issue that is seen with the naked eye
    symptoms
  42. this usually requires laboratory technology in order to be seen
    clinical signs
  43. term for the prevention of disease
    prophylaxis
  44. what are 3 types of diagnosis
    • differential
    • tentative
    • definitive
  45. this type of diagnosis is based on symptoms of a disease
    differential diagnosis
  46. this type of diagnosis is based on current history seen recently to pinpoint the disease
    tentative
  47. this type of diagnosis is based on the absolute identification of the etiology based on clinical signs
    definitive diagnosis
  48. term for the acquisition of etiology and death within 24 hours
    peracute disease
  49. a disease that is severe and possibly deadly but is longer then 24 hrs
    acute disease
  50. a disease with mild clinical signs like pyrexia and anorexia
    subacute
  51. term for a patient that has no clinical signs but shows occasional symptoms but other then that looks completely normal
    subclinical
  52. continuing over a long period of time
    chronic
  53. a disease that is transmittable from man to animal and vice versa
    zoonosis
  54. a term for a disease that attacks many animals in a region at the same time "out breaks"
    epizootic
  55. a term for a disease that i present in an animal community at all times, but only in small number of cases (usually a particular disease)
    enzootic
  56. what are the two terms categories of the immune system
    • non-specific immunity
    • specific immunity
  57. what are four examples of non-specific immunity
    • species resistance
    • mechanical and chemical barriers
    • inflammatory response
    • interferon and complement
  58. what are two examples of specific immunity
    • Humoral immunity
    • cell mediated immunity
  59. what is the general term for the activities of the immune system
    immunity (duh...)
  60. this type of immunity does not involve vaccines and the animal is born with it; also considered passive
    non-specific immunity
  61. this term refers to the genetic ability of a species to provide defense against certain pathogens
    species resistance
  62. these barriers prevent entry of microorganisms into the body. An example would be skin and mucous membranes
    mechanical and chemical barriers
  63. what are the enzymes called that are released by a cell when tissue is invaded by microorganisms
    cell mediators
  64. explain the inflammatory response
    • tissue is invaded by microorganisms
    • the cells release enzymes (cell mediators)
    • mediator enzymes attract wbc (basophils)
    • basophils (contain H & H) dilate blood vessels and allows permeability to the area
    • neutrophils move through cellular clefts to phagocytize microorganisms
  65. what two chemicals/enzymes are produced by cells when they are invaded by viruses
    • interferon
    • complement
  66. what are the differences between interferon an complement
    • interferon
    • - interferes with replication¬†
    • - actually enters the virus
    • - does not kill the virus immediately

    • complement
    • - punctures holes in the virus
    • - causes the virus to lysis resulting in immediate death
    • - does not enter the virus
  67. what are the two types of white blood cells involved with specific immunity
    • B-lymphocytes
    • T-lymphocytes
  68. this device is used to discern deficiencies in antibody production
    serum electrophoretic
  69. this wbc produces antibodies in response to specific antigen stimulation.
    B-lymphocytes (humoral immunity)
  70. This wbc are programmed to recognize unique markers on invading cells
    T-lymphocytes
  71. what does CPV stand for
    canine parvovirus
  72. what is the incubation period for cpv
    7-14 days (types 2a and 2b 4-6 days)
  73. how is cpv contracted
    oral/nasal route (primarily feces)
  74. cpv was a mutation of [blank]
    feline panleukopenia
  75. what are some clinical signs for cpv
    • leukocytopenia (main)
    • diarrhea
  76. what does DIC stand for
    disseminated intravascular coagulation
  77. what is DIC (definition)
    the abnormal coagulation of blood usually in small vessels due to an underlying disease
  78. death can occur early (2 days) from cpv usually due to [blank] and [blank]
    • gram-negative sepsis
    • DIC disseminated intravascular coagulation)
  79. cpv is caused by a [blank], [blank] virus
    • single stranded
    • non-enveloped DNA virus
  80. cpv type1 first appeared in
    1967
  81. cpv-type2 was first isolated in
    1978
  82. cpv was associated with the outbreak of hemorrhagic enteritis during the late seventies caused by the
    corona virus
  83. cpv-2a was found in [blank]
    1982
  84. cpv-2b was found in
    1984
  85. cpv-2c was found in [blank] and isolated in Germany and Italy
    1996
  86. cpv-2c was first isolated in the US in
    2006
  87. CPV of all types divide and multiply in the
    fat cells of the gasro-intestinal tract
  88. [blank] does not react to the ELISA test,
    CPV-2c, but can if tested multiple times
  89. post mortem for cpv-2c requires tissue from two parts of the body
    • small intestine
    • tongue
  90. [blank] can infect cats usually causing vomiting but rarely death
    cpv-2c
  91. [blank] vaccine will protect cats form cpv-2c
    feline panleukopenia vaccine
  92. what two commercial parvo vaccines have been foudn to be effective in preventing cpv-2c
    • galaxy vaccines (CPV-2b)
    • continuum vaccines (CPV strain 154)
    • - some say that sherring plough vaccines work to
  93. what dog breeds are most susceptible to parvovirus enteritis
    • doberman pinschers
    • rottweilers
    • labrador retrievers
    • american stafforshire terriers
    • german sheherds
    • alaskan sled dogs
  94. what age range seems to be the most susceptible
    between 6 weeks and 6 months especially if they are under 20 lbs
  95. what the 7 symptoms of cpv
    • fever (pyrexia)
    • lethargy
    • vomiting
    • diarrhea (soft watery with a distinctive odor and bloody orange to red color)
    • dehydration
    • lack of apetite
    • pronounced leukopenia
  96. what 4 tissues are most associated with cpv-2 infections
    • gastrointestinal tract
    • myocardium
    • skin
    • nervous tissue
  97. why are puppies under the age of 12 weeks more susceptible to cpv infections
    because they lack immunity and have an larger number of growing and dividing cells
  98. what are 2 clinical complications associated with cpv-2 infections
    • secondary infections
    • thrombosis (presence of platelets and fibrin causing vascular obstruction)
  99. [blank] percent of puppies maternal antibodies come from transplacental transfer while [blank] are absorbed from colostrum
    • 10%
    • 90%
  100. what is the fist action of parvo
    leukopenia - the reason is it inhibits white blood cell division in the bone marrow (turn immune system off) then makes its way to the GI track
  101. what is the mbost common test used for cpv
    ELISA test (enzyme linked immunosorbant assay)
  102. what does cbc stand for
    complete blood count
  103. the detectability of parvo usually disappears form the feces in about
    7-9 days
  104. what are 4 test being used through state labs
    • direct and indirect fluorescent antibody methods
    • electron microscopy
    • antibody titers
    • tissue cultures
  105. what are 4 treatments for parvo
    • IV fluids
    • antibiotics
    • non-steroidal anti-inflamatory drugs (NSAID)
    • Colony stimulating factor (Ab production)
  106. what are the two most common bacteria seen with parvo
    • Escherichia coli
    • Clostridium perfingens
  107. if the bitch titer is high/low what age should puppies be vaccinated
    • high = 20 weeks
    • low = 6 weeks
  108. what are the recommendations when vaccinating for parvo for a large breed (75 lbs and up)
    • start at 4 weeks
    • continue every two to three weeks until 16-20 weeks
  109. what are the recommendations when vaccinating for parvo for medium breeds (20 - 75 lbs)
    • start at 5 weeks
    • 2-3 weeks in between until 16-20 weeks
  110. what are the recommendations when vaccinating for parvo for small breeds (less then 20 lbs)
    • start at 6 weeks
    • 2-3 weeks in between vaccines
    • until 16-20 weeks
  111. what is the shedding period for parvo
    4-5 days following the onset of illness

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