Equine Management - Week 4

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Equine Management - Week 4
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2013-09-21 20:00:42
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Equine Management - Joyce Brod
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  1. After clotted blood has been spun, what is the clear yellow fluid at the top?
    serum
  2. once an animal is born, what tissue in the bone marrow is responsible for RBC formation?
    myeloid tissue
  3. what is hematopoiesis?
    formation of all parts of the blood
  4. how are dead RBCs removed?
    broken down by spleen and lymph nodes
  5. what is another name for neutrophils?
    polymorphonuclear cells
  6. what is contained within the basophilic granules?
    histamine and heparin
  7. what is the function of histamine?
    initiates inflammation and allergic reactions
  8. what is the function of heparin?
    anticoagulant
  9. lymphocytes make up the majority of agranulocytes, but it is the only WBC that does not have _____________?
    phagocytic abilities
  10. what are the three types of lymphocytes involved in the immune system?
    • 1. T lymphocytes
    • 2. B lymphocytes
    • 3. Natural Killer (NK)
  11. what is a natural killer cell?
    defense against some cancers and viruses
  12. what is the term for a decrease in the number of platelets which results in a clotting issue?
    thromobytopenia
  13. In the bone marrow, what is responsible for making platelets?
    megakaryocytes
  14. what is DIC?
    disseminated intravascular coagulation
  15. what is the result of DIC?
    • increases coagulation of the blood
    • depletes the clotting factors and platelets
    • platelets congregate in one area of the body
    • can be fatal
  16. what is another name for excess fluid?
    lymph
  17. what are the four functions of the lymphatic system?
    • 1. remove extra fluid
    • 2. remove waste from tissues
    • 3. filters foreign debris and bacteria from lymph
    • 4. transport large proteins and lipids to the blood from the tissues
  18. where is lymph fluid located?
    interstitial space
  19. what is the primary drainage duct for lymph?
    thoracic duct
  20. that are the three area of the lymph node?
    • 1. cortex
    • 2. paracortex
    • 3. medulla
  21. what is contained in the outer cortex?
    B lymphocytes
  22. what is contained in the paracortex?
    T lymphocytes
  23. what is function of the medulla for the lymph node?
    skeleton
  24. what lymph nodes are palpable in a horse?
    submandibular lymph nodes
  25. what is term for enlarged or swollen lymph nodes?
    lymphadenopathy
  26. what attaches the spleen to the left kidney?
    nephrosplenic ligament
  27. what attaches the spleen to the stomach?
    gastrosplenic ligament
  28. what are the four functions of the spleen?
    • 1. store blood
    • 2. remove foreign particles from the blood
    • 3. remove old RBCs
    • 4. produce lymphocytes
  29. what are the two types of tissue that comprise the spleen?
    • 1. red pulp
    • 2. white pulp
  30. what is the function of the red pulp tissue in the spleen?
    store and remove RBCs
  31. what is the function of the white pulp tissue in the spleen?
    produce lymphocytes
  32. what are the four chambers of the heart?
    • 1. right atrium
    • 2. left atrium
    • 3. right ventricle
    • 4. left ventricle
  33. what are the two functions of the atria?
    • 1. receive and hold blood
    • 2. SA node (pacemaker)
  34. what is the function of the ventricles?
    pump blood away from the heart
  35. what are the three layers of the heart?
    • 1. epicardium
    • 2. myocardium
    • 3. endocardium
  36. what is the function of the myocardium?
    make contractions
  37. what is the function of the endocardium?
    form the heart valves
  38. what holds the fluid between the heart layers?
    pericardial sac
  39. what does AV stand for?
    atrioventricular valve
  40. what are the two AV valves?
    • 1. mitral
    • 2. tricuspid
  41. what attaches the AV valves to the heart?
    chordae tendinae
  42. what controls the blood flow out of the ventricles?
    semilunar valves
  43. what are the two semilunar valves?
    • 1. aortic
    • 2. pulmonary
  44. what is the name for muscle cells in the heart?
    myocytes
  45. what connects the myocytes?
    intercalated disks
  46. what controls changes in the heart rate?
    autonomic nervous system
  47. where does the electrical activity of the heart originate?
    SA node
  48. where is the SA node located?
    wall of the right atrium
  49. where are the nerve impulses from the AV node conducted to?
    Bundle of His
  50. where are the nerve impulses from the Bundle of His conducted to?
    purkinje system
  51. what is stroke volume?
    the volume of blood ejected by the ventricles in one beat
  52. what is cardiac output?
    volume of blood ejected by the heart in one minute
  53. what is the formula for calculating cardiac output?
    stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate
  54. what is the normal heart rate for a horse?
    24-48 bpm
  55. what is the outer layer of blood vessel?
    tunica adventitia
  56. what is the middle layer of a blood vessel?
    tunica media
  57. what types of tissue comprise the tunica media?
    • smooth muscle
    • elastic tissue
  58. what is the innermost layer of a blood vessel?
    tunica intima
  59. arteries carry oxygenated blood with one exception - what is it?
    pulmonary artery
  60. veins carry deoxygenated blood with one exception - what is it?
    pulmonary vein
  61. what are the two divisions of the circulatory system?
    • 1. pulmonary circulation
    • 2. systemic circulation
  62. which artery carries deoxygenated blood into the heart?
    vena cava
  63. what is the function of the alar cartilage?
    support for the nares
  64. what is the length of the nasal cavity?
    nostrils to the nasopharynx
  65. what is another name for the turbinate bones?
    conchae
  66. what covers the conchae?
    highly vascularized mucosa
  67. what are the three divisions of the conchae?
    • 1. dorsal
    • 2. middle
    • 3. ventral meatuses
  68. what is the purpose of the ventral meatus?
    widest of the turbinate bones used for nasogastric tubes
  69. how many pairs of sinuses in a horse?
    7
  70. which sinuses are most often involved with disease?
    • frontral
    • cranial maxillary
    • caudal maxillary
  71. what is created when the seven pairs of sinuses are combined?
    • nasopharynx
    • oropharynx
  72. what separates the nasopharynx and the oropharynx?
    soft palate
  73. what is created with the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and the soft palate?
    pharynx
  74. what lines the nasopharynx?
    pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells
  75. what lines the oropharynx and the pharynx?
    stratified simple squamous epithellium
  76. what support the larynx?
    hyoid apparatus
  77. what does the epiglottis cover?
    glottis
  78. what is another name for lung tissue?
    parenchyma
  79. what is covered by the parietal pleura?
    • chest wall
    • diaphragm
    • mediastinum
  80. what is covered by the visceral pleura?
    lungs
  81. what is the most important inspiratory muscle in a horse?
    diaphragm
  82. what is oxidative metabolism?
    oxygen is transported by the blood to the tissues to be used with glucose to create energy
  83. what type of teeth do horses have?
    hypsodont
  84. what is the dentine of the tooth?
    mineralized tissue in the tooth
  85. what encases the root of a tooth?
    cement
  86. what is the name that refers to the first premolar tooth on the maxilla?
    wolf tooth
  87. when do temporary incisors typically erupt?
    • I1 - 8 days
    • I2 - 8 weeks
    • I3 - 8 months
  88. when do permanent incisors erput?
    • I1 - 2.5 years
    • I2 - 3.5 years
    • I3 - 4.5 years
  89. when do permanent premolars erupt?
    • P2 - 2.5 years
    • P3 - 3 years
    • P4 - 5 years
  90. when do permanent molars erupt?
    • M1 - 1 year
    • M2 - 2 years
    • M3 - 3.5 years
  91. what is exposed when the enamel infolds on itself on the occlusal surface of the incisor?
    cement
  92. what is the term for the exposed cement as the horse ages?
    cup
  93. what use is the cup?
    aging the horse
  94. when do cups appear on the lower incisors?
    • I1 - 6 years
    • I2 - 7 years
    • I3 - 8 years
  95. when do cups appear on the upper incisors?
    • I1 - 7 years
    • I2 - 8 years
    • I3 - 9 years
  96. at what age should a horse have all the permanent teeth?
    5 years
  97. where is the "hook" formed?
    upper I3 on the distal side
  98. what is the term for the "hook" that appears on the upper I3?
    7 year notch
  99. at what age does the 7 year notch appear?
    7 years
  100. at what age does the 7 year notch disappear?
    10 years
  101. at what age is the Galvayne's groove appear?
    10 years
  102. at what age is the Galvayne's groove about halfway?
    15 years
  103. at what age is the Galvayne's groove complete?
    20 years
  104. at what age does the Galvayne's groove disappear about halfway?
    25 years
  105. at what age does the Galvayne's groove completely recede?
    30 years
  106. where does the Galvayne's groove appear?
    upper I3
  107. at what age do all of the cups disappear?
    10 years
  108. as the horse ages, what shape does the mouth form?
    "parrot" mouth
  109. what are "points" on premolars and molars?
    sharp projections
  110. what is the term for equine dentistry?
    floating
  111. what happens during floating?
    the points are filed down from the premolars and molars
  112. what are the four paired salivary glands?
    • 1. parotid
    • 2. mandibular
    • 3. sublingual
    • 4. buccal
  113. what is another term for swallowing?
    deglutination
  114. what side of the body is the location for the stomach?
    left
  115. what is the function of somatotstatin?
    decrease acid secretion
  116. what is the function of parietal cells?
    secrete hydrochloric acid
  117. what is the function of zymogen cells?
    secrete pepsinogen
  118. what is the function of G cells?
    secrete gastrin
  119. what is the function of gastrin?
    stimulate acid secretion for digestion
  120. what is the function of D cells?
    secrete somatostatin
  121. how long is an equine small intestine?
    75 feet
  122. what are the three divisions of the small intestine?
    • 1. duodenum
    • 2. jejunum
    • 3. illium
  123. what surrounds the villi of the intestines?
    crypts of Lieberkuhn
  124. what is the function of the crypts of Lieberkuhn?
    secrete large amounts of fluid into the lumen of the small intestine
  125. what is broken down by the digestive enzymes released from the pancreas?
    • carbs
    • fats
    • proteins
  126. what organ secrets bile salts?
    liver
  127. what is the shortest section of the small intestine?
    illium
  128. what are the two division of the large intestine?
    • 1. cecum
    • 2. colon
  129. what are the three division of the colon?
    • 1. large ascending colon
    • 2. transverse colon
    • 3. small descending colon
  130. what plant product is microbially digested in the cecum and colon?
    cellulose
  131. what does VFA stand for?
    volatile fatty acids
  132. what are VFAs?
    nutrients
  133. what is between the ilium and the cecum?
    large colon
  134. how much can the cecum hold?
    30 L
  135. what are the three divisions of the cecum?
    • 1. base
    • 2. body
    • 3. apex
  136. what are the two primary functions of the cecum?
    • 1. absorb water and electrolytes
    • 2. create an environment for microbial digestion
  137. what is the common site for feed impactions in the colon?
    pelvic flexure
  138. what is the function of the small colon?
    turn ingesta from the transverse colon into fecal balls by completing water absorption
  139. what are the three functions of the nervous system?
    • 1. sensory
    • 2. integrative
    • 3. motor
  140. what are the three divisions of the nervous system?
    • 1. central nervous system
    • 2. peripheral nervous system
    • 3. autonomic nervous system
  141. what are the three items that comprise each neuron?
    • 1. soma
    • 2. axon
    • 3. dendrite
  142. where to axons carry nerve impulses?
    away from the neuron to effector organs
  143. what is the term for nervous tissue with myelinated axons?
    white matter
  144. what is the term for nervous tissue with non-myelinated axons?
    grey matter
  145. what part of the nervous system is comprised of grey matter?
    spinal cord
  146. what are the two functions of glial cells?
    • 1. support
    • 2. protect
  147. what is NOT a function of glial cells?
    transmit nerve impulses
  148. what is the term for specialized glial cells of the brain and spinal cord?
    oligodendrocytes
  149. what is the term for glial cells that constitute the myelin?
    Schwann cells
  150. what are three signs of upper motor neuron disease?
    • 1. spasticity
    • 2. hypermetria
    • 3. exaggerated reflexes
  151. what is a ganglion?
    group of nerve cells where synapses occur enabling transmission
  152. what are three signs for lower motor neuron disease?
    • 1. weakness
    • 2. trembling
    • 3. neurogenic atrophy
  153. what surrounds the brain and the spinal cord?
    meninges
  154. what are the three layers of the meninges?
    • 1. dura mater
    • 2. arachnoid mater
    • 3. pia mater
  155. where is the cerebrospinal fluid located?
    subarachnoid space
  156. which layer of the meninges actually covers the brain and spinal cord?
    pia mater
  157. what is provided to the brain and spinal cord from the blood of the meninges?
    oxygen and nutrients
  158. what are the two locations for retrieving CSF for a centesis?
    • 1. lumbosacral space
    • 2. atlanto occipital space
  159. what are the three divisions of the brain?
    • 1. forebrain (prosencephalon)
    • 2. midbrain (mesencephalon)
    • 3. hindbrain (rhomboencephalon)
  160. what is the term for the folds of the brain?
    gyri
  161. what three sections are included in the hindbrain?
    • 1. cerebellum
    • 2. pons
    • 3. medulla oblongata
  162. what is an example of a simple spinal reflex?
    panniculus reflex
  163. what is the panniculus reflex?
    twitch caused by a pinch that sends an impulse to the spinal cord which sends a motor impulse to the cutaneous trunci muscle
  164. what are the two division of the autonomic nervous system?
    • 1. sympathetic
    • 2. parasympathetic
  165. what is an alternate name for the autonomic nervous system?
    visceral nervous system
  166. what is the chemical messenger of the sympathetic nervous system?
    norepinephrine
  167. what is the chemical messenger of the parasympathetic nervous system?
    acetylcholine
  168. which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood into the kidney?
    renal artery
  169. what blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood out of the kidney?
    renal vein
  170. what type of tissue comprises the urinary bladder? why?
    transitional - allows the bladder to stretch as the volume increase
  171. what organ does the equine NOT have?
    gall bladder
  172. what is produced by hepatocytes?
    bile
  173. what is contained in bile?
    • bile acids
    • cholesterol
    • bilirubin
  174. what vitamins are stored in the liver?
    • vitamin A
    • vitamin D
    • vitamin E
    • vitamin K
  175. what is the term for an enlarged liver?
    hepatomegaly
  176. what is secreted from the endocrine glands into systemic circulation?
    hormones
  177. what are the five major parts of the endocrine system?
    • 1. pituitary gland
    • 2. adrenal gland
    • 3. thyroid gland
    • 4. parathyroid gland
    • 5. pancreas
  178. what is another name for the pituitary gland?
    hypophysis
  179. what is the most important gland of the endocrine system?
    pituitary gland
  180. where is the pituitary gland located?
    pituitary fossa
  181. what are the three regions of the pituitary gland?
    • 1. anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis)
    • 2. posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis)
    • 3. pars intermedia (between anterior and posterior)
  182. what type of hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary?
    trophic hormones
  183. what is the function of trophic hormones?
    stimulate growth of the target organ
  184. what are two trophic hormones?
    • 1. GH (Growth Hormone)/somatotropin
    • 2. ACTH (adrenocorticotrophic hormone)
  185. what is the function of the posterior pituitary gland?
    store hormones
  186. which hormones are stored in the posterior pituitary gland?
    • oxytocin
    • antidiuretic homone (vasopressin)
  187. what is the main issue in equine Cushing's disease?
    pars intermedia over produce hormones
  188. what regulates pituitary gland hormones?
    hypothalamus
  189. what are the two main parts of each adrenal gland?
    • 1. outer cortex
    • 2. inner medulla
  190. what is the function of the outer cortex of the adrenal gland?
    produce steroid hormones
  191. what is the function of the inner medulla of the adrenal gland?
    produce catecholamine hormones
  192. what are two examples of catecholamine hormones?
    • 1. epinephrine
    • 2. norepinephrine
  193. what are the three divisions of the adrenal cortex?
    • 1. zona glomerulosa
    • 2. zona fasciculata
    • 3. zona reticularis
  194. which type of hormones is produced by the zona glomerulosa?
    mineral corticoids
  195. what is an example of a mineral corticoid?
    aldosterone
  196. which type of hormones is produced by the zona fasciculata?
    glucocorticoids
  197. which type of hormones is produced by the zona reticularis?
    sex steroids
  198. what is regulated by calcitonin?
    blood calcium levels
  199. what is regulated by parathyroid hormone?
    blood calcium levels
  200. blood calcium levels are regulated by two hormones - calcitonin and parathyroid hormone. what is the difference between the two?
    • calcitonin - released when too much calcium
    • parathyroid hormone - released when not enough calcium
  201. what composes pancreatic tissue?
    Islets of Langerhans
  202. what is special about the pancreas?
    both exocrine and endocrine gland
  203. what are the two digestive enzymes produced by the exocrine pancreas?
    • 1. lipase
    • 2. amylase
  204. what three cell types make up the endocrine pancreas?
    • 1. beta cells
    • 2. alpha cells
    • 3. delta cells
  205. what are the two primary hormones produced by the endocrine pancreas?
    • 1. insulin
    • 2. glucagon
  206. what is the function of insulin and glucagon?
    work together to regulate blood glucose levels
  207. what is released by beta cells?
    insulin
  208. what is released by alpha cells?
    glucagon
  209. what is released by delta cells?
    somatostatin
  210. what is the function of glucagon?
    blood glucose is low, stimulates glucose production released by the liver
  211. what is the function of somatostatin?
    inhibit secretion of both insulin and glucagon
  212. what are the three layers of the skin?
    • 1. epidermis
    • 2. dermis
    • 3. hypodermis
  213. what are the six functions of the skin?
    • 1. protection
    • 2. thermoregulation
    • 3. sensation
    • 4. contain exocrine glands
    • 5. Vitamin D production
    • 6. immune function
  214. horses have the largest number of what glands?
    sweat glands
  215. what are the three layers of the eye?
    • 1. sclera
    • 2. uvea
    • 3. retina
  216. what is a another name for the third eyelid?
    nictitans
  217. what is mydriasis?
    pupil dilation
  218. what is myosis?
    pupil contraction
  219. what is contained within the retina that is vital for vision?
    • 1. rod photoreceptors
    • 2. cone photoreceptors
  220. what is the function of rod photoreceptors?
    black, darkness and white
  221. what is the function of cone photoreceptors?
    color, light
  222. what are the common names for the three bones in the middle ear?
    • 1. hammer
    • 2. anvil
    • 3. stirrup
  223. what are the scientific names for the three bones in the middle ear?
    • 1. maelleus
    • 2. incus
    • 3. stape
  224. what are the ossicles?
    three bones in the middle ear
  225. what is the function of the ossicles?
    transfer and amplify sound vibrations from the eardrum through the inner ear
  226. what is the function of the eustachian tube?
    pressure equilibrium between the external and middle ear
  227. what are the two divisions of the skeleton?
    • 1. axial
    • 2. appendicular
  228. what constitutes the axial skeleton?
    • skull, vertebrae, ribs, tail
    • top half of the body (head to tail)
  229. what constitutes the appendicular skeleton?
    structural support - forelimbs and hindlimbs
  230. what is the vertebral formula of the horse?
    • C 7
    • T 18
    • L 6
    • S 5
    • Cy 15-20
  231. what are the splint bones?
    second and fourth metacarpal/metatarsal bones
  232. what are the three constituents of bone?
    • 1. osteoblasts
    • 2. osteocytes
    • 3. osteoclasts
  233. what is the function of osteoblasts?
    deposit osteoid on the the bone surface
  234. what is the function of osteoclasts?
    bone absorption
  235. what are the two types of bone?
    • 1. cancellous
    • 2. compact
  236. what is contained in cancellous bone to make blood cells?
    hematopoietic bone marrow
  237. what is the term for free motion joints?
    synovial
  238. what are the three groups of joints?
    • 1. synovial
    • 2. cartilaginous
    • 3. fibrous
  239. what is an example of a fibrous joint?
    sutures of the skull
  240. what can be caused by damage to any part of the synovial joint?
    • degenerative joint disease
    • osteoarthritis
  241. what are the three classifications of muscle?
    • 1. smooth
    • 2. cardia
    • 3. skeletal
  242. what are the thick and thin filaments of the myofibrils of muscle?
    • myosin - thick
    • actin - thin
  243. what is the function of tendons?
    connect muscle to bones
  244. what is the function of ligaments?
    connect bones to bones
  245. what are tendons and ligaments primary made of?
    collagen fibers

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